ATC Basics - Knowledge Checks

What are the ATO service areas? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

The safe, secure, and efficient management for the NAS is the responsibility of which division? (Select the correct answer.)

The ATO is managed by a(n) _____. (Select the correct answer.)

What is the first duty priority of the ATC system? (Select the correct answer.)

What are the primary purposes of the ATC system? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

When should nonradar separation be used?

Match the term that identifies each operating position in an FSS with its associated function. Enter your answers in the spaces below

Match the term that identifies the operating positions with their associated functions. Enter your answers in the spaces below.

The primary function of an ARTCC is providing ATC service to en route __________. (Select the correct answer.)

Match the term that identifies the radar or sector team operating positions with their associated functions. Enter your answers in the spaces below.

The mission of the TM system is to balance air traffic _____ with system _____. (Select the correct answers.)

The operation of the TM system is the responsibility of the _____. (Select the correct answer.)

Monitoring and balancing air traffic flows within their area of responsibility is the primary function of the _______. (Select the correct answer.)

Match the element of the TM system with its description. Enter your answers in the spaces below.

Which of the following are components of NAS? (Select all the correct answers that apply.)

Why are NAVAIDs a vital part of NAS? (Select all the correct answers that apply.)

What do VFR and IFR describe? (Select all the correct answers that apply.)

What responsibility does ATC have with an aircraft during an IFR flight? (Select the correct answer.)

At an airport with a tower, when is movement permitted in a designated movement area? (Select the correct answer.)

How would you designate a runway with a magnetic heading of 094 degrees? (Select the correct answer.)

How would you designate a runway with a magnetic heading of 005 degrees? (Select the correct answer.)

A runway with a non-precision approach does NOT have which of the following runway markings? (Select the correct answer.)

Where are displaced threshold markings located on a runway? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Which surface on a runway is marked with large yellow chevrons? (Select the correct answer.)

Which markings indicate that the pavement is NOT intended for use by aircraft? (Select the correct answer.)

The centerline of a taxiway is marked with what type of line? (Select the correct answer.)

What is indicated by a taxiway direction sign? (Select the correct answer.)

What does the orientation of the letter “H” indicate on a helicopter landing area? (Select the correct answer.)

Match each classification of airport with its airport beacon.

Which lights consist of two white flashing strobe lights located on each side of the runway threshold? (Select the correct answer.)

Which lights mark the beginning of the runway for an approaching aircraft? (Select the correct answer.)

Which type of lighting consists of two rows of lights on each side of runway centerline lights? (Select the correct answer.)

Which light system provides visual descent guidance during runway approaches? (Select the correct answer.)

Which lights are used to confirm ATC clearance to enter the active runway? (Select the correct answer.)

Match each taxiway light with its designated color.

Which type of lights tell pilots and vehicle operators to stop when runways are not safe? (Select the correct answer.)

Match the terms associated with separation with the definition of the term.

The ATC system is required to apply separation between an aircraft operating in the system and which of the following? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

All aircraft operating at or above __________ shall have the altimeter set to ______, regardless of the local altimeter settings at stations they fly over. (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following column(s) displays less than minimum vertical separation occurring between flight levels? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the basic minimum altitude for vertical separation between IFR aircraft at FL 390? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the minimum longitudinal separation required in miles and in minutes with both aircraft using DME? (Select the correct answer.)

Using the Word Bank, label the courses appropriately

The minimum terminal radar separation required for two aircraft 30 NM from the antenna is _____. (Select the correct answer.)

The minimum en route radar separation required for two aircraft below FL 600 is _____. (Select the correct answer.)

What are some of the factors that should be considered during visual separation? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Under which conditions can you clear an aircraft for a visual approach? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

On the same runway, what conditions must exist for the preceding departing aircraft before allowing another aircraft to takeoff? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Which conditions must exist for preceding departing aircraft before a takeoff roll begins for another aircraft on nonintersecting runways? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Match the terms associated with holding procedures with the definition of the term.

What must a controller ensure when directing aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude? (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following procedures are applied by ATC for a typical holding pattern with a standard pattern? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What are the two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information? (Select the correct answer.)

Which subsystem is used for disseminating aeronautical information? (Select the correct answer.)

Who submits a NOTAM to the NS using an approved direct entry tool or interface? (Select the correct answer.)

Who is responsible for reporting a condition considered hazardous to flight? (Select the correct answer.)

Why are NOTAM Ds issued? (Select the correct answer.)

What NOTAMs are used to report the surface conditions on runways, taxiways, and aprons? (Select the correct answer.)

What type of NOTAM is issued for aerial demonstrations? (Select the correct answer.)

What type of radar display is shown in the image?

Which of the following define how primary radar works? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What are the components of a primary radar system? (Select the correct answer.)

Which primary radar component depicts the position and movements of objects that reflect radio energy? (Select the correct answer.)

Which primary radar component focuses and broadcasts radio energy, then collects the reflection return? (Select the correct answer.)

Which primary radar component amplifies and converts the reflected energy into video? (Select the correct answer.)

Which component of the secondary radar system is located on the aircraft? (Select the correct answer.)

What are the five major components of the secondary radar system? (Select the correct answer.)

The ____________ processes the transponder replies and sends them to the radar display. (Select the correct answer.)

Which component is mounted on top of the associated primary antenna, unless it is a secondary-only site? (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following are advantages of a secondary radar system? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Which of the following are disadvantages of a secondary radar system? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

ADS-B is a surveillance system in which the aircraft is fitted with cooperative equipment in the form of a _________. (Select the correct answer.)

The ADS-B system relies on information from _______. (Select all correct answers that apply.)

How does ADS-B information reach ATC? (Select the correct answer.)

Which feature does ADS-B In offer that ADS-B Out does not? (Select the correct answer.)

FAA orders are updated by which documents? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

When a change is issued to an order, how are new pages marked? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

To whom is an FAA order with a prefix of “JO” directed? (Select the correct answer.)

Match each JO numerical identifier with its title.

Which document prescribes ATC procedures and phraseology used by the FAA? (Select the correct answer.)

Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities and offices? (Select the correct answer.)

Which document contains aircraft type designators? (Select the correct answer.)

Which document lists the location identifiers authorized by the FAA? (Select the correct answer.)

Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the NAS? (Select the correct answer.)

The responsibility for approval of an LOA rests with the_______. (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following may be delegated the authority to approve an LOA? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What is the purpose for having an SOP? (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following would NOT require the development of an LOA? (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following examples would NOT be contained in an SOP? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Which of the following material or content would appear as part of an LOA? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _____. (Select the correct answer.)

The statement “the internal pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases” is a part of _____. (Select the correct answer.)

What is the curvature of the airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge? (Select the correct answer.)

What are the three principal airfoils? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Match the terms with the definitions

The key properties of the atmosphere that affect air density and aircraft performance are: (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What is the result of the weight of the air above the measurement position? (Select the correct answer.)

What are some of the ways increased density altitude can reduce aircraft performance? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

How would temperature affect aircraft on a hot day? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

How would increased humidity affect aircraft performance? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

The three rotational axes on an aircraft are: (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Which two movements are controlled by the control yoke? (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following is a primary control surface? (Select the correct answer.)

The extension of flaps causes an increase in _____. (Select the correct answer.)

Helicopter controls include: (Select all correct answers that apply.)

The most common cause of light aircraft accidents is: (Select the correct answer.)

Pitot tube icing causes which of these instruments to become unreliable? (Select the correct answer.)

The greatest wake turbulence is associated with which aircraft configuration? (Select the correct answer.)

Assuming similar aircraft, which aircraft would create a greater wake turbulence effect? (Select the correct answer.)

Which one of these has the greatest impact on wake turbulence? (Select the correct answer.)

What is/are the name(s) given to the circular patterns created by wake turbulence? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

When do vortices begin for a fixed-wing aircraft? (Select the correct answer.)

When observing an aircraft from behind, the circulation of vortices off the right wingtip is __________ and __________ off the left wingtip. (Select the correct answer.)

Vortices from larger aircraft will sink approximately 300 to 500 feet per minute and level off approximately __________ feet below the flight path. (Select the correct answer.)

With no wind, vortices within 100 to 200 feet of the ground will move ____________knots laterally across the ground. (Select the correct answer.)

Why would extra spacing be necessary when smaller aircraft are following larger aircraft at a terminal environment? (Select the correct answer.)

Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the __________ of the vortex. (Select the correct answer.)

A hovering helicopter creates a downwash from its main rotors that can travel how far? (Select the correct answer.)

When do helicopters generate wingtip vortices? (Select the correct answer.)

Why is the controller NOT responsible for anticipating the existence or effects of wake turbulence? (Select the correct answer.)

Wake turbulence has the greatest impact on ATC in the areas of __________. (Select the correct answer.)

Which weight class would be used to categorize an aircraft capable of 300,000 pounds of takeoff weight, but currently only having a takeoff weight of 225,000 pounds? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the maximum certificated takeoff weight of an aircraft in the small weight class? (Select the correct answer.)

What would the weight class be for an aircraft having a 250,000-pound maximum certificated takeoff weight? (Select the correct answer.)

Match the description to the correct category or weight class.

Match the description to the correct category or weight class.

Match the description to the correct category or weight class.

Designators may have as many as ________ characters, but no less than ________. (Select the correct answer.)

What is generally the first character in an aircraft designator? (Select the correct answer.)

Which engine types have propellers? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What category are turbojet aircraft? (Select the correct answer.)

Which features are used to identify aircraft? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What are the three basic wing placement positions? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What are the three basic wing shapes or configurations? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What are the basic tail configurations? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

What are the basic types of landing gear? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Which class of airspace does NOT require an ATC clearance? (Select the correct answer.)

The airspace that generally extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL and surrounds a busy airport is designated as _______ airspace. (Select the correct answer.)

Which class of airspace is uncontrolled? (Select the correct answer.)

Which class of airspace is generally that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation? (Select the correct answer.)

Which airspace has NO defined vertical limit? (Select the correct answer.)

Why are TFRs issued? (Select the correct answer.)

The SUA that is necessary to confine activities considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called a _______ Area. (Select the correct answer.)

What type of SUA is found over international waters? (Select the correct answer.)

Prohibited Area vertical airspace begins at _______. (Select the correct answer.)

Airspace in which a high volume of pilot training takes place would be designated as a(n) ______. (Select the correct answer.)

Under whose authority are Title 14 CFRs/FARs issued? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the term used to indicate aircraft operating in the air or on airport movement areas? (Select the correct answer.)

What is authorization by ATC for the purpose of preventing collisions between known aircraft called? (Select the correct answer.)

What is a level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury known as? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the control of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC referred to as? (Select the correct answer.)

Which aircraft operating within the United States are subject to Title 14 CFR/FAR Part 91? (Select the correct answer.)

When may pilots of two different aircraft operate as a formation flight? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

For approaching head-on aircraft, each pilot of each aircraft shall: (Select the correct answer.)

What is the maximum speed of VFR aircraft below Class B airspace? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the maximum speed for an aircraft in Class C or D airspace flying at less than 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the minimum safe altitude over congested areas? (Select the correct answer.)

What should the altimeter be set at in an aircraft maintaining FL 310? (Select the correct answer.)

When may a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance? (Select the correct answer.)

When should a pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance notify ATC of that deviation? (Select the correct answer.)

Which direction should aircraft always turn to line up for runways in Class G airspace at airports without operational control towers? (Select the correct answer.)

Which rules apply at airports in Class C or D airspace that have designated runway usage for a noise abatement program? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

In which class of airspace are pilots NOT allowed to operate unless they have an IFR rating? (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following are required before a person can act as an air traffic control tower operator? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Which of the following skills are required for air traffic control tower operator certification? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

An air traffic control tower operator must perform his/her duties to provide for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic in accordance with _______. (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following consequences could a controller face if convicted for any federal or state statute relating to substance abuse? (Select the correct answer.)

Title 14 CFR Part 91 regulations cover the airspace within how many NM of the U.S. coast? (Select the correct answer.)

Which aircraft are subject to Title 14 CFR Part 91? (Select the correct answer.)

What is one of the reasons flight plans are filed? (Select the correct answer.)

Which of the following statements about a VFR flight plan is true? (Select the correct answer.)

When landing at an airport with an operational Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT), an IFR flight plan______. (Select the correct answer.)

Where can a pilot submit a flight plan? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

A VFR flight plan is required to include which of the following information? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

A person may not operate an aircraft under VFR flight rules in which airspace? (Select the correct answer.)

Which VFR requirements are stated in distance above, below, and horizontally from the aircraft and forward flight visibility? (Select the correct answer.)

If the surface visibility is NOT reported during SVFR operations, flight visibility must be at least how far? (Select the correct answer.)

What would be an appropriate VFR altitude on a magnetic course of 250 degrees and more than 3,000 feet above the surface? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the correct altitude for a VFR aircraft on a magnetic course of 090 degrees? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the correct altitude for a VFR aircraft on a magnetic course of 180 degrees? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the correct altitude for a VFR aircraft on a magnetic course of 360 degrees? (Select the correct answer.)

VFR-on-top is which type of clearance? (Select the correct answer.)

What is required before a person may operate aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the minimum visibility for an IFR departure when the takeoff minimum at a civil airport is NOT prescribed for a twin-engine aircraft? (Select the correct answer.)

An aircraft is cleared from Altus to the Enid airport by a routing other than the one filed. How will the pilot proceed if radio failure occurs? (Select the correct answer.)

If a route has NOT been assigned, or if ATC has NOT advised that a route may be expected, what action will the pilot take in the event of radio failure? (Select the correct answer.)

What is the fix, point, or location to which an aircraft is cleared when issued an air traffic clearance? (Select the correct answer.)

When there is a two-way radio failure, what is a pilot expected to do when the aircraft arrives at a clearance limit from which an approach begins? (Select all correct answers that apply.)

Match the description of the IFR flight rule with the compliance for completing the flight rule.

What is the supplemental oxygen requirement for 15,250 feet MSL for a U.S.-registered aircraft? (Select the correct answer.)

At what duration is supplemental oxygen required on a U.S.-registered aircraft flying above 12,500 feet MSL, up to and including 14,000 feet MSL? (Select the correct answer.)