SPL Knowledge Test 11
Why do most standard certificated aircraft incorporate a dual ignition system with two individual magnetos, separate sets of wires, and spark plugs?
To increase reliability of the ignition system.
The engine will not run properly with only one magneto.
To ensure engine balance.
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?
Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
Owner or operator.
Repair station.
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
Constantly except in starting the engine.
In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
The only north seeking instrument in a typical training airplane is:
The heading indicator.
The attitude indicator.
The magnetic compass.
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
Induced drag increases with:
An increase in the angle of attack.
A decrease in the angle of attack.
The speed of the airplane.
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the
clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counter-clockwise.
propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was applied.
How is the wing twisted on most training airplanes to increase controllability at low speeds?
The wing is twisted to a lower AOA at the wing root.
The wing is twisted to a higher AOA at the wing tip.
The wing is twisted to a higher AOA at the wing root.
How do the stall characteristics of a T-tail airplane differ from a conventional airplane?
No differences
A T-tail airplane will automatically recover from a deep stall
A T-tail airplane can be more difficult to recover from a stall.
In conducting a preflight, the PIC’s responsibility is to use:
The most current weight and balance data.
Recent weight and balance data.
Weight and balance data from the factory.
What is pressure altitude?
The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
What airspeed should be flown during a stabilized approach?
The landing speed specified in the POH or AFM, +10/-5 KIAS.
The speed at the bottom of the green arc on the airspeed indicator, +/- 10 KIAS.
1.5 times Vso, plus the gust factor.
What is the objective of a stabilized approach?
To be positioned and fully configured on the final approach leg at no less than 3 NM from the runway threshold.
The airplane should be on speed, in trim, configured for landing, tracking the extended centerline of the runway, and established in a constant angle of descent toward an aiming point on the runway.
To maintain an airspeed +/- 20 knots and a descent rate of around 1,000 fpm.
A runway VASI system provides:
Left and right descent guidance to the runway.
Visual descent information to the runway.
Illumination to better see the landing area.
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
080° and 260° magnetic.
080° and 260° true.
008° and 026° true.
Ground Control clears you to taxi to a specific runway for departure. You should:
Pull onto the end of the runway and hold your position.
Taxi to the nearest intersection with that runway and hold short.
Taxi up to the beginning of the runway and hold short.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
5,000 feet.
5,500 feet.
4,500 feet.
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
NOTAMs.
Airport/Facility Directory.
Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
(Refer to Figure 82.) Based upon the altitude indicated by altimeter #3, which course direction is appropriate for this VFR cruising altitude?
0°-179° true.
180°-359° magnetic.
080° magnetic.
(Refer to figure 25, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?
3,349 feet MSL.
3,549 feet MSL.
2,773 feet MSL.
Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
Standard briefing.
Outlook briefing.
Abbreviated briefing.
(Refer to figure 15.) The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
Nimbostratus.
Scattered cumulus.
Cumulonimbus.
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has:
received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
filed an IFR flight plan.
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and:
either stable or unstable air.
unstable, moist air.
unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.
The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means
a cloud with extensive vertical development.
a middle cloud containing ice pellets.
a rain cloud.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a:
movement of air.
pressure differential.
heat exchange.
For any flight, who is responsible for the pilot’s fitness to fly?
The FAA.
The pilot.
The medical examiner.
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
24 hours.
12 hours.
8 hours.
(Refer to figure 24, area 1.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?
1,273 feet MSL.
1,010 feet MSL.
1,283 feet MSL.
How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?
2.
10.
7.
An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would
experience avionics equipment failure.
probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.
probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.
Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
FAR Part 91.
NTSB Part 830.
FAR Part 61.
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.
The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.
The minimum flight visibility requirement for a sport pilot is
5 statute miles.
1 statute mile.
3 statute miles.
Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued to inform the public of nonregulatory material:
But are binding.
And self-cancel after 1 year.
And are not binding.
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of
the pilot in command.
all passengers.
the right seat pilot.
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
less than 2,500 feet AGL.
over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
flight visibility is less than 5 miles.
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