Gyn Emergency 35 qcm
1) A 25-year-old woman being evaluated for infertility is found to have an abnormal ridge of red, moist granules located in the upper third of her vagina. Pertinent medical history is that her mother was treated with diethylstilbestrol (DES) during her pregnancy. A biopsy from the abnormal vaginal ridge reveals the presence of benign glands underneath stratified squamous epithelium. Which of the following is the most serious long-term complication of this abnormality?
. Clear cell carcinoma
. Condyloma acuminatum
. Extramammary Paget disease
. Multiple papillary hidradenomas
. Verrucous carcinoma
2) A couple presents to your office to discuss sterilization. They are very happy with their four children and do not want any more. You discuss with them the pros and cons of both female and male sterilization. The 34-yearold male undergoes a vasectomy. Which of the following is the most frequent immediate complication of this procedure?
. Infection
. Impotence
. Hematoma
. Spontaneous reanastomosis
. Sperm granulomas
3) A 20-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling in her hands and ankles. She has no headache, visual disturbances or epigastric pain. She has no previous medical problems. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her previous prenatal check-up at 28-weeks gestation was normal. Her medical records show no preexisting hypertension or proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 156/100 mmHg, and after 15 minutes of lateral rest, a repeat reading is 154/98mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema in both legs and hands. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. FetaI heart tones are audible by Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 13.0 g/dl; Hct: 50%; Platelets: 300,000/mm3; Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl; Urinalysis shows 1+ proteinuria, which is new. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Mild preeclampsia
. Severe preeclampsia
. Chronic hypertension
. Transient hypertension of pregnancy
. Eclampsia
4) A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is rushed to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She was sleeping when she first noticed the bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 14th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 11 6/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows cold extremities and bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Emergency transvaginal ultrasonogram
. Obtain blood for PT/INR and PTI
. Obtain venous access with two large bore needles
. Immediate vaginal examination
. Immediate cesarean section
5) A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has not felt her baby's movements for the past two weeks. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Ultrasonogram shows absence of fetal cardiac activity. Fetal demise is diagnosed. Laboratory studies show:Serum fibrinogen level: 250 mg/dl (normal is 150 - 450 mg/dl ), Platelets: 130,000/mm3, Prothrombin time: 15 sec, Partial thromboplastin time: 33sec. There are no signs of active bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
. Platelet transfusion and fibrinogen replacement
. Immediate induction of labor
. Emergency cesarean section
. Weekly fibrinogen monitoring and expect spontaneous delivery
6) A 37-year-old G4 P3 woman delivered a 4,100gram (9.02lbs) infant by spontaneous vaginal delivery one hour ago. This pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes for which she is being treated with insulin. The patient is currently on magnesium sulfate for elevated blood pressures and proteinuria. You are called to evaluate her because she began to have very heavy vaginal bleeding and is feeling lightheaded. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and pulse is 98/min. On physical examination you see heavy vaginal bleeding and numerous blood clots. Her cervix is closed and the uterus can be palpated 3cm above the umbilicus. The uterus feels boggy. The next best step in management is?
. Dilatation and curettage
. Oxytocin infusion
. Packing of the uterine cavity
. Cesarean hysterectomy
. Immediate uterine artery embolization
7) A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and her vital signs are: blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, temperature 36.38C, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. She has not had a miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. Her cervix is closed on examination. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?
. Septic abortion
. Recurrent abortion
. Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
. Future infertility
. Ectopic pregnancies
8) A 24-year-old presents at 30 weeks with a fundal height of 50 cm. Which of the following statements concerning polyhydramnios is true?
. Acute polyhydramnios rarely leads to labor prior to 28 weeks.
. The incidence of associated malformations is approximately 3%.
. Maternal edema, especially of the lower extremities and vulva, is rare.
. Esophageal atresia is accompanied by polyhydramnios in nearly 10% of cases.
. Complications include placental abruption, uterine dysfunction, and postpartum haemorrhage
9) A 20-year-old G1 at 32 weeks presents for her routine obstetric (OB) visit. She has no medical problems. She is noted to have a blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg, and her urine dip shows 1+ protein. She complains of a constant headache and vision changes that are not relieved with rest or a pain reliever. The patient is sent to the hospital for further management. At the hospital, her blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg and she is noted to have tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following is indicated in the management of this patient?
. Low-dose aspirin
. Dilantin (phenytoin)
. Antihypertensive therapy
. Magnesium sulfate
. Cesarean delivery
10) A 21-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation is admitted for delivery. She has severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows 3+ pitting edema of the legs and brisk deep tendon reflexes. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show elevated BUN, serum creatinine and serum transaminases. Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria. Intravenous hydralazine and magnesium sulfate was initiated on admission. After stabilization, intravenous oxytocin and artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) was administered for induction of labor. Two hours later, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 78/min and respirations are 9/min. Repeat examination shows hyporeflexia and a completely effaced cervix that is 5cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Stop hydralazine and do an emergency caesarian section
. Stop magnesium sulfate and give calcium gluconate
. Stop hydralazine and monitor serum cyanide level
. Stop intravenous oxytocin and intubate the patient
. Continue current treatment and proceed with delivery
11) An 18-year-old G1 at 8 weeks gestation complains of nausea and vomiting over the past week occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are a common symptom in early pregnancy. Which of the following signs or symptoms would indicate a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
. Hypothyroidism
. Hypokalemia
. Weight gain
. Proteinuria
. Diarrhea
12) A 26-year-old G1 at 37 weeks presents to the hospital in active labor. She has no medical problems and has a normal prenatal course except for fetal growth restriction. She undergoes an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a female infant weighing 1950 g. The infant is at risk for which of the following complications?
. Hyperglycemia
. Fever
. Hypertension
. Anemia
. Hypoxia
13) A 20-year-old G1 at 36 weeks is being monitored for preeclampsia; she rings the bell for the nurse because she is developing a headache and feels funny. As you and the nurse enter the room, you witness the patient undergoing tonic-clonic seizure. You secure the patient’s airway, and within a few minutes the seizure is over. The patient’s blood pressure monitor indicates a pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. Which of the following medications is recommended for the prevention of a recurrent eclamptic seizure?
. Hydralazine
. Magnesium sulfate
. Labetalol
. Pitocin
. Nifedipine
14) You are doing postpartum rounds on a 22-year-old G1P1, who vaginally delivered an infant male at 36 weeks after an induction for severe preeclampsia. During her labor she required hydralazine to control her blood pressures. She is on magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 154/98 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.3C. She has adequate urine output at greater than 40 cc/h. On examination, she is oriented to time and place, but she is somnolent and her speech is slurred. She has good movement and strength of her extremities, but her deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
. Adverse reaction to hydralazine
. Hypertensive stroke
. Magnesium toxicity
. Sinus venous thrombosis
. Transient ischemic attack
15) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3 at 38 weeks' gestation, comes to the labor and delivery ward because of contractions. Her prenatal course was significant for low maternal weight gain. She had a normal 18-week ultrasound survey of the fetus and normal 36-week ultrasound to check fetal presentation. Her blood type is O positive, and she is rubella immune. Three years ago, she had a multiple myomectomy. She takes prenatal vitamins and has no known drug allergies. She smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
Amniotic fluid embolism
Anencephaly
Macrosomia
Rh isoimmunization
Uterine rupture
16) A 25-year-old G1 PO woman at 39 weeks gestation by last menstrual period confirmed by first trimester ultrasound presents to the hospital with complaints of vulvar pain and a "bump" on her vulva. On examination you see clear vesicles and inguinal adenopathy. No cervical or vaginal lesions are present. She is 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced and at -2 station. Fetal heart rate and contraction monitoring is started. She is contracting regularly. No abnormalities are seen. Which of the following is the most effective intervention to reduce neonatal morbidity in this patient?
. Immediate cesarean section
. Expectant management
. Augmentation of labor with oxytocin
. Tocolysis with nifedipine
. Antiviral treatment with acyclov
17) A 25-year-old female presents to the office for a prenatal visit. She is gravida 3, para 0, ab 2. Her first abortion was an elective abortion at 18 weeks gestation. Her second abortion was a spontaneous abortion at 17 weeks gestation. She has had a cervical loop electrosurgical excision(LEEP) procedure, 8 months ago, for severe cervical dysplasia. Her LMP was 16 weeks ago. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She has had an uneventful pregnancy thus far and denies any concerns at this visit. Her temperature is 98.6 F (37 C), blood pressure is 100/64, heart rate is 72/minute and respirations are 17/minute. Her uterine fundus measures 14.5 cm and is consistent with a 15-16 weeks gestation. The fetal heart rate is 140/minute. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
. Abruption placentae
. Cervical insufficiency
. Uterine rupture
. Polyhydramnios
. Small for gestational age fetus
18) A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the labor and delivery ward because of contractions. Her prenatal course was significant for a positive Group B Streptococcus (GBS) perineal culture at 35 weeks’ gestation. She has no medical problems. She had a cholecystectomy at the age of 17. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She is found to be 5 cm dilated with contractions every 2 minutes. She is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor and penicillin is started for GBS prophylaxis. Shortly after admission to labor and delivery the patient complains of warmth and tingling of her face. She notes feeling like her lips and tongue are swollen. Physical examination demonstrates normal vital signs but with generalized urticaria and angioedema. Her abdomen is gravid and there is scant bloody mucous around her genital area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Eclampsia
. Penicillin allergy
. Placental abruption
. Preeclampsia
. Thyroid storm
19) A 33-year-old woman comes to your office for a blood pressure check. She has had chronic hypertension for the past 4 years, for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide. Her blood pressure has been reasonably well controlled with this medication. She also uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (i.e., the pill containing an estrogen and a progestin). She has no other medical problems and has never had surgery. She is allergic to penicillin. Her physical examination is normal. This patient should be counseled that patients with chronic hypertension who are also using the combined oral contraceptive pill might be at increased risk of which of the following?
. Elevated blood pressure and smoking
. Endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer
. Endometrial cancer and stroke
. Myocardial infarction and ovarian cancer
. Myocardial infarction and stroke
20) A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with a gush of fluid and regular contractions. Examination shows that she is grossly ruptured, contracting every 2 minutes, and that her cervix is dilated to 4 cm. The fetal heart rate tracing is in the 140s and reactive. She is admitted to labor and delivery, and over the following 4 hours she progresses to 9 cm dilation. Over the past hour, the fetal heart rate has increased from a baseline of 140 to a baseline of 160. Furthermore, moderate to severe variable decelerations are seen with each contraction. The fetal heart rate does not respond to scalp stimulation. The decision is made to proceed with cesarean delivery. Which of the following is the reason for the cesarean delivery and the preoperative diagnosis?
. Fetal acidemia
. Fetal distress
. Fetal hypoxic encephalopathy
. Low neonatal APGAR scores
. Non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
21) A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She had intense abdominal pain and became agitated and restless in the ambulance. She has mild vaginal bleeding and diffuse abdominal pain. She is on continuous fetal heart monitoring. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her blood pressure is 90/60mmHg, pulse is 120/min and respirations are 32/min. Physical examination shows hyperventilation, cold extremities and a distended abdomen with irregular contours. Fetal heart monitoring shows repetitive late decelerations and a long-term variability of 2 cycles/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Abruptio placenta
. Placenta previa
. Vasa previa
. Uterine rupture
. Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
22) A 27-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks gestation presents to your office complaining of a 2-day history of nausea and emesis. On physical examination, you notice that she is icteric sclera and skin. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.2C (99F), pulse of 102 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg. She is sent to labor and delivery for additional evaluation. In labor and delivery, the fetal heart rate is in the 160s with good variability, but nonreactive. Blood is drawn and the following results are obtained: WBC = 22,000, Hct = 40.0, platelets = 72,000, SGOT/PT = 334/386, glucose = 58, creatinine = 2.2, fibrinogen = 209, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 65 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for this patient?
. Immediate delivery
. Cholecystectomy
. Intravenous diphenhydramine
. MgSO4 therapy
. Bed rest and supportive measures since this condition is self-limited
23) A 38-year-old G6P4 is brought to the hospital by ambulance for vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks. She undergoes an emergency cesarean delivery for fetal bradycardia under general anesthesia. In the recovery room 4 hours after her surgery, the patient develops respiratory distress and tachycardia. Lung examination reveals rhonchi and rales in the right lower lobe. Oxygen therapy is initiated and chest x-ray is ordered. Which of the following is most likely to have contributed to her condition?
. Fasting during labor
. Antacid medications prior to anesthesia
. Endotracheal intubation
. Extubation with the patient in the lateral recumbent position with her head lowered
. Extubation with the patient in the semierect position (semi-Fowler position)
24) A 32-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation presented to the hospital with ruptured membranes and 4 cm dilated. She has a history of two prior vaginal deliveries, with her largest child weighing 3800 g at birth. Over the next 2 hours she progresses to 7 cm dilated. Two hours later, she remains 7 cm dilated. The estimated fetal weight by ultrasound is 3200 g. Which of the following labor abnormalities best describes this patient?
. Prolonged latent phase
. Protracted active-phase dilation
. Hypertonic dysfunction
. Secondary arrest of dilation
. Primary dysfunction
25) A 25-year-old G1P0 patient at 41 weeks presents to labor and delivery complaining of gross rupture of membranes and painful uterine contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. On digital examination, her cervix is 3 cm dilated and completely effaced with fetal feet palpable through the cervix. The estimated weight of the fetus is about 6 lb, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Which of the following is the best method to achieve delivery?
. Deliver the fetus vaginally by breech extraction
. Deliver the baby vaginally after external cephalic version
. Perform an emergent cesarean section
. Perform an internal podalic version
. Perform a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
26) A 22-year-old G1P0 has just undergone a spontaneous vaginal delivery. As the placenta is being delivered, a red fleshy mass is noted to be protruding out from behind the placenta. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
. Begin intravenous oxytocin infusion
. Call for immediate assistance from other medical personnel
. Continue to remove the placenta manually
. Have the anesthesiologist administer magnesium sulfate
. Shove the placenta back into the uterus
27) Following a vaginal delivery, a woman develops a fever, lower abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness. She is alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. Large gram-positive rods suggestive of clostridia are seen in a smear of the cervix. Which of the following is most closely tied to a decision to proceed with hysterectomy?
. Close observation for renal failure or hemolysis
. Immediate radiographic examination for hydrosalpinx
. High-dose antibiotic therapy
. Fever of 103F
. Gas gangrene
28) A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 16 weeks' gestation undergoes amniocentesis for evaluation of Down syndrome. She has no past medical history. Immediately after the procedure she becomes breathless, cyanotic and loses consciousness. Minutes later, she experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A generalized purpuric rash is noted. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 26/min. Oxygen saturation is 75% on 100% facemask. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Low molecular w eight heparin
. Intravenous fluids
. Immediate induction of labor
. Intubation and mechanical ventilation
. Administer intravenous diazepam
29) A 28-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of 2 days of a near absence of fetal movements. This is only her second prenatal visit because she has skipped many appointments. She has a medical history significant for chronic hepatitis C infection and a MRSA skin abscess that was drained. She smokes cigarettes and uses heroin, cocaine and alcohol. She says that she is trying hard to be sober. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows a fundal height of 26cm (10.2in). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Nonstress test (NST) shows no accelerations. After vibroacoustic stimulation, NST is still not reactive so a biophysical profile is ordered and shows a score of 2. Her lab work showed the following: Complete blood count: Hemoglobin: 8.0 g/L, MCV: 105fl, Platelets: 120,000/mm3, Leukocyte count: 3,500/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat non-stress test, twice weekly
. Perform contraction stress test
. Administer corticosteroids and repeat biophysical profile in 24 hours
. Assess for fetal lung maturity and deliver if it is achieved
. Deliver the baby immediately
30) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions or abdominal pain. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/70 mm of Hg, pulse is 98/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows continuous bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows complete placenta previa. Fetal heart tracing shows repetitive late decelerations. The patient's vital signs are stabilized, but the bleeding continues. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate induction of labor
. Emergency cesarean section
. Administer corticosteroids and perform elective surgery
. Forceps delivery
. Continue expectant management until the bleeding stops
31) A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her prenatal course was unremarkable, including a normal 20- week ultrasound. Physical examination demonstrates a contracted uterus with hypertonus. A large "gush" of blood occurs during the cervical examination, which demonstrates a long and closed cervix. The fetal heart rate tracing shows severe late decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Expectant management
Magnesium sulfate
Oxytocin
Terbutaline
Cesarean section
32) A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that this morning she passed 2 quarter-sized clots of blood from her vagina. Otherwise, she states that she is feeling well. The baby has been moving normally and she has had no contractions or gush of fluid from the vagina. Her obstetrical history is significant for 2 low-transverse cesarean deliveries for non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracings. An ultrasound is performed that demonstrates a complete placenta previa. For which of the following conditions is this patient at highest risk?
. Dystocia
. Intrauterine fetal demise (IUFD)
. Placenta accreta
. Preeclampsia
. Uterine rupture
33) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated. She has a history of cocaine addiction. Ultrasonogram performed at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 15/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness, hyperactivity, and increased uterine tone. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Abruptio placentae
. Placenta previa
. Vasa previa
. Uterine rupture
. Normal labor
34) 28-year-old, G2 P1 woman presented to the hospital at 34-weeks gestation because of midepigastric and right upper quadrant pain associated with nausea and vomiting. She has been closely followed for mild hypertension and mild proteinuria (300 mg/24hr) on an outpatient basis since the 28th week of gestation. Her previous pregnancy was without incident. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 160/94 mmHg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows epigastric and right upper quadrant tenderness; her bowel sounds are slightly reduced. The extremities have 2+ edema. Fetal heart sounds are audible on Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 8.2g/dl, Platelets: 96,000/mm3, Prothrombin time: 12.4 sec, Partial thromboplastin time: 23.6 sec, Serum creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl, Total bilirubin: 2.6 mg/dl, Direct bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dl, Alkaline phosphatase: 120 U/L, Aspartate aminotransferase: 308 U/L, Alanine aminotransferase: 265 U/L, Lipase: 53 U/L. Peripheral blood smear shows numerous red blood cell fragments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. HELLP syndrome
. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
. Viral hepatitis
. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
35) A 21-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks gestation. She has no complaints. She has no significant past medical history. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. She takes prenatal vitamins regularly, and has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a uterine size appropriate for gestational age, and fetal heart tones are heard. One hour 50gram oral glucose tolerance test shows a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl. Urine culture grew 105 colony forming units/mL of E coli. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
. Chorioamnionitis
. Endometritis
. Difficult labor due to fetal macrosomia
. Acute pyelonephritis
. Postpartum hemorrhage
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