Management USMLE 7 (907-1000)

A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to acute onset respiratory difficulty. He also has periorbital, circumoral and facial edema. Two weeks ago, he experienced chest pain, profuse sweating and anxiety, and was subsequently admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit. At that time, his ECG showed ST segment elevation and Q waves in the inferior leads. He was taken to the catheterization lab and had an angioplasty with stent done for 100% occlusion of the right coronary artery. He was discharged with the following medications: aspirin, clopidogrel, metoprolol, enalapril, simvastatin and isosorbide mononitrate. In the ED, his pulse is 102/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respirations are 24/min and temperature is 36.8°C (98.4°F). Which of the following is most likely responsible for his present symptoms?
. Metoprolol
Lsosorbide
Clopidogrel
Aspirin
Enalapril
913) A 50-year-old woman complains of headaches and lateralizing weakness. A CT scan of the brain reveals an irregular mass in the right cerebral hemisphere. A biopsy documents that this is a glioblastoma. Which of the following is the best treatment strategy for potential cure?
. Chemotherapy with temozolomide alone
. Combination chemotherapy with carmustin, cisplatin, and temozolomide
. External beam radiation alone
. Surgical resection alone
. Combined surgical resection, external beam radiation, and chemotherapy with temozolomide
A 51-year-old man presenting to the clinic for routine examination mentions that he has not been able to get over the flu. Further questioning clarifies that he has had a nonproductive cough for the past 3–4 months and is unable to sustain his normal walking pace for prolonged periods. He reports feeling more fatigued than he recalls feeling last year. His medical history is significant for hypertension, alcoholism, and obesity. His blood pressure is well controlled on losartan and hydrochlorothiazide. He has no known drug allergies. His mother died of complications of type 2 diabetes mellitus. His father had a fatal myocardial infarction at age 56 years. The patient smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day and has done so for the past 7 years. He has worked all his adult life as an accountant and has no known exposures to asbestos or organic dusts. His blood pressure is 134/96 mm Hg, heart rate is 78/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Lung examination reveals bilateral inspiratory crackles in the lung bases. High-resolution CT shows patchy areas of ground glass, reticular abnormalities, and traction bronchiectasis. Laboratory findings are normal except for an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 54 mm/hr. What is the recommended treatment for this patient’s cough?
Change the antihypertensive agent
Prescribe amantadine
Prescribe bronchodilators and long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy
Prescribe glucocorticoids
Resect diseased lung fields
A 51-year-old man presents with a 2-cm left thyroid nodule. Thyroid scan shows a cold lesion. FNA cytology demonstrates follicular cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient?
. External beam radiation to the neck.
. Multidrug chemotherapy.
. TSH suppression by thyroid hormone.
. Prophylactic neck dissection is indicated along with a total thyroidectomy.
. Thyroid lobectomy.
A 51-year-old woman presents to the ED after 5 consecutive days of crushing substernal chest pressure that woke her up from sleep in the morning. The pain resolves spontaneously after 20 to 30 minutes. She is an avid rock climber and jogs 5 miles daily. She has never smoked cigarettes and has no family history of coronary disease. In the ED, she experiences another episode of chest pain. An ECG reveals ST-segment elevations and cardiac biomarkers are negative. The pain is relieved with sublingual nitroglycerin. She is admitted to the hospital and diagnostic testing reveals minimal coronary atherosclerotic disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to treat this patient’s condition?
Aspirin
. Calcium channel blocker (CCB)
. β-Blocker
. H2-Blocker
Antidepressant
920) A 52-year-old Caucasian male comes to the office for the evaluation of tremors. He has been having tremors in both hands and head over the past several months. He does not experience any tremors at rest, or any problem with his legs. He has a history of alcohol abuse. He is currently not on any medication. His father had essential tremors, and his paternal uncle has Parkinsonism. The physical examination reveals tremors, which increase in amplitude when he tries to reach for an object. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Benztropine
. Propranolol
. Haloperidol
. Valproic acid
. Clonazepam
A 52-year-old man complains of frequent chest pain. The pain typically occurs at night and is described as retrosternal and burning in quality. He leads a sedentary lifestyle but does not smoke or drink alcohol. His past medical history includes a chronic cough and occasional hoarseness. He does not take any medications. His BMI is 28.5 kg/m2 ECG stress testing reveals 1 mm ST segment depression in the inferior leads at 90% of predicted maximal heart rate. He did not experience chest pain during the stress test. Which of the following is most likely to relieve this patient's chest pain?
Ibuprofen
. Nitroglycerin
Propranolol
Alprazolam
Omeprazole
A 52-year-old man develops sudden-onset shortness of breath on postoperative day 4 after a hemicolectomy for colon cancer. His surgery went well with no operative complications. He reports no cough, sputum, or pleuritic chest pain. His blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg, pulse 100/min, temperature 37.8°C, lungs are clear, and heart sounds normal. He has bilateral pedal edema, but no discomfort in his legs. His CXR and ECG are normal. A chest CT with contrast reveals a thrombus in his right upper lobe artery. Which of the following statements concerning the management of this condition is most likely correct?
Urgent thrombolytic therapy is indicated
Continuous IV heparin or subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) therapy is indicated
Urgent inferior vena cava (IVC)
Filter insertion is indicated
Confirmation of the diagnosis with bilateral ultrasound leg Dopplers
A 52-year-old man presents to his primary care physician’s office for routine care. He has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and has smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. Medications include hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin, and glipizide. There is a family history of myocardial infarction in the maternal grandfather at age 60. The patient has undergone screening for colon and prostate cancer. Physical examination reveals a pleasant, obese man who is 175 cm (5􀆍9􀆎) tall and weighs 108 kg (238 lb). His blood pressure is 155/81 mmHg, heart rate is 78/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.8°C (98.3°F). What one action would most reduce the patient’s stroke risk?
Blood glucose reduction
Blood pressure reduction
Serum cholesterol reduction
Smoking cessation
Weight loss
A 52-year-old man with Burkitt lymphoma is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy. He is started on chemotherapy without incident. Two days into his hospitalization, he develops new peaked T-waves on his ECG. Laboratory analysis reveals a serum potassium concentration of 6.2 mEq/L, and the patient is given one ampule of calcium gluconate emergently. His renal function is within normal limits. Which of the following additional interventions will most rapidly correct his hyperkalemia?
Hemodialysis
. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
Furosemide
. Insulin and glucose
. High-dose inhaled β2 agonist
926) A 52-year-old man with gastric outlet obstruction secondary to a duodenal ulcer presents with hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
. Infusion of 0.9% NaCl with supplemental KCl until clinical signs of volume depletion are eliminated
. Infusion of isotonic (0.15 N) HCl via a central venous catheter
. Clamping the nasogastric tube to prevent further acid losses
. Administration of acetazolamide to promote renal excretion of bicarbonate
. Intubation and controlled hypoventilation on a volume-cycled ventilator to further increase PCO2
A 52-year-old woman has terminal cervical cancer with extensive pelvic invasion, and requires strong opiate analgesia to control severe pain. Intermittent nausea and vomiting have precluded the use of oral agents. She was on fentanyl patches but she developed allergic skin reactions to the adhesive and now requests to be switched to parenteral medication. Because of prior chemotherapy treatments she has no available venous access, but she is willing to have her family administer intramuscular injections. Assuming equianalgesic dosages, which of the following would be the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Codeine
. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
. Meperidine (Demerol)
Methadone
. Morphine sulfate
A 52-year-old woman with a past medical history of hypertension presents for a lump in her breast. The patient noticed that her left breast was becoming slightly deformed and appears swollen on one side. The patient states that she first realized it when she was getting dressed about a month ago. She thought that it would go away on its own, but it seems to be growing. She is very concerned. BP, 136/82; P, 73 beats/min; R, 18 breaths/min; T, 98.6°F. Review of system: Denies weight loss, pain in the breast, nipple discharge, and erythema of the breast, Denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and abdominal pain. Physical examination: Gen: Awake, alert, oriented x3, no acute distress, Breasts: Asymmetric. Left breast slightly larger than right, with mass on left upper outer quadrant of breast. Thickening of skin in the same area. Palpation significant for a 2 in x 3 in mass in the left upper outer quadrant, nontender, nonmobile. The right breast is unremarkable. Which of the following the next step in the management of this patient?
. Wait 3 months and reevaluate the breast
Mammography
. Mastectomy
Lumpectomy
US
A 52-year-old woman with cirrhosis presents with increasing abdominal distension. Her treatment regimen was amended three days ago, when furosemide was added to spironolactone and sodium/water restriction. However, her distension persists, and today she is very somnolent and has passed very little urine. Her past medical history is remarkable for chronic hepatitis type B, cirrhosis, encephalopathy, and 2 bleeding episodes from esophageal varices; the bleeding was controlled with sclerotherapy. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.6°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. Abdominal examination shows distension, shifting dullness, and no tenderness; bowel sounds are present. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 11.0 g/L, Leukocyte count 3,500/mm3, Serum sodium 125 mEq/L, Serum potassium 5.5 mEq/L, Chloride 103 mEq/L, Blood urea nitrogen 60 mg/dL, Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL, Prothrombin time 18 sec, Partial thromboplastin time 35 sec. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound of the kidney is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Increase the dose of furosemide to its maximum
. Careful volume loading and discontinuation of furosemide and spironolactone
. Tapping of ascites
. Renal biopsy
. Intravenous pyelography
A 53-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) as an unrestrained driver. He was found unresponsive at the scene and was intubated by paramedics. He has received 1L of normal saline over the last 20 minutes. His blood pressure in the emergency department is 70/30 mmHg, and his heart rate is 100/min. On physical examination, he responds to strong vocal and tactile stimuli by opening his eyes. His pupils are equal and reactive to light. On exam, there are multiple bruises over the anterior chest and upper abdomen. The trachea is midline. A Swan-Ganz catheter reveals a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 12 mmHg. Rapid infusion of 1L of normal saline increases the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure to 17 mmHg, with a blood pressure of 75/30 mmHg and heart rate of 103/min. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
. Anticoagulation
. High-rate IV fluids
. Inotropic agents
. Pericardiocentesis
. Chest tube
A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency room with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and vomiting. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a thickened sigmoid colon with inflamed diverticula and a 7-cm by 8-cm rim-enhancing fluid collection in the pelvis. After percutaneous drainage and treatment with antibiotics, the pain and fluid collection resolve. He returns as an outpatient to clinic 1 month later. He undergoes a colonoscopy, which demonstrates only diverticula in the sigmoid colon. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
. Expectant management with sigmoid resection if symptoms recur
. Cystoscopy to evaluate for a fistula
. Sigmoid resection with end colostomy and rectal pouch (Hartmann procedure)
. Sigmoid resection with primary anastomosis
. Long-term suppressive antibiotic therapy
A 53-year-old woman presents with bright red blood per rectum, increased abdominal distention, and weight loss. She is found to have a large fungating mass 8 cm from the anal verge. No other lesions are identified. Biopsy is consistent with invasive rectal adenocarcinoma. Endorectal ultrasound shows invasion of the tumor into the perirectal fat and multiple enlarged lymph nodes. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis do not show any metastases. She would like to preserve her sphincter if possible. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient given her preferences?
. Abdominoperineal resection
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by low anterior resection
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by abdominoperineal resection
. Transanal excision followed by adjuvant chemoradiation
. Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by transanal excision
A 53-year-old woman suffers from long-standing obesity complicated by DJD of the knees, making it difficult for her to exercise. Recently her fasting blood glucose values have been 148 mg/dL and 155 mg/dL; you tell her that she has developed type 2 diabetes. She wonders if diet will allow her to avoid medications. In addition, her daughter also suffers from obesity and has impaired fasting glucose, and the patient wonders about the management of her prediabetes. Which of the following is a correct statement based on the American Diabetes Association 2008 guidelines regarding nutrition recommendations and interventions for diabetes?
. Low-carbohydrate diets such as “South Beach” and “Atkins” should be avoided
Outcomes studies show that medical nutrition therapy (MNT) can produce a 1 to 2-point decrease in hemoglobin A1c in type 2 diabetics
Prediabetic patients should be instructed to lose weight and exercise but a referral to a medical nutritionist is not necessary until full-blown diabetes is diagnosed
Very low-calorie diets ( < 800 cal/day) produce weight loss that is usually maintained after the diabetic patient returns to a self-selected diet
. Bariatric surgery may be considered for patients with type 2 diabetes and a BMI of > 30 kg/m2
A 54-year-old woman has a severe ureteral colic. An intravenous pyelogram shows a 7-mm ureteral stone at the ureteropelvic junction. She has a normal coagulation profile. Which of the following would most likely be the best therapy in this case?
. Plenty of fluids and analgesics and await spontaneous passage
. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)
. Endoscopic retrograde basket extraction
. Endoscopic retrograde laser vaporization of the stone
. Open surgical removal
A 54-year-old woman undergoes a laparotomy because of a pelvic mass. At exploratory laparotomy, a unilateral ovarian neoplasm is discovered that is accompanied by a large omental metastasis. Frozen section diagnosis confirms metastatic serous cystadenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative course of action?
. Excision of the omental metastasis and ovarian cystectomy
. Omentectomy and ovarian cystectomy
. Excision of the omental metastasis and unilateral oophorectomy
. Omentectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
. Omentectomy, total abdominal hysterectomy, and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
A 55-year-old male with a history of rheumatoid arthritis and rheumatoid lung disease is admitted to the hospital with palpitations. His restrictive lung disease is of moderate severity, requiring use of 2 liters of oxygen by nasal cannula at all times. He has no known history of coronary artery disease, hypertension or diabetes. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg and heart rate is 120 and irregular. EKG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient?
. Verapamil
Digoxin
Quinidine
Amiodarone
. Metoprolol
A 55-year-old man presents to his physician with 6 months of mild intermittent pain in both knees. The pain is aggravated by walking and weight bearing, and is partially relieved by rest. He also complains of morning stiffness that lasts for 10 minutes. He does not smoke but drinks alcohol occasionally. His BMI is 25 Kg/m2, temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Examination reveals crepitus over both knee joints. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Antibiotics
Ketorolac
Acetaminophen
Colchicine
Oxycodone
A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain has been file:///D:/DES_Entry_2016MCQs/3C_USMLE/C-4Management/4Manag... 204 of 334 12/21/2016 3:59 PM present for 1 week, but has increased in intensity over the last 2 days associated with nausea, constipation, and dysuria. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals a temperature of 101°F, pulse rate of 95/min, BP of 130/70 mmHg, and normal heart and lung examinations. Abdominal examination reveals fullness and marked tenderness in the left lower quadrant, with voluntary guarding and decreased bowel sounds. Laboratory tests reveal a WBC count of 18,000 with a left shift and 20–50 WBCs in the urinalysis. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a thickened sigmoid colon with pericolonic inflammation. He is admitted to the hospital for treatment. We find this patient has diverticulitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. NPO, IV fluids, and IV antibiotics for gram-negative and anaerobic coverage
. NPO, IV fluid hydration, followed by immediate sigmoid colon resection
. NPO, IV fluids, and anticoagulation
. NPO, IV fluids, evaluation of stool for Clostridium difficile toxin, and either metronidazole or vancomycin antibiotic therapy
. NPO, IV fluids, initiation of bowel preparation for elective sigmoid colon resection during the current hospitalization
A 55-year-old man who is extremely obese reports weakness, sweating, tachycardia, confusion, and headache whenever he fasts for more than a few hours. He has prompt relief of symptoms when he eats. Labarotory examination reveals an inappropriately high level of serum insulin during the episodes of fasting. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
. Diet modification to include frequent meals
. Long-acting somatostatin analogue octreotide
. Simple excision of the tumor
. Total pancreatectomy
. Chemotherapy and radiation
A 55-year-old patient presents to you after a 3-day hospital stay for gradually increasing shortness of breath and leg swelling while away on a business trip. He was told that he had congestive heart failure, but is asymptomatic now, with normal vital signs and physical examination. An echocardiogram shows an estimated ejection fraction of 38%. The patient likes to keep medications to a minimum. He is currently on aspirin and simvastatin. Which would be the most appropriate additional treatment?
. Begin an ACE inhibitor and then add a beta-blocker on a scheduled basis
. Begin digoxin plus furosemide on a scheduled basis
. Begin spironolactone on a scheduled basis
. Begin furosemide plus nitroglycerin
. Given his preferences, no other medication is needed unless shortness of breath and swelling recur
A 55-year-old woman has a palpable 2 cm mass in her left breast. She had found the mass on self-examination, but she says that she had not done self-breast exam for at least six months before she did this one. Physical examination confirms the presence of the lesion, which is hard, movable, and not painful. A mammogram confirms the presence of an opacity in that area, but it does not have any of the radiological characteristics of a breast cancer. The radiologist also does a sonogram, and comes up with the same opinion, I.e., that neither study is suggestive for cancer. Fine needle aspirate is read as negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Core biopsies of the mass
. MRI of the breast
. Reassurance
. Repeat both imaging studies in six months
. Repeat physical exam in six months
A 55-year-old woman has been known for years to have mitral valve prolapse. She has now developed exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and atrial fibrillation. She has an apical, high-pitched, holosystolic heart murmur that radiates to the file:///D:/DES_Entry_2016MCQs/3C_USMLE/C-4Management/4Manag... 206 of 334 12/21/2016 3:59 PM axilla and back. Because of her deterioration, surgery has been recommended. Which of the following is the most appropriate procedure?
. Aortic valve replacement
. Mitral commissurotomy
. Mitral valve annuloplasty
. Mitral valve replacement
. Both aortic and mitral valve replacement
A 55-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by fi re and rescue personnel because of intractable back and thigh pain for the past 3 hours. Upon presentation she says that the pain is 9 of 10 in severity and localized to her lower back. She lives with her sister, and she has no primary care physician. She denies any complaints aside from fatigue, which she attributes to her multiple jobs and caring for her sister’s children. She has a pulse of 110/min, blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 20/min, and temperature of 37.8C (100.1F). On physical examination she is exquisitely tender over the L2–3 area of the spine. She also has point tenderness over the anterior right thigh. Sensation is intact over the lower extremities bilaterally and she has 5/5 strength in the lower extremities bilaterally. Breast examination reveals a retracted nipple and dimpling of the right breast. What will likely represent the mainstay of treatment for this patient’s symptoms?
Bone marrow transplant
Chemotherapy
Hormone replacement therapy
Radiation therapy
Surgery
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-cm right thyroid mass and palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of one of the lymph nodes demonstrates the presence of calcified clumps of sloughed cells. Which of the following best describes the management of this thyroid disorder?
. The patient should be screened for pancreatic endocrine neoplasms and hypercalcemia.
. The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with modified radical neck dissection.
The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with frozen section intraoperative, with modified radical neck dissection reserved for patients with extra-capsular invasion.
. The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy followed by iodine 131 (131I) therapies.
. The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy.
A 56-year-old chronic alcoholic has a 1-year history of ascites. He is admitted with a 2-day history of diffuse abdominal pain and fever. Examination reveals scleral icterus, spider angiomas, a distended abdomen with shifting dullness, and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Paracentesis reveals slightly cloudy ascitic fluid with an ascitic fluid PMN cell count of 1000/μL. Which of the following statements about treatment is true?
. Antibiotic therapy is unnecessary if the ascitic fluid culture is negative for bacteria
. The addition of albumin to antibiotic therapy improves survival
. Repeated paracenteses are required to assess the response to antibiotic treatment
. After treatment of this acute episode, a recurrent episode of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis would be unlikely
. Treatment with multiple antibiotics is required because polymicrobial infection is common
A 56-year-old male is admitted to the ICU for the management of hepatic encephalopathy. He is a known alcoholic. He is started on oral neomycin, lactulose, and a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. His blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), and respirations are 18/min. His labs reveal the following: Hb 10.2 g/dl, WBC 7,400/cmm, Hct 27%, Platelets 4 2,000/mm3, PT 18 sec, INR 2.02, PTT 31 sec. He has no evidence of active bleeding. Which of the following should be administered to this patient at this time?
. Fresh frozen plasma
Cryoprecipitate
Vitamin
Platelets
. Packed RBC
A 56-year-old man presents with hypertension and peripheral edema. He is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. Family history reveals that his father and a brother have kidney disease. His father was on hemo-dialysis before his death at age 68 of a stroke. Physical examination reveals BP 174/96 mm Hg and AV nicking on funduscopic examination. He has a soft S4 gallop. Bilateral flank masses measuring 16 cm in length are palpable. Urinalysis shows 15 to 20 RBC/hpf and trace protein but is otherwise normal; his serum creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL. Which is the most likely long-term complication of his condition?
. End-stage renal disease requiring dialysis or transplantation
Malignancy
. Ruptured cerebral aneurysm
. Biliary obstruction owing to cystic disease of the pancreas
Dementia
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