Systems
In what order are EICAS messages displayed?
Cautions above warnings and they appear in the order of importance.
Warnings above cautions and they appear with the newest on top.
Warnings above cautions and they appear with the oldest on top.
Cautions above warnings and they appear with the newest on top.
How far does the anger area extend in front of an engine intake when the engine is operating at full thrust?
12 feet (wing trailing edge)
25 feet (wing leading edge)
21 feet (over wing exit)
Acording to the IAC, what is the minimum speed required during a double engine failure procedure?
200 KIAS
210 KIAS
240 KIAS
250 KIAS
How far does the danger area extend around the APU exhaust when the APU is operating?
10 feet
15 feet
20 feet
25 feet
What is the maximum operating altitude of the CRJ-200 (AWAC limit)
FL330
FL350
FL370
FL410
When executing the Passenger Evacuation Procedure on the IAC, which crewmember should perform the actions as they are being read?
Captain
First Officer
Line Check Airmen in the Jumpseat
Flight Attendant
Which of the following is a memory item for a loss of braking during landing?
Wheelbrakes - Release Momentarily
Thrust Reverser - Apply Maximum Reverse
Go Around
Balked Landing
How far does the danger area extend behind an engine operating at maximum thrust?
Approximately one aircraft length
Approximately two aircraft lengths
Approximately three aircraft lenghts
Approximately four aircraft lenghts
What is the minimum turning radius of the CRJ-200?
75 ft
100 ft
125 ft
150 ft
Pressing a master warning switch-light will cancel which aural warnings?
Fire bell
Stall warbler
Landing gear warning horn
EGPWS
Which circuit breaker panel is located behind the First Officer's seat?
CBP 1
CBP 2
CBP 3
CBP 4
What is the maximum landing weight for the CRJ-200?
44,000 lbs
47,000 lbs
53,000 lbs
53,250 lbs
Which EICAS messages are red in color and associated with a triple chime?
Warning
Caution
Advisory
Status
What is the MENU button used for on the EICAS control panel?
Reset fuel used in conjunction with an MEL procedure
Maintenance diagnostic information
Master menu of the synoptic pages
Reset fuel used and maintenance diagnostic information
If ED1 fails, will the information automatically transfer to ED2?
Yes
No
Which of the following checklists is performed silently?
Delayed Start Checklist
After Start Checklist
Delayed After Start Checklist
After Takeoff Checklist
Data Concentrator Units (DCUs):
Process and format all aircraft operating information and transmit the data to EICAS displays, lamp driver units, and flight data recorder
Provide power to the primary and secondary EICAS displays
Drive the roll and pitch servos for the auto flight control system
Non of the listed answers
What is the purpose of the low speed awareness cue (green line) on the airspeed indicator?
It is for low speed awareness relative to stall speed
It is the minimum airspeed that can be flown at all altitudes
It is the target speed for landing
It is the minimum clean speed
Which components use information from static system 3 (S3)?
Standby airspeed and altimeter and CPAM
ADC 1 and 2
Mach transducers 1 and 2
ADC 1 and 2 mach transducers 1 and 2
What is the difference between total air temperature (TAT) and static air temperature (SAT)?
TAT is higher than SAT due to ram pressure heating
SAT is higher than TAT due to ram pressure heating
TAT is used to determine the airframe icing temperature range, SAT is not used for airframe icing determination
SAT is used to determine the airframe icing temperature range, TAT is not used for determination
If the altimeter, airspeed, and vertical speed indicators all fail at the same time, which system has malfunctioned?
ADC
AHRS
FMC
FCC
If a PFD fails, will the information automatically transfer to the MFD?
Yes
No
With ALTS displayed on the FMA, what vertical mode will become active after a new altitude is selected?
ALT
ALTS
PTCH
VS
What does an amber, boxed E on the PFD indicate?
Elevator out-of-trim condition
Elevator control disconnect
Elevator excessive pitch command
Elevator control loss by AFCS
Pressing a TO/GA button during a go-around will cause the flight director to indicate ______ pitch up.
5 deg
10 deg
12 deg
15 deg
Which of the following will cause the autopilot to disconnect?
Pressing either TOGA button
Switching compasses from MAG to DG
Switching from white needles to green needles
Pressing XFR on the FCP
If the aircraft deviates more than _______ feet from the selected altitude, the altitude C-chord alert will sound and the selected altitude will flash amber.
100
200
300
500
After setting a higher altitude in the altitude selector, selecting speed mode will cause what mode to be displayed on the FMA?
SPD
CLB
IAS
DES
When descending in VS mode, what is the pilot able to control with the thrust levers?
Vertical Speed
Airspeed
Altitude
Descent Rate
When climbing in Speed mode, what is the pilot able to control with thrust levers?
Vertical Speed
Airspeed
Altitude
Descent Rate
Which of the following flight director modes is prohibited for flight operations (except takeoff under certain circumstances?
PITCH
DES
IAS
CLB
To what altitude may the autopilot remain engaged when flying an ILS Category II approach?
Decision Altitude (DA)
50 feet below Decision Altitude (DA)
80 feet AGL
150 feet AGL
It is permissible for one pilot to be setting an altitude on the Flight Control Panel (FCP) while the other pilot is rotating the HDG selector.
True
False
What is the maximum takeoff weight for the CRJ-200?
47,000 LBS
53,000 LBS
53,250 LBS
55,120 LBS
What is the time-to-impact when terrain is displayed in solid red and a "TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL-UP" audio warning is generated?
15 seconds
30 seconds
60 seconds
90 seconds
When AUTO is selected on both RTU's the auto-tune function of the FMS can tune _______ nav frequencies and ______ channels of DME
2,6
4,6
6,6
6,2
The autopilot will remain connected during the entire windshear escape maneuver?
True
False
When FMS is the active NAV source, what color will the HSI display be?
Blue
Green
White
Yellow
When flying an ILS approach, what color will the HSI be?
Blue
Green
White
Yellow
Prior to a repositioning flight without a Flight Attendant, what pilot action must be accomplished to prevent potable water from freezing in the manifolds?
Turn on the galley and lavatory water systems
Turn on the galley water system
Turn on the lavatory water system
Run the coffee maker and faucet in the lavatory
If the pump is operating, but the toilet will not flush, what is most likely the problem?
Fluid quantity is too low
The DC service switch is selected off
The cabin altitude is too high for the toilet to function
Someone put too much toilet paper in the toilet
Which one of the following doors is NOT displayed on the doors synoptic page?
Aft equipment bay door
Passenger door
Avionics bay door
Service door
Which door will generate an EICAS warning message when open?
Passenger door
Service door
Overwing emergency exit door
Crew escape hatch
You are required to open the AVIONICS BAY door for a security inspection prior to the first flight of the day.
TRUE
FALSE
The maximum load allowed on the passenger door is ____________ passengers or _________ pounds.
3; 750
4; 750
4; 1,000
5; 1,000
To remove the flight deck door, the associated placard advises the _____________ hinge pin must be removed prior to removing the __________ hinge pin.
Upper, lower
Lower, upper
What will be the indication if the crew escape hatch is not latched?
A CREW HATCH warning message on ED1
A CREW HATCH caution message on ED1
The green alignment indicator marks will not align
The crew escape hatch will be amber on the door synoptic page
What do the galley service door and avionics bay door have in common?
Neither is depicted on the doors synoptic page.
Both are emergency exits.
Both are displayed in AMBER on the doors synoptic page if closed incorrectly.
Both are displayed in RED on the doors synoptic page when closed incorrectly.
During a normal engine start, when does the starter cut out and the ignition turn off automatically?
50% N1
55% N1
50% N2
55% N2
During an engine start on the ground, the ITT must be below _______ prior to introducing fuel.
90° C
120° C
160° C
180° C
Automatic performance reserve (APR) will command a 2% increase in the thrust setting in the event of an engine failure during takeoff. To what is the 2% added?
The current N1 thrust indication on ED1
The current N2 thrust indication on ED1
Thrust setting as planned in the FMS
The thrust setting bugs on ED1
What is one purpose of the variable geometry (VG) system on the CF34-3B1 engine?
Prevent compressor stall by varying the angle of the first five stages of the stator vanes
Schedule fuel to the combustion chamber
Vary the amount of thrust form the N1 fan by changing the angle of the blades
Vary the amount of thrust from the N2 turbines by changing the angle of the blades
Above what thrust setting does engine control switch from N2 to N1 mode?
69% N1
70% N1
79% N1
85% N1
With a crosswind of greater than 15 knots, when must the continuous ignition be selected on?
During both takeoff and landing
During takeoff
During landing
During an engine hot start, the starter was engaged for 55 seconds. Assuming that the applicable IAC was completed and the engine temperature decreased below 120°C within the 55 seconds, how long should the starter remain off prior to a second start attempt?
10 seconds
1 minute
90 seconds
5 minutes
Following engine start, what is the maximum allowable N2 split with both thrust levers at idle?
1%
2%
3%
4%
According to the IAC, what minimum airspeed is to be maintained after a double engine failure?
190 KIAS
210 KIAS
240 KIAS
300 KIAS
After shutting down the APU, what indication on the status page indicates the APU BITE test is complete?
The APU gauges disappear.
APU BITE TEST COMPLETE message appears then disappears.
The APU IN BITE message disappears.
The APU door indicates closed.
When starting the APU in flight, how long should the pilot wait to select APU START/STOP after selecting APU POWER/FUEL?
Until the APU IN BITE message disappears.
Until the APU gauges disappear.
Less than 5 seconds.
At least 5 seconds.
When shutting down the APU, how long should the pilot wait to select the PWR/FUEL switch after selecting the START/STOP switch?
Until the RPM is below 50%
Less than 5 seconds
At least 5 seconds
Until the APU gauges disappear
From which fuel tank(s) does the APU receive fuel?
Both Collector tanks
Center tank only
Both main wing tanks
Right main wing tank only
The CF34-3B1 engine has how many stages of compressor blades?
7
10
14
21
What source of power is used to move the translating cowl when deploying the thrust reversers?
7th stage engine bleed air
10th stage engine bleed air
14th stage engine bleed air
APU bleed air
What happens to the thrust lever if the associated engine thrust reverser inadvertently stops?
The thrust lever is automatically pulled to idle by a cable
The thrust lever is pulled to max thrust by a cable
The thrust lever becomes locked in its current position
The thrust lever continues to operate normally
What indication would the crew receive if the left engine speed computer failed during cruise flight?
The SPD COMP FAIL caution message would appear on ED2
The left engine gauges would all indicate higher than the right engine gauges
The right engine gauges would indicate higher than the left engine gauges
The APR icon would appear in the left engine N1 gauge
During the delayed start procedure, what is the maximum allowable thrust setting on the operating engine when using the APU to start the second engine?
55% N2
70% N2
79% N1
79% N2
How long is the wingspan of the CRJ-200?
66 feet, 9 inches
69 feet, 6 inches
75 feet, 0 inches
87 feet, 10 inches
What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU?
10,000 feet
13,000 feet
15,000 feet
20,000 feet
The APU Load Control Valve (LCV) will automatically close:
To provide interlock protection.
When a fire is detected in the right or left engine.
When the APU generator is selected off.
While taxiing for departure with both engines running, if the XFLOW/APU fuel pump fails will the APU automatically shut down?
Yes
No
Which circuit breaker panel is located near the Captain's rudder pedals?
CB1
CBP 2
CBP 3
CBP 4
According to the IAC, what is the minimum speed required during a double engine failure procedure?
200 KIAS
210 KIAS
240 KIAS
250 KIAS
According to the IAC, what is the first action to be completed during an Aileron System Jammed procedure?
Autopilot......Disengage
Airplane control......Transfer to pilot with operative aileron
Pitch Disc......Pull and turn to lock
Airspeed......240 KIAS minimum
The indented items on the Acceptance Checklist only need to be completed before the first flight of the day.
True
False
10th stage bleed air SOV's fail to the _________ position.
Open
Closed
The external air connection aft of the cargo bay door is used to connect ground air to the _______ bleed system.
7th
10th
12th
14th
On a normal takeoff the APU LCV is _______ and the engine 10th stage bleed are _______
Open, Closed
Closed, Open
Open, Open
Closed, Closed
Which of the following are functions of the APU LCV?
Prevent high pressure 10th stage engine bleed air from back-flowing into the APU
Pressurize the 10th stage bleed air manifold with APU bleed air
Help limit the APU EGT
All of the above
What are the uses of 10th stage air?
Avionics cooling, air-conditioning, engine start and pressurization
Air-conditioning, avionics cooling, wing anti-ice and cowl anti-ice
Engine starting, thrust reversers, wing anti-ice and cowl anti-ice
Avionics cooling, engine starting, pressurization and oil pressurization
What are the uses of 14th stage air?
Thrust reversers, wing anti-ice, and cowl anti-ice
Air-conditioning, wing anti-ice, and cowl anti-ice
Engine starting and air-conditioning
Engine starting, air-conditioning, and thrust reversers
What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve?
To provide left and right wing anti-ice bleed air from a single engine source
Toprovide cowl anti-ice and thrust reverse for both engine from a single source
To allow for engine cross bleed starts
To allow both thrust reversers to operate from a single engine source
What is the purpose of the 10th stage interlock protection system?
To prevent engine 10th stage bleed air from back-flowing into the APU, which can cause APU compressor stall
To prevent the APU from starting both engines during a double engine failure until below 13,000 feet
To prevent the engine bleed air from back-flowing into each other, which can cause engine compressor stall
To prevent the engine bleed air from back-flowing into each other, which can cause engine compressor stall and prevent the APU from starting both engines during a double engine failure
The aircraft cabin has become pressurized by low pressure external air with the crew on board. The APU is off. After the ground crew disconnects the external air, what should be done to depressurize the aircraft?
Open the Main Cabin Door to open the vent flap.
Open the Service Door.
Start the APU, turn on the APU GEN and open the APU LCV.
Push EMER DEPRESS.
Which of the following is NOT a function of RAM air?
Cooling the engine oil.
Cooling PACK air through the heat exchangers.
Cooling the hydraulic fluid in systems 1 and 2.
Cooling the avionics.
What condition will cause the FAULT light to illuminate on a PACK switch and the PACK to shutoff automatically?
Over frequency.
Over pressure.
Under pressure.
Under temperature.
If both PACKS fail, how would the avionics be cooled?
Avionics do not require cooling.
Using 7th stage bleed air.
Using 14th stage bleed air.
Using RAM air.
What is the safest action to take if a door is accidentally closed with low pressure ground air connection attached (causing the airplane to pressurize)?
Have the ground crew turn off the low pressure air.
Open the main door.
Open the service door.
Partially open the main door handle.
Which one of the following CANNOT be used to provide air conditioning through the PACKs?
APU bleed air.
Engine bleed air.
External low pressure air connection.
External high pressure air connection.
During normal operations, when will the cabin pressure controllers automatically switch?
After landing.
If a blockage of S3 occurs.
Upon selecting PRESS CONTROL to manual mode
If the cabin altitude reaches 14,250' +/- 750'
What should be done if ice chunks are seen coming from the air vents in the flight deck?
Turn off the PACKs for one minute and then select both packs on.
Use only the right PACK for one minute then select both PACKS on.
Set the temperature lower so the ice chunks do not get into the duct work.
Set the temperature higher so the ice melts.
At what cabin altitude will the CABIN ALT caution message be displayed?
8,500 ft.
10,000 ft.
14,250 ft.
15,000 ft.
At what cabin altitude will a CABIN ALT warning message be displayed?
8,500 ft.
10,000 ft.
14,000 ft.
FL180
At what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen masks be automatically deployed?
8,500 ft.
10,000 ft.
14,000 ft.
FL180
Which of the following statements is true regarding the outflow valves?
Both require electricity to open and close.
Both require an air source for providing a vacuum to open the valves.
Both are spring loaded to the open position.
Only the master is spring loaded to the open position.
At what cabin altitude will the no smoking and fasten seat belts signs turn on automatically when set to AUTO?
8,500 ft.
10,000 ft.
14,000 ft.
14,250 ft.
If the cowl anti-ice pressure relief valve has extended, is cowl anti-ice available during flight?
Yes
No
What is the heating cycle for the ice detector probes?
5 seconds on, 55 seconds off
5 seconds on, 60 seconds off
60 seconds on, 5 seconds off
55 seconds on, 5 seconds off
With weight-off-wheels, and the PROBE switches selected OFF, which one of the following statements is true?
All probes are fully heated regardless of switch position
None of the probes are heated
The probes are heated at half-treat
All probes except for the TAT probe, are heated
Why is wing anti-ice selected on before selecting cowl anti-ice on in flight?
To prevent over-pressurizing the cowl anti-ice system
The anti-ice control computer requires the switches to all be selected
Cowl anti-ice may not be selected independently of wing anti-ice
14th stage bleed air must flow through the wings before reaching the cowls
Which of the following must be confirmed prior to introducing fuel during engine start on a cold soaked aircraft?
Positive N1 rotation
Fuel feed temp above 5°C
Bulk fuel temperature greater than -20°C
Can the cowl of an inoperative engine be heated using the 14th stage bleed air from an operative engine?
Yes
No
The 14th stage bleed air SOVs will fail to the _________ position?
Open
Closed
With the windshield heat selected to high, which panes are heater to higher temperature?
Both windshields
All windows and windshields
Only the Captain's windshield
Only the Captain's side window
What effect does thrust reverser activation have on anti-ice system?
Cowl and wing anti-ice valves are automatically closed
No effect as thrust reverse and anti-ice use different pneumatic sources
All pneumatic and electrical anti-icing systems are disabled
Only wing anti-icing valves close
When will illumination of the amber ICE light on the overhead panel occur coinciding with the ICE caution message?
When ice is detected and there is insufficient heat sensed in the wing
During an ice detection test with sufficient heat sensed in the wing.
When the TAT is 5°C and OAT is -10°C, with insufficient heat sensed in the wing.
When ice is detected, wing and cowl anti-ice are selected on, and there is sufficient heat sensed in the wing.
In flight, cowl anti-ice must be on when in visible moisture and the __________ is at or below ___________, except when SAT is -40°C or below.
TAT, 5°C
TAT, 10°C
SAT, 5°C
SAT, 10°C
If the CA's windshield wiper switch is set to slow and the FO's is set to fast, what rate will the wipers operate?
Slow
Fast
After the use of which type of deicing fluid is it required to use the wing anti-ice to taxi with temperatures 5° and below?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Under what conditions must wing anti-ice be selected on during the last 2 minutes of taxi before takeoff?
The temperature is 0°C or below
The temperature is 5°C or below
The temperature is 10°C or below
When determining anti-ice requirements for takeoff, any ceiling below ___________ must be considered visible moisture.
100 ft
200 ft
300 ft
400 ft
What is the maximum allowable crosswind component on a snow or ice covered runway?
10 Knots
15 Knots
24 Knots
27 Knots
What is the normal hydraulic quantity range for each system?
25%-65%
30%-75%
40%-80%
45%-85%
How many electric (AC powered) hydraulic pumps are installed on the CL-65?
2
3
4
6
How is the hydraulic fluid in systems 1 and 2 cooled?
Using ram air through a heat exchanger
Hydraulic system 1 and 2 fluid does not require cooling
The hydraulic systems 1 and 2 fluid lines run through the fuel tanks
Using N1 fan bypass air/fluid heat exchangers
Which hydraulic system is used for normal extension and retraction of the landing gear?
System 1
System 2
System 3
With the switches in the auto position, what would cause hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B to turn on?
Flap position greater then 0 degrees
Loss of pressure from engine driven fuel pumps 1A and 2A
Loss of pressure from AC motor pump 3A
Less than 1410 psi anywhere in the hydraulic system
During a left engine failure in flight, which AC hydraulic pump is inoperative?
1B
2B
3A
3B
What is the normal operating pressure of each hydraulic system?
1000 PSI
1800 PSI
2000 PSI
3000 PSI
Which hydraulic system operates the flight controls?
System 1
System 2
System 3
All three systems operate the flight controls.
Which hydraulic pump(s) operate continuously during flight?
All three "A" pumps
Pumps "1A" and "2A" only
All three "B" pumps
Pump "3B" only
Which of the following is considered acceptable tire wear?
Chevron cuts extending from one rib to another?
Tire chunking.
A slight amount of cord showing from the thread reinforcing ply.
Damage to the sidewall.
A ___________________ colored BTMS indication coincides with a chance of fusible plugs being melted.
Red
White
Yellow
Green
Hydraulic system ___________ normally powers landing gear extension and retraction. Manual gear extension is assisted by springs and auxiliary actuators powered by hydraulic system ______.
3,2
2,3
3,1
1,3
There is a difference between the landing gear extension and retraction speeds because:
The nose gear retracts forward into the slipstream.
The main landing gear retracts forward into the slipstream.
The nose gear retracts rearward with the slipstream.
The lack of hydraulic pressure from pump 3B during gear extension with flaps at zero.
Following a failure of Hydraulic systems 2 and 3, what is the minimum number of brake applications that will be available using the brake accumulators?
2
4
6
8
During a walkaround inspection, how much of the shaft should be exposed on the nose landing gear strut?
Non of the shaft should be visible
1.25-3.75 inches
Approximately 3 inches
Approximately 4 inches
During a walkaround inspection, how much of the shaft should be exposed on the main landing gear struts?
None of the shaft should be visible
1.25 - 3.75 (two to three finger widths)
Less than 4 inches (approximately four finger widths)
At least 4 inches (approximately four finger widths)
When checking the brake wear indicators, the brakes should be _________________.
Applied and hydraulic pumps should be off
Released and hydraulic pumps should be off
Applied and hydraulic pumps should be on
Released and hydraulic pumps should on
Where are the landing gear pins and ADG pin stored when not installed?
Behind the Captain's seat
Behind the First Officer's seat
In the upper storage compartment in the cockpit
In an upper storage compartment in the Flight Attendant wardrobe
Which hydraulic system(s) supply hydraulic pressure to all primary flight controls?
Hydraulic system 1
Hydraulic system 2
Hydraulic system 3
None of the hydraulic systems powers all primary flight controls
When a green "PLT ROLL" or "CPLT ROLL" light is illuminated on the glareshield, what additional flight control has been reassigned?
On-side spoileron.
Off-side spoileron.
On-side aileron.
Off-side aileron.
When landing in a crosswind, with only one main landing gear on the ground, which of the following ground lift dumping devices will deploy?
Spoilerons
Inboard and Outboard Ground Spoilers
Flight Spoilers
Both B and C
Which of the following hydraulic systems power the rudder?
Hydraulic Systems 1, 2 and 3
Hydraulic Systems 2 and 3 only
Hydraulic Systems 1 and 2 only
Hydraulic Systems 1 and 3 only
Which cockpit lights and/or messages appear when the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?
Amber ROLL SEL switchlights on glareshield and SPOILERONS ROLL caution message on the primary page
Green PLT ROLL switchlights on glareshield
L (R) SPOILERON caution message on the primary page
PLT (CPLT) ROLL CMD advisory message on status page
After selecting Flaps 8, if a faster speed is requested by ATC, what is the maximum allowable airspeed with flaps positioned at 8 degrees?
200 KIAS
215 KIAS
230 KIAS
235 KIAS
Under what condition would the AC utility busses shed in flight?
Single generator operation
Loss of a generator
Loss of the battery chargers
Failure of a battery
What is the purpose of the constant speed drive?
Converts variable engine RPM to a constant generator RPM
Converts AC power to DC power
Converts variable-engine-driven generator frequency to a constant 400 Hz
Converts variable engine-driven generator power output to a constant 30 kVA
How is the APU GEN frequency regulated?
The APU ECU maintains a constant RPM of 100%
The GCU maintains the 400 Hz.
By using an IDG.
By the APU ECU modulating the electrical frequency.
Under what conditions will the IDG FAULT light illuminate?
High oil temperature or low oil pressure
Over-torque
After IDG disconnect
IDG overtemperature
Under what conditions will the IDG automatically disconnect?
Over-torque or over temperature
Generator or bus overcurrent
Fire detected in an engine
Both A and C
What is the maximum allowable electrical load on GEN 1 at FL360?
15 kVA
22 kVA
25 kVA
30 kVA
What is the maximum allowable electrical load on the APU generator?
25 KVA
15 KVA
30 KVA
100 Amps
Due to display cooling requirements on the ground, what is the maximum time the aircraft can remain on DC power only?
5 minutes
10 minutes
30 minutes
1 hour
What is the normal power output and maximum allowable load on a TRU?
28 Volts and 100 amps
28 Volts and 115 amps
115 Volts and 100 amps
100 Volts and 28 amps
What is the bus power priority logic for AC bus 2?
GEN 2, APU GEN, GEN 1, external power.
GEN 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, external power.
GEN 2, GEN 1, external power, APU GEN.
GEN 2, external power, APU GEN, GEN 1.
The ADG supplies AC power to:
Hydraulic pump 3B and the AC ESS bus
Hydraulic pump 2B, AC BUS, and ESS TRU 2
Hydraulic pump 3B, AC BUS 1, and TRU 1
Hydraulic pump 2B and the AC ESS BUS
Which of the following conditions will cause a generator to be tripped off by the generator control unit?
Over Current
Under Voltage
Under Frequency
All of the above
When cruising at FL 350 what is the maximum load limit on the engine-driven generators?
15 kVA
25 kVA
30 kVA
35 KVA
How many TRUs provide power to the DC electrical system?
4
5
6
7
What is the purpose of the Auto-Tune function in the FMS?
Allows the FMS to automatically tune a total of 2 NAV frequencies and 6 DME channels for determining the aircraft position.
Allows the FMS to automatically tune the LOC frequency when an approach is loaded into the FMS.
Allows the FMS to automatically tune NDB frequencies.
Allows the FMS to generate a blue ghost needle
Which features are inoperative on the ACM (jumpseat) audio control panel?
EMER/NORM and SPEAKER
SPEAKER and INT/SVC
EMER/NORM and INT/SVC
Ability to transmit over VHF or PA
While on the ground with engines running, which of the following would cause the FDR FAIL status message to be displayed?
BEACON is in the OFF position
FDR is in the OFF position
NAV is in the OFF position
FDR EVENT button has been pressed
What is the purpose of each EMER switch on Audio Control Panel (ACP) 1 and ACP 2?
Bypasses the ACP and allows a direct connection from the headset to the on-side radio.
Transmits a constant S-O-S signal on 121.5
Automatically sets 121.5 as the active frequency
Automatically sets 7700 as the transponder code
To establish crew communications, what button/switches on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) are selected to communicate while wearing the oxygen mask?
MASK, SPKR, I/C
EMER, MASK, I/C
VHF 1, MASK, I/C
EMER, SPKR, IC
If the emergency lights are automatically activated, how will they be powered and how long will they remain powered?
Independent rechargeable batteries for 15 minutes
Main aircraft battery for 30 minutes
APU battery for 30 minutes
Main DC bus for an unlimited duration if the battery master switch is on
When the EMER LTS switch is in the ARMED position, when will the emergency lights come on automatically?
Loss of AC ESS bus or DC ESS bus
Cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft
Loss of battery power
ADG deployed
The red beacon on the aircraft signifies that an engine is running or is about to be started.
TRUE
FALSE
Which area of the aircraft uses single-loop fire or overheat detection?
Main landing gear wheel bins
Engines
Jetpipe
Pylon
Does the lavatory have fire extinguishing capability?
Yes for the waste bin only
No, the cargo bay door is the only access
Yes, using a ceiling-mounted extinuisher
Yes, using a sprinkler system and lavatory potable water
The LH ENG fire detection loop A is deferred. Loop B has been selected using the switch on the overhead panel. What message will be generated if loop B detects a fire?
L ENG FIRE warning message
L ENG FIRE FAIL caution message
ENG BTL 1 LOW caution message
L ENG FIRE warning message and ENG BTL 1 LOW caution message
What is the difference in APU response to a fire in flight vs. On the ground?
There is no difference between an APU fire in flight and on the ground
In flight, the APU will automatically shut down after five seconds, the APU bottle automatically discharges Halon and the external horn sounds
In flight, after five seconds, the APU bottle automatically discharges Halon into the APU enclosure and the external horn sounds
In flight, the APU will automatically shut down, but the Halon bottle will not automatically discharge
What message is generated if only one loop detects a fire in a dual-loop system (assuming both loops are selected) ?
FIRE FAIL caution message
FIRE warning message
ENG BTL 1(2) LOW caution message
FIRE warning message and ENG BTL 1(2) LOW caution message
While walking next to a CL-65 on the ramp, you hear the APU external horn. What does the horn indicate?
The APU bottle has discharged.
The APU has detected an overheat condition.
The APU generator has failed and the batteries are both on.
The aircraft is pressurized.
With smoke detected in the cargo bin, which one of the following must be accomplished manually?
Shut off the cargo fan
Arm the FIREX
Close the intake SOV
Close the exhaust SOV
If an APU fire is detected in flight, the APU bottle will discharge automatically.
TRUE
FALSE
If an APU fire is detected in flight, the APU bottle will discharge automatically.
TRUE
FALSE
If APU fire is detected in flight the APU will shut off automatically.
TRUE
FALSE
When the ENG FIRE PUSH switch is pressed in, it will:
Trip the engine driven generator relay to OFF
Arm the FIREX bottle squibs
Close the fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shutoff valves
All of the Above
If an APU fire is detected in flight, the APU bottle will discharge automatically.
TRUE
FALSE
If an APU fire is detected in flight the APU will shut off automatically.
TRUE
FALSE
The Cargo FIREX bottles are discharged:
By selecting a switchlight on the CARGO FIREX panel.
Automatically by a heat sensitive capsule.
Automatically when the smoke detectors sense a fire.
A switch on the FIREX MONITOR panel.
Which area(s) have overheat detection capability only?
Main landing gear bay
Engine & APU
Cargo compartment
Lavatory waste bin
Which of the following components move fuel from the collector tanks to the engines?
Main ejectors
Transfer ejectors
Scavenge ejectors
XFLOW/APU pump
If an engine-driven fuel pump fails, will the engine continue to operate when the boost pumps turn on?
Yes
No
How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?
Transfer ejectors
Main ejectors
Scavenge ejectors
XFLOW/APU pump
Assuming both fuel boost pump switches are selected in, what would cause the boost pumps to turn on automatically?
When low fuel pressure is detected in either engine feed manifold.
Engine feed manifold temperature exceeds the normal limits on either engine.
Engine fuel feed manifold pressure exceeds its pressure limits.
When a fuel flow sensor fails on either engine.
Where is bulk fuel temperature displayed?
Fuel synoptic page
CAS page
Status page
Status page and Fuel synoptic page
How is the APU fuel SOV closed?
By selecting APU PWR/FUEL switchlight out or by pushing the APU FIRE PUSH swtichlight
The fuel crossflow system will automatically deliver fuel to the low tank with a fuel imbalance of more than ___________ pounds.
100 lbs
200 lbs
600 lbs
800 lbs
If a scavenge ejector fails, is there any other way fuel can be delivered to the associated collector tank?
Yes, it's done automatically by using a gravity-flow line from the wing tank to the collector tank
Yes, using the boost pumps
Yes, using the APU/XFLOW pump
No, fuel will not be delivered to the collector tank
After starting the left engine and while accomplishing the fuel check valve test, which message indicated a valid test?
L FUEL LO PRESS
R FUEL LO PRESS
CHK VALVE OPEN
L/R BOOST PUMP INOP
If the engine-driven fuel pump fails, will the engine continue to run?
Yes
No
During single-engine operation, a fuel imbalance may occur. What can be done to aid the automatic crossflow system to balance the main fuel tanks?
Open the gravity cross-flow valve.
The tanks cannot be balance--you have to land immediately.
Turn left.
Turn right.
Why is the XFLOW AUTO OVRD switchlight selected prior to takeoff?
To prevent inadvertent fuel crossflow during initial climb.
Because the auto system will not function during climbs.
To prevent fuel from leaking into the NACA system.
To prevent fuel from leaking into the center tank.
If the right engine main ejector fails and the right boost pump fails the right engine will:
Continue to run because the left boos pump will supply adequate pressure to the engine driven pump via the cross over manifold
Shut down due to lack of fuel pressure
Continue to run because the left main ejector will supply adequate fuel pressure to the right fuel manifold
Continue to run because the XFLOW/APU pump will supply adequate pressure to the engine driven pump via the left fuel manifold
If the main fuel tank quantity is low (compared to the right tank) and auto cross flow begins, from which tanks fuel be taken?
Left and right main tank
Center and right main tank
Right main tank only
Left main tank, right main tank and right collector
For takeoff, what is the maximum allowable quantity of fuel in the center tank with less than 4,400 lbs in the wing tanks?
400 lbs.
500 lbs.
800 lbs.
1000 lbs.
What is the maximum fuel quantity that can be achieved using pressure refueling?
13,906 lbs.
14,518 lbs.
14,915 lbs.
15,180 lbs.
With the exception of row 8, how many passenger masks are in each PSU on the right hand side of the aircraft?
1
2
3
4
How many passenger masks are in each PSU on the left hand side of the aircraft?
1
2
3
4
The passenger oxygen system consists of:
Individual oxygen generators and masks that deploy automatically at a cabin altitude of 14,000 feet.
A 50 cubic foot bottle and masks that deploy automatically at 14,000 feet.
A 50 cubic foot bottle and masks that deploy automatically at 10,000 feet.
Individual oxygen generators and masks that deploy automatically at a cabin altitude of 10,000 feet.
What is indicated by a missing green blowout disk on the lower right side of the fuselage?
Over-pressure in the crew oxygen bottle has occurred
The oxygen bottles in the row one overhead bin are empty
The mechanic is servicing the system
The passenger oxygen system is empty
When does the yellow blinker appear on the crew oxygen mask container?
When oxygen is flowing
When oxygen is empty
When the mask has been stowed properly in the container
When the mask is inoperative
Is there any risk involved using the normal flow on the oxygen mask with smoke present in the cockpit?
Yes, normal flow mixes ambient air crew oxygen, which can cause smoke to enter the mask
Yes, normal flow uses 100% oxygen, which can cause a possible fire if a leak occurs and mixes with caustic smoke.
No, normal flow is actually better than 100% oxygen in smoke conditions, because it prolongs the amount of oxygen available.
No, either setting will not allow cabin smoke enter the mask.
When one crewmember must leave the flight deck, above what minimum altitude must the pilot remaining wear an oxygen mask?
FL180
FL240
FL250
FL300
At or above what cabin altitude will the CPAM deploy the passenger oxygen masks?
10,000
14,000
15,000
FL180
Once activated, how long will a passenger oxygen generator supply oxygen?
10 Minutes
14 Minutes
22 Minutes
30 Minutes
What is the minimum length of time a PBE will provide oxygen?
10 minutes
15 minutes
22 minutes
30 minutes
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