Breast and Abdominal Health Quiz
Breast and Abdominal Health Quiz
Test your knowledge on breast and abdominal health with our comprehensive quiz! This engaging and informative quiz is designed to challenge your understanding of various health topics, from palpation techniques to recognizing serious conditions.
Key Features:
- Multiple-choice and checkbox questions
- Focus on both modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors
- Assess your clinical knowledge and improve your skills
Which of the following is not a modifiable risk factor for breast cancer? (More than one answer is possible)
A) Family History
B) Postmenopausal obesity
C) Use of hormonal replacement therapy
D) Physical inactivity
E) Early menarche
For palpation of the axilla the following technique is required:
A) Arm of the palpated axilla is slightly raised. Examiner stands behind of the patient and palpates all lymph nodes with the ipsilateral hand.
B) Arm of the palpated axilla is relaxed and down. Examiner stands in front of the patient and palpates axilla with the ipsilateral hand.
C) Arm of the palpated axilla is relaxed and down. Examiner stands behind of the patient and palpates axilla with the contralateral hand
D) Arm of the palpated axilla is relaxed and down. Examiner stands in front of the patient and palpates axilla with the contralateral hand.
E) Arm of the palpated axilla is slightly raised. Examiner stands in front of the patient and palpates all lymph nodes with the contralateral hand.
You assess the patient using postural color changes test. Normally color returns to the legs in
A) 30 sec
B) 10 sec
C) 40 sec
D) From 10 to 20 seconds
E) From 20 to 30 sec
62 year old man presents with ulceration around his calf, he has pain (8/10). Pedal pulse is absent, no swelling. Patient has
A) Peripheral venous disease
B) Chronic venous insufficiency
C) Peripheral Arterial Disease
D) Not any of them
Which of the listed below are true about popliteal pulse? (more than one answer is possible)
A) To assess the popliteal pulse, you need to place your fingertips deeply in popliteal fossa while patient is in supine position
B) Popliteal aneurysm is not common
C) You can assess both popliteal arteries simultaneously in order to compare them
D) An exaggerated, widened popliteal suggest an aneurysm of the popliteal artery.
E) There is not assess to popliteal pulse where patient is in prone position
You are having a patient who presents with jaundice, telangiectasia, dilated veins on the abdominal wall and palmar erythema. What is the possible disorder?
A) Pregnancy
B) Lymphoma
C) B12 anemia
D) Iron deficient anemia
E) Liver disease
Lymph from a breast is drained into (more than one answer is possible)
A) Pectoral nodes
B) Central nodes
C) Subscapular nodes
D) Directly to infraclavicular nodes
E) Directly to supraclavicular nodes
What are the modifiable risk factors for breast cancer?
A) Family history
B) Postmenopausal obesity
C) Use of hormonal replacement therapy
D) Physical inactivity
E) Only A, B and D
F) Only B, C and D
Which of the following are the risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysm? (More than one answer is possible)
A) Hyperglucosemia
B) Aortic diameter more than 2 cm
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Age more than 55 years
E) Hypertension
F) Coronary artery disease
Which of the listed below statements are true about dorsalis pedis pulse? (More than one answer is possible)
A) Dorsalis pedis pulse is felt medial to the extensor tensor of the great toe
B) Dorsalis pedis pulse is felt lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe
C) Dorsalis pedis artery may be congenitally absent
D) Dorsalis pedis pulse may be felt in ankle
E) Dorsalis pedis pulse can be felt more laterally if it branches higher in the ankle
In patients above 50 year old normally diameter of abdominal aorta must not exceed:
A) 2 cm
B) 2.5 cm
C) 3 cm
D) 3.5 cm
E) 5 cm
Bladder distension can be caused by the following except:
A) Acute cystitis
B) Urethral stricture
C) Prostatic hyperplasia
D) Multiple sclerosis
Parietal pain originates from inflammation in the parietal peritoneum. It varies in quality and may be gnawing, burning or cramping. When it becomes severe, it may be associated with sweating, pallor, nausea, vomiting, and restlessness. (Steady, aching pain)
True
False
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Early guarding is a voluntary process
B) Abdominal rigidity is an involuntary response of muscle suggesting peritoneal inflammation
C) Rigidity decreases with relaxing methods
D) All of them are true
E) Only A and B are true
Traube’s space is
A) Space from the 5th intercostal space on midclavicular line to the middle axillar line and down to the costal margin
B) Space from the 5th intercostal space on the midclavicular line to the anterior axillar line and down to the costal margin
C) Space from the 6th intercostal space on the midclavicular line to the anterior axillar line and down to the costal margin
D) Space from the 6th intercostal space on the midclavicular line to the middle axillar line and down to the costal margin
E) 6th intercostal space from midclavicular line to the anterior axillar line
F) 5th intercostal space from the midclavicular line to the anterior axillar line
Which of the following normally can be palpable in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen?
A) Duodenum, pancreas, liver edge and lower pole of the right kidney
B) The lower margin of the liver, pancreas and gallbladder
C) Duodenum, pancreas, the lower pole of the right kidney and gallbladder
D) The lower margin of the liver, liver edge and the lower pole of the right kidney aggravated by movement
Visceral pain occurs when hollow abdominal organs contract unusually forcefully or are distended or stretched. Character of visceral pain is steady and aching and aggravated by movement or coughing. (Visceral pain varies in quality, may be gnawing, burning, cramping, or aching)
True
False
32 years old female is admitted with the right lower quadrant pain which she rates 9/10. On palpation you note abdominal wall rigidity. Which from the listed below is possible she has?
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease
C) Ruptured ovarian follicle
D) Ectopic pregnancy
E) A, B, C and D
F) Only A, C and D
G) Only A and D
Unusually intense and immediate desire to void is called
A) Dysuria
B) Urgency
C) Frequency
D) Polyuria
E) Nocturia
Hooking technique” may be helpful during palpation of
A) Liver
B) Right kidney
C) Inflamed appendix
D) Spleen
E) Left kidney
Describe location for the sternal angle or angle of Louis
A) In the hollow curve of the suprasternal notch
B) T5-T6 intercostal space
C) T1-T7 intercostal space
D) In the hollow curve of the suprasternal notch, then move it down approximately 5 cm to the horizontal bony ridge where the manubrium joins the body of the sternum
Crackles are:
A) Like dashes in time
B) Relatively high-pitched (≥400Hz) with hissing or shrill quality (>80 ms)
C) Intermittent, nonmuscial, and brief, Like dots in time
D) Sinusoidal, musical, prolonged (but not necessarily persisting throughout the respiratory cycle)
Nocturia is one of the following:
A) The patient has to wake at night one or more times for voiding
B) The frequent passage of large volumes of urine – more than 3 litres a day
C) Painful urination
D) Urinary incontinence
Generalized hyperresonance is common over the hyperinflated lungs:
A) ILD
B) COPD or asthma
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Pneumonia
Normal breath sound in the base of the lung is:
A) Tracheal
B) Wheezing
C) Bronchial
D) Vesicular
Adventitious Sounds are:
A) Tracheal sounds
B) Normal breath sounds
C) Added sounds that are superimposed on the usual breath sounds.
D) Wheezings and vesicular sounds
A 76-year-old woman with severe aortic stenosis presents with dyspnea and worsening functional class in the setting of new-onset atrial fibrillation. Which of the following auscultatory findings would not be expected?
A) A late-peaking crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
B) An apical systolic murmur
C) Delayed and weak carotid upstroke
D) An S4
E) A soft S2
When inspiratory sounds last longer than expiratory sounds, it is:
A) Vesicular
B) Wheezing
C) Tracheal
D) Bronchial
Percussion is resonant in:
A) Healthy lung
B) Asthma
C) Diagnostic tool for liver
D) ‘Acute bronchitis
Follows opening snap delayed rumbling late diastolic murmur
A) Mitral prolapse
B) Mitral regurgitation
C) Aortic stenosis
D) Mitral stenosis
Wheezes arise:
A) In the narrowed airways of asthma, COPD, and bronchitis.
B) Pneumonia
C) From abnormalities of the lung parenchyma (pneumonia, interstitial lung disease, pulmonary fibrosis, atelectasis, heart failure) or of the airways (bronchitis, bronchiectasis). (Crackles)
D) In the widened airways of bronchitis
Caput medusa is one of the following:
A) The appearance of distended and engorged paraumbilical veins
B) Scull fracture
C) Head wound
D) Scull tumor
Jaundice is one of the following:
A) Yellow discolouration of the skin and mucous layers.
B) Increased frequency of urination
C) Loss of the appetite
D) Alteration of the constipation and diarrhea
Types of jaundice are all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Posthepatic
B) Prehepatic
C) Hepatic
D) Postprandial
A 63-year-old woman develops exertional angina and has had two episodes of syncope. Examination shows a systolic ejection fraction murmur with radiation to the carotids and a soft S2. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Mitral stenosis
C) Mitral insufficiency
D) Tricuspid stenosis
E) Aortic insufficiency
A 23-year-old man is referred to cardiology after an episode of syncope while playing basketball. He has no recollection of the event, but he was told that he collapsed while running. He awakened lying on the ground and suffered multiple contusions as a result of the fall. He has always been an active individual by recently has developed some chest pain with exertion that has caused him to restrict his activity. His father died at age 44 while rock climbing. He believes his father’s cause of death was sudden cardiac death and recalls being told his father had an enlarged heart. On examination, the patient has a III/VI mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. His electrocardiogram shows evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as the cause of the patient’s heart disease. Which of the following maneuvers would be expected to cause an increase in the loudness of the murmur?
A) E. A, and B
B) D. Valsalva maneuver
C) C. Standing
D) A. Handgrip exercise
E) B. Squatting
F) F. C and D
Landmark for thoracentesis with needle is?
A) T6-T7 intercostal space
B) T5-T6 intercostal space
C) T2-T4 intercostal space
D) T7-T8 intercostal space
A 18-year-old man notices occasional light-headedness when standing up quickly. He also has difficulty playing sports because of easy fatigue and SOB. Examination shows normal heart sounds, but a loud systolic ejection murmur at the right sternal border. The murmur decreases with elevating the legs and increases in the standing position. Your clinical diagnosis is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Select answer regarding to HOCM.
A) Dicrotic pulse
B) Pulsus tardus
C) Hyperkinetic pulse
D) Pulsus paradoxus
E) Bisferiens pulse
Immediate high-pitched diastolic murmur. Wide pulse pressure when chronic. Can present with bounding pulses and head bobbing (De Musset’s sign).
A) Aortic regurgitation
B) Aortic stenosis
C) Tricuspid regurgitation
D) Mitral regurgitation
Unilateral hyperresonance suggests:
A) Pneumonia
B) A large pneumothorax or air-filled bulla
C) Alpha one antitrypsin deficiency
D) Asthma
In case of ascites the percussion reveals one of the following:
A) Absence of the dullness
B) Absence of the tympani
C) Shifting dullness
D) Fixed dullness
A 22-year-old woman with no past medical history is found to have a systolic ejection murmur on routine physical examination. She has no symptoms and feels well. The murmur is heard along the right and left sternal borders and it decreases after rapid squatting. What could be the underlying disease?
A) Tricuspid regurgitation
B) HOCM hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) Mitral valve prolapse
D) Aortic stenosis
E) Mitral regurgitation (chronic)
Anorexia is one of the following:
A) Lack of water
B) Yellow skin
C) Black stool
D) Lack of appetite
Each lung is divided roughly in half by:
A) An minor fissure
B) T6-T7 intercostal space
C) In the hollow curve of the suprasternal notch
D) An oblique (major) fissure
Pain as a symptom can be is one of the following types EXCEPT:
A) Visercal
B) Parietal
C) Referred
D) Toxic
When inspiratory and expiratory sounds are almost equal, it is:
A) Wheezing
B) Vesicular
C) Tracheal
D) Bronchial
Describe location for the lower margin of an endotracheal tube on a chest x-ray
A) T7-T8 intercostal space
B) T4
C) T6
D) T6-T7 intercostal space
A 45-year-old woman is referred for a murmur. Which finding on a physical examination would be suggestive of a diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?
A) A decrease in the systolic ejection murmur with inspiration
B) A decrease in the intensity of the systolic murmur upon standing
C) An apical holosystolic murmur
D) A palpable P2
E) A midsystolic click
Hematochezia is one of the following:
A) Bloody stools
B) Nasal bleeding
C) Blood loss
D) Black stools
A 25-year-old woman is referred for a murmur. Transthoracic echocardiography demonstrates mitral valve prolapse. Which of the following is true about the click accompanying mitral valve prolapse?
A) It decreases in intensity with inspiration and moves closer to S1
B) This usually occurs in early systole
C) Upon Valsalva maneuver, the click will occur later in systole (Will occur earlier in systole)
D) Upon standing, the click will occur earlier in systole
E) This is a lough, high-pitched sound
Many clinicians use this term to describe sounds from secretions in large airways that may change with coughing. It is:
A) ‘Crackles’
B) “Rhonchi”
C) ‘Acute bronchitis’
D) “Wheezes”
Wheezies are:
A) Somewhat louder, lower in pitch (-350 Hz), brief (15-30 ms)
B) Relatively high-pitched (≥400 Hz) with hissing or shrill quality (>80 ms), Like dashes in time
C) Intermittent, nonmusical, and brief, Like dots in time
D) Normal breath sounds
The echocardiogram of a 22-year-old woman reveals mitral valve prolapse. Which of the following is the most common physical finding in this condition?
A) Diastolic click
B) Absent first heart sound
C) Late systolic murmur
D) Diastolic rumble
E) Aortic regurgitation
Melena or melaena is the sign of:
A) Anal bleeding
B) Goiter
C) Lung injury
D) Upper GI bleeding
Crackles are:
A) Like dashes in time
B) Relatively high-pitched (≥400 Hz) with hissing or shrill quality (>80 ms)
C) Intermittent, nonmusical, and brief, Like dots in time
D) Sinusoidal, musical, prolonged (but not necessarily persisting throughout the respiratory
Describe location for needle insertion for tension pneumothorax.
A) 5th intercostal space
B) 4th intercostal space
C) 2nd intercostal space
D) First intercostal space
Rovsing sign is one of the following:
A) Pain felt in the right lower abdomen upon palpation of the left side of the abdomen
B) Tenderness and guarding in the right hypochondrium exacerbated by inspiration
C) Right low quadrant pain with extension of the right hip or with flexion of the right hip against resistance
D) There is pain upon removal of pressure rather than application of pressure to the abdomen.
Crackles can arise from:
A) In the narrowed airways of asthma, COPD, and bronchitis
B) From abnormalities of the lung parenchyma (pneumonia, interstitial lung disease, pulmonary fibrosis, atelectasis, heart failure) or of the airways (bronchitis, bronchiectasis).
C) In the widened airways of bronchitis
D) Pneumonia, pneumothorax
A 28-year-old woman has been told she has rheumatic heart disease, specifically mitral stenosis. Which of the following murmurs is most likely present?
A) Diastolic rumble at the apex of the heart
B) Late-peaking systolic murmur at right upper sternal border
C) Early diastolic decrescendo at right upper sternal border
D) Holosystolic murmur at apex
An elderly patient presents with a diastolic murmur that gets louder during inspiration. Which of the following are the most likely?
A) Pulmonic stenosis or tricuspid regurgitation
B) Pulmonic regurgitation or tricuspid stenosis
C) Aortic stenosis or mitral regurgitation
D) Aortic regurgitation or mitral stenosis
Polyuria is one of the following:
A) Urinary incontinence
B) The patient has to wake at night one or more times for voiding
C) The frequent passage of large volumes of urine – more than 3 litres a day
D) Painful urination
A 45-year-old woman has developed increasing SOB on exertion and fatigue. She has a loud systolic ejection murmur heard best at the left sternal border (erbs point), and the murmur increases with standing. A double apical impulse (bisferiens pulse) is also felt. What could be the underlying disease?
A) HOCM hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B) Mitral regurgitation (chronic)
C) Mitral valve prolapse
D) Aortic stenosis
E) Tricuspid regurgitation
Costovertebral angle tenderness is one of the following symptoms:
A) Caput meduse
B) Murphy’s sing
C) Abdominal distention
D) Pasternacki’s Sign
What is the Austin-Flint murmur?
A) The systolic ejection murmur from the high flow across the aortic valve in a person with severe aortic insufficiency
B) The short, early diastolic murmur caused by severe aortic regurgitation
C) The murmur created by severe aortic stenosis heard at the cardiac apex sounding holosystolic and mimicking mitral regurgitation
D) The diastolic murmur at the cardiac apex in the presence of severe aortic regurgitation caused by the regurgitant jet striking the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve mimicking mitral stenosis
Rebound tenderness is one of the following:
A) Right low quadrant pain with extension of the right hip or with flexion of the right hip against resistance
B) Pain felt in the right lower abdomen upon palpation of the left side of the abdomen
C) There is pain upon removal of pressure rather than application of pressure to the abdomen.
D) Tenderness and guarding in the right hypochondrium exacerbated by inspiration
During the ear examination of 53-year-old male there are the following findings: positive whispered test on the right side, Rinne test – BC>AC on the right side, AC>BC on the left side, Webber test shows lateralization on the right side. There is:
A) Right sided sensory neural hearing loss
B) Mixed hearing loss
C) Right sided conductive hearing loss
D) Left sided sensorineural hearing loss
E) Left sided conductive hearing loss
Increased JVP correlates with:
A) Heart tamponade
B) Acute and chronic right sided heart failure
C) Chronic pulmonary hypertension
D) Acute and chronic left sided heart failure
E) All of the above
For which of the following conditions clubbing nails are not characteristic?
A) Inflammatory bowel diseases
B) Interstitial lung diseases
C) Congenital heart disease
D) Lung cancer
E) Left sided heart failure
Which one of the following best describes the role of history taking in patient assessment?
A) Clinical history provides a primary guiding foundation when making clinical decisions
B) All of the above
C) Clinical history always need to be confirmed by clinical examination
D) Clinical history is of secondary importance to clinical examination
E) Clinical history can be misleading and physical examination is of the primary importance
Auscultation with the bell of the stethoscope in the left decubitus position prevents from missing of which of them?
A) Pulmonary stenosis
B) S3 gallop
C) S4 gallop
D) Mitral stenosis
E) Mitral regurgitation
F) Pulmonary regurgitation
Which of the following is right about a grade IV-intensity murmur?
A) It can be heard only by expert
B) It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest
C) It is associated with a “thrill”
D) It is moderately loud
E) It can be heard with stethoscope off the chest
Examples of empathic responses are:
A) “You have lost your father. What has that been like for you?”
B) Using verbal and nonverbal skills to encourage the patient to expand on his or her feelings
C) Placing your hand on the patient’s arm
D) Offering tissues when the patient is trying crying
E) Closely attending to what the patient is communicating
You are concerned that a patient has an aortic regurgitation murmur. Which is the best position to accentuate the murmur?
A) Left lateral decubitus (Mitral Stenosis, S3, S4)
B) Sitting upright
C) Sitting upright, but leaning forward
D) Supine with head positioned in 0 degrees
E) Standing upright
Which of the following statements is not true about consolidation?
A) The causes of consolidation include pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary hemorrhage, Transmitted voice is loud.
B) Percussion sound is resonant and auscultation sound is vesicular during consolidation and transmitted voice is muffled
C) Consolidation occurs when there is a mucus or foreign object plug in a mainstream bronchus; rhonchi are heard on auscultation
D) During consolidation alveoli are filed with fluid or blood cells. Crackles are on auscultation
Which of the following waves of the jugular venous pulsations is a systolic phenomenon?
A) The downstroke of the “V” wave
B) The “x” descent
C) The “y” descent
D) The upstroke of the “a” wave
Which of the following is not true about fatigue?
A) Fatigue can be associated symptoms of endocrine disorders
B) Fatigue is a specific symptom suggesting possible myopathy
C) Fatigue as a response to hard work and sustained stress is pathological
D) Fatigue cannot be associated with depression
E) Fatigue is a nonspecific symptom with many causes
Patient complains about generalized itching, although there is no apparent rash on the skin. Which of the following cannot be the reason of itching in this case?
A) Pregnancy
B) Lymphoma
C) Jaundice
D) Uremia
E) Drug reaction
F) All of them cam be the reason
All of the following are true about focused assessment, except:
A) Applies examination methods relevant to the complaint or concern of patient
B) Assesses symptoms related to the specific system of the body
C) Addresses certain concerns or symptoms
D) Is appropriate for new patients in the office or hospital
E) Provides fundamental and personalized knowledge about patient
Patient presents with the voice hoarseness that started 3 weeks ago. Which of the following cannot be the reason for this complaint?
A) Lung cancer
B) Head and neck cancers
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Acute viral laryngitis
E) Voice overuse
F) GERD
Causes of weight loss are the following, except:
A) Adrenal insufficiency
B) GI diseases
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Diabetes mellitus
E) Depression
F) Glucocorticoids
A 46 years old male, businessman, heavy smoker and mild alcohol consumer without personal or familial history of cardiovascular disease, presented to the emergency department complaining for worsening shortness of breath in the last week with an episode of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea during the last night. He denied chest pain, palpitations or syncope. On physical examination. HR 110 bpm, BP 120/90 mmHg, RR 25 br/min, SpO2 90% in room air, Jugular vein distension, crackles over the lower third of both lung fields, S3 gallop and an apical murmur of grade III were present, no peripheral edema was appreciable. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Acute heart failure
B) Spontaneous pneumothorax
C) Anxiety with hyperventilation
D) Bronchial asthma
E) Pulmonary embolism
Which of the following is not characteristic for the normal air-filled lung?
A) Mainly vesicular breath sound
B) Normal tactile fremitus
C) Spoken “ee” is heard as “ee”
D) Resonant sound on percussion
E) Transmitted spoken voice is loud (
Which of the following statements is true about wheezes?
A) Wheezes are produced in the alveoli during consolidation, can be heard only on expansion and cannot be audible at the mouth
B) Wheezes occur because of the rapid air flow through the narrowed airways, they can be audible during bronchial asthma and COPD; wheezes can be heard as on inspiration as well on expiration
C) Wheezes are produced in the alveoli during consolidation, they can be heard as on inspiration as well on expiration and cannot be audible at the mouth
D) Wheezes are musical respiratory sounds that may be audible to the patient and to others
E) Wheezes occur because of the rapid air flow through the narrowed airways, can be heard only on expiration, the quality of wheezes corresponds to the severity of asthma
During the assessment of the patient with heart failure you check the radial pulse which has regular rhythm, but its force changes from beat to beat. Which of the following is described?
A) Regularly irregular pulse
B) Pulsus alternans
C) Irregularly irregular pulse
D) Weak pulse
E) Paradoxical pulse
Which of the following is a “red flag” regarding patients presenting with headache
A) Pain over the sinuses
B) Headache worsening with the change of position
C) Age above 50
D) Headache with photophobia
E) Headache manifesting during pregnancy
F) Unilateral headache
What is the optimal technique to better auscultate of the S1 sound?
A) Cardiac apex with the patient in the supine position using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
B) Right 2nd intercostal space sternal border with the patient in the left decubitus position using the bell of the stethoscope
C) Left 2nd intercostal space sternal border with the patient supine using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
D) Right 2nd intercostal space sternal border with the patient leaning forward using the bell of the stethoscope
E) Cardiac apex with the patient in the supine position at end of inspiration using the bell of the stethoscope
Which of the following valve disorders does produce a holosystolic murmur?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Pulmonic stenosis
C) Aortic insufficiency
D) Mitral insufficiency
E) Mitral stenosis
A 48-year-old civil engineer comes to your office with the complain of a headache. He describes it as a throbbing sensation, located in the right temporal region and with intensity 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. It started a few hours ago, and he has noted nausea with sensitivity to light, he has had headaches like this in the past, usually less than one per month, but less severe. He does not know of any triggering factors. There has been no change in the frequency of her headaches. She usually takes an over-the-counter pain killer and helps with her headache. What is the most likely diagnosis of the type of headache?
A) Trigeminal headache
B) Tension headache
C) Cluster headache
D) Analgesic rebound
E) Migraine
29-year-old male having years of insidious chronic low back pain, no structural fault identifiable. Pain distribution is rarely anatomically plausible. Initial past medical history includes ankle fractures apparently followed by CRPS complex regional pain syndrome that has resolved, multiple general anesthetics, a concussion. Now complains of “showers of fizzing” in arms and legs with no particular aggravating / easing factors. Develops extreme levels of pain when incurs any acute injury (such as a recent laceration injury in which a slim piece of steel was shot into his arm, and subsequently a fractured finger, both work accidents). Works full time in a manufacturing plant. Very fatigued by the end of the day and complains of having “weed in my head”. “I can’t describe it”. Poor sleep due to “my brain can’t calm down”. NSAID medication does not help. Regularly attends local gym and self-reports as being competitive. Has attended pain clinics in the past. Which type of pain does the patient have?
A) Idiopathic pain
B) Central sensitization
C) Neuropathic pain
D) Psychogenic pain
E) Nociceptive pain
Which one from the following cannot lead to a rapid change in weight over a few days?
A) Liver failure
B) Heart failure
C) Nephrotic syndrome
D) Increased caloric intake
E) Venous statis
Which from the following statements is true about abdominal pain:
A) Epigastric pain may derive from the stomach, duodenum, or pancreas
B) Visceral pain varies in quality, when it is intensive sweating, pallor, nausea, vomiting may accompany it
C) Pain of duodenal or pancreatic origin may be referred to the right scapular region or the right posterior thorax
D) Pain from pleurisy may be referred to the epigastric area
E) Visceral pain may be felt in more distant sites from the disordered structures
Which of the following is not the maneuver for examining of the shoulder joint?
A) Drop-arm test
B) Posterior Drawer Sign
C) Neer impingement sign
D) Lachman test
E) Hawkins impingement sign
Which from the following statements is not correct?
A) Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria may be caused by vertebrobasilar TIA or stroke
B) Asymmetric weakness may be resulted only from central (Ischemic, thrombotic, or mass
C) Asymmetric weakness includes focal, monoparesis, paraparesis, and hemiparesis
D) Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria may be caused by posterior fossa tumor
E) Proximal symmetric limb weakness with intact sensation may occur in alcoholism
Which of the following statement is correct about fatigue?
A) Fatigue if localized in a neuroanatomical pattern suggest possible myopathy
B) Fatigue and weakness are synonyms
C) Fatigue is a subjective symptom
D) Fatigue denotes a demonstrable loss of muscle power
E) Fatigue is a common symptom of most malignancies
Syncope may be resulted from the following except:
A) Arrythmia
B) Meniere disease
C) Antihypertensive medication
D) Orthostatic hypotension
E) Vasovagal stimulation
Which one from the listed below can be a reason for a subacute progressive weakness of lower extremities
A) Primary and metastatic spinal cord tumors
B) Guillain-Barre syndrome
C) Glucocorticoids intake
D) Diabetes
E) Myopathy from alcoholism
Which of the following is correct about somatic type of pain? Same as
A) Central sensitization
B) Idiopathic
C) Psychogenic
D) Neuropathic
E) Nociceptive
A 71-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of unilateral hearing loss. She denies vertigo and tinnitus. A weber test lateralizes to the deaf ear, and a Rinne test is negative. The tympanic membranes are bilaterally normal. Which of the following best explains her hearing loss?
A) Sensorineural hearing loss
B) Mixed hearing loss
C) Hysterical hearing loss
D) Conductive hearing loss
A 66-year-old male presented to an urgent care clinic with a 4-day history of dry cough, progressing to rusty colored sputum, sudden onset of chills the previous evening, subjective fever, and malaise. Originally, the man thought he had a cold, but symptoms had worsened and he “barely slept last night with all this coughing.” He denied experiencing shortness of breath by suggested he may be breathing “a little faster than normal.” He felt some sharp left-sided chest pain after a particularly long bout of coughing. He denied any leg swelling, orthopnea, or left-sided/substernal chest pain. He also denied any gastrointestinal symptoms. His vital signs were as follows: temperature: 38.5ᴼC, BP: 128/76 mmHg, HR: 102 bpm, RR: 24 bpm, SpO2: 94%; mild tachycardia with a regular rhythm, mild tachypnea, dullness to percussion, increased tactile fremitus over the lower-right lung, in the same area a few crackles. There was no jugular venous distension or pedal edema. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Pulmonary embolus
B) Left lower lobe pneumonia
C) Pericarditis
D) Left lobe atelectasis
E) Left middle lobe pneumonia
Liver dullness may be displaced downward because of:
A) Atelectasis
B) COPD
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Pneumonia
E) Lung cancer
To which category of the abdominal masses does the distended bladder belong to?
A) Obstructive
B) Inflammatory
C) Physiologic
D) Neoplastic
E) Vascular
Overflow incontinence is caused by:
A) Impaired cognition, musculoskeletal problems, or immobility.
B) Neurologic disorders
C) Increased abdominal pressure causing bladder pressure to exceed urethral resistance
D) Uncontrolled detrusor contractions that overcome urethral resistance
E) Anatomic obstruction from pelvic organs of the prostate
A 50-year-old patient’s examination has found out that inversion with plantar flexion of the foot cause pain, whereas eversion with plantar flexion are relatively pain free. Patient denies the similar condition having in past. These findings sugges
A) Ankle osteoarthritis
B) Ankle acute arthritis
C) Sprained ankle
D) Ankle acute synovitis
E) Ankle chronic synovitis
Which of the following is not correct about GI symptoms?
A) Hyperresonant percussion
B) Bloating and belching are red flags in GI symptoms
C) Heartburn is a rising retrosternal burning pain or discomfort
D) Odynophagia defined as a difficulty to swallow
E) Melena appears when 100 ml of blood from the upper gastrointestinal bleeds.
Listening to the articulation of patient’s words you are assessing the following cranial nerves:
A) CN X
B) CN V
C) CN IX
D) CN VIII
E) CN XII
Which of the following is correct?
A) Common causes of acute seizures may include withdrawal from alcohol, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates.
B) During syncope, tongue biting or bruising of limbs may occur
C) Epilepsy always involves loss of consciousness
D) Postictal state is characteristic as for generalized seizures as well as for syncope
E) Seizures always are symptomatic with an identifiable cause
The reasons of monocular diplopia may be the following except:
A) Problem with contact lenses
B) Ptosis
C) Cataracts
D) Astigmatism
E) Myasthenia gravis
A 19-year-old woman presents with severe right-sided flank pain accompanied by fever, shaking, chills, dysuria, and frequency. She is sexually active with one partner and always uses condoms. On physical examination, her temperature is 39.9ᴼC (103.8ᴼF) and heart rate is 120 beats per minute. Blood pressure and respirations are normal. Abdominal examination reveals suprapubic tenderness with palpation. Costovertebral tenderness is positive. Pelvic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Acute cystitis
C) Renal calculi
D) Appendicitis
E) Diverticulitis
A 36-year-old female with no history of disease was admitted to the hospital after she suddenly collapsed while standing and lost consciousness for approximately five minutes. She recovered spontaneously but was extremely weak and dyspneic. On admission patient had sharp chest pain increasing with inhalation and cough, physical examination revealed a diaphoretic and dyspneic patient without focal neurologic findings. HR 129 bpm regular, BP 126/72 mmHg without orthostatic changes, RR 32 bpm. The room air oxygen saturation was 90%. Examination of the head and neck was normal. The results of chest wall examination reveled reduced breath sounds bilaterally at the lung bases. Diaphragm excursion of the left hemithorax was reduced. The findings of heart and abdominal examinations were unremarkable, on examination of her legs, left leg and oedema with the left calf measured 3 cm more than the right one. Patient said that she took birth control pills. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Acute heart failure
E) Pneumonia
Which one of the following is true for asthma?
A) Percussion sounds are hyperresonant, adventitious sounds are crackles, transmitted voice sounds are decreased
B) Percussion sounds are hyperresonant, adventitious sounds are wheezes, transmitted voice sounds are decreased
C) Percussion sounds are dull, adventitious sounds are crackles, transmitted voice sounds are increased
D) Percussion sounds are dull, adventitious sounds are wheezes, transmitted voice sounds are decreased
E) Percussion sounds are hyperresonant, adventitious sounds are wheezes, transmitted voice sounds are increased
Odynophagia can be resulted from the following causes, except:
A) Radiation
B) Achalasia
C) Ingestion of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents
D) Herpes simplex
E) Esophageal ulceration
Which of the following can not be the reason of rapid gain of the weight?
A) Tricyclic antidepressants
B) Caloric intake exceeds caloric expenditure
C) Heart failure
D) Liver failure
E) Venous statis
F) Nephrotic syndrome
During heart auscultation you ask the patient to roll partly on the left side into the left lateral decubitus position. This will help you to identify:
A) Aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis
B) Only aortic stenosis
C) Accentuated S2
D) Murmur of mitral stenosis
E) Physiological split of S2
You get the patient with a delirium, this means he/she is a
A) Silent patient
B) Confusing patient
C) Angry patient
D) Patient with altered cognition
E) The patient with a language barrier
Which from the following statements is not correct about muscle bulk?
A) Corticospinal tract injury can cause mild atrophy.
B) Atrophy of muscles results from PNS disorders
C) Pseudohypertrophy means increased bulk with diminished strength
D) Hypertrophy is an increase in bulk with normal or increased strength
E) Atrophy of muscles results from the upper motor neuron lesion
A neurologic examination pertaining to the sensations of body movements and awareness of posture is
A) Babinski reflex
B) Deep tendon reflexes
C) Cranial nerve assessment
D) Cutaneous reflexes
E) Proprioception
The positive Brudzinski sign is
A) Flexion of both the hips and knees while checking the nuchal rigidity
B) Pain and increased resistance to extending the knee
C) Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion
D) Extending the knee while checking the nuchal rigidity
Which of the following is correct about liver spans?
A) 4-8cm in right midclavicular line
B) 6-12cm in right anterior axillar line
C) 6-12cm in midsternal line
D) 6-12cm in right midclavicular line
E) 4-8cm in right midaxillar line
From the listed below choose indications for mental health screening:
A) Heavy smoking
B) Drug abuse
C) Frequent use of health care services
D) Symptoms existing 3-5 weeks
E) Medically unexplained physical symptoms
A 30-year-old woman presents for routine check-up. She has no complaints and denies previous medical problems. On heart examination, the patient has a loud S1. She has a grade 2 low-pitched mid-to-late diastolic murmur that is best heard at the apex. Immediately preceding the murmur is a loud extra sound. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Aortic insufficiency
C) Ventricular septal defect
D) Mitral valve prolapse
E) Atrial septal defect
All is true about visceral pain except:
A) It is not precisely localised
B) The patient prefers to lie still
C) It is steady
D) It can be associated with nausea
E) It is aggravated by coughing
F) The quality may vary
You have a patient who complains about diplopia, which is present with one eye covered. What can be a reason of the following problem?
A) Acute open angled glaucoma
B) A problem in the cornea or lens
C) Disorder of CN III
D) Disorder of CN IV
E) A lesion of the brainstem
Which of the following are not general concerning symptoms?
A) Heart burn
B) Nausea
C) Fatigue
D) Pain
E) Loss of appetite
F) Weight loss
Which of the following diagnoses is not common or concerning symptoms of respiratory disease?
A) Orthopnea
B) Chest pain
C) Epistaxis
D) Haemoptysis
E) Haematemesis
F) Dyspnea
Stress incontinence is caused by:
A) Neurologic disorders
B) Impaired cognition, musculoskeletal problems, or immobility
C) Uncontrolled detrusor contractions that overcome urethral resistance
D) Increased abdominal pressure causing bladder pressure to exceed urethral resistance
E) Anatomic obstruction from pelvic organs or the prostate
Which of the following statements is correct about weakness?
A) Distal weakness is in the shoulder or hip girdle
B) Weakness is an objective sign, can be graded, it results from myopathies or neuropathies
C) Asymmetric weakness is in the same area on both sides of the body
D) Sudden onset of lower extremity weakness suggests Guillain bare syndrome
E) Proximal limb weakness, when symmetric with intact sensation occurs in myopathies from alcohol
Which of the following is correct about the timing of Murmurs?
A) A late systolic murmur usually begins after S1 and stops before S2
B) Midsystolic Murmurs typically arise from blood flow across the mitral valves
C) Pansystolic Murmurs often occurs with regurgitant flow across the atrioventricular valves
D) A continues Murmurs the same as crescendo murmur
Which of the following is correct about primary lesions of skin?
A) Patches are raised more than 1 cm
B) Macules are flat more than 1 cm (<1 cm)
C) Plaques are raised without fluid more than 1 cm
D) Vesicles are raised, fluid filled, <1 cm
E) Papules are flat more than 1 cm
Which of the following is correct about lung auscultation?
A) If bronchial breath sounds are heard in locations distant from manubrium, it suggests consolidated lung tissue
B) Egophony may present in lobar consolidation from pneumonia
C) Rhonchi are continuous relatively low-pitched sound with snoring quality
D) Faint, soft, clearer whispered sounds called pectoriloquy
E) Fine crackles are musical, soft with low pitch
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Anorexia always associated with nausea and vomiting
B) Dysphagia is a painful swallowing
C) Acute diarrhea lasts up to four weeks
D) Haemoptysis is vomiting with blood
E) Melena appears as little as 100ml of blood from upper gastrointestinal bleeding
Which one from the following is true about jaundice?
A) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia occurs from primary biliary cirrhosis
B) Pancreatic, cholangio-, or duodenal carcinoma may lead to extrahepatic jaundice
C) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia occurs from hemolytic anemia
D) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia occurs from increased production of bilirubin
E) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia occurs from Gilbert syndrome
Which of the following statements is not true about abdominal pain?
A) Parietal pain originates from inflammation of the parietal peritoneum
B) Parietal pain varies in quality, when it is intensive sweating, pallor, nausea, vomiting may accompany it
C) Periumbilical pain may present from the small intestine, appendix, or proximal colon
D) Pain of duodenal or pancreatic origin may be referred to the right scapular region or the right posterior thorax
E) Pain from the inferior wall myocardial infarction may be referred to the epigastrium
The positive Kernig’s sign is
A) Pain and increased resistance to extending the knee
B) Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion
C) Flexion of both the hips and knees while checking the nuchal rigidity
D) Extending the knee while checking the nuchal rigidity
Which from the listed below cannot be a cause of binocular diplopia?
A) Astigmatism
B) Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
C) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) CN III, IV, and VI neuropathy
Which of the following is causes systolic murmurs?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Mitral regurgitation
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Pulmonary regurgitation
E) Tricuspid stenosis
F) Aortic insufficiency
The causes of weight loss include the following list, except:
A) Malignancy
B) Tricyclic antidepressants
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Anticonvulsants
E) GI diseases
F) Anorexia nervosa
A 30-year-old woman with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with a three-week history of hand numbness that often awakens if she shakes her hands for a few minutes. On physical examination, there is no sensory or motor deficit of her hands but …. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Cervical radiculopathy
B) Thoracic outlet syndrome
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Dupuytren’s contracture
The blood pressure difference of more than 10 to 15 mmHg during measurement in both arms can be associated with the following except:
A) Arterial hypertension from renal disease
B) Subclavian steal syndrome
C) Aortic dissection
D) Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Patient complains about persisting abdominal pain, “food fear,” and weight loss. Which from the following cannot be the reason for the
A) Bowel volvulus
B) Arterial thrombosis
C) Venous thrombosis
D) Mesenteric ischemia from arterial embolism
E) Chronic constipation
The recommended walking time for physical activity per week is:
A) There is no strict time recommendation for the physical activity
B) 100 minutes
C) 100 minutes
D) 150 minutes
E) 300 minutes
When considering a person’s past medical / surgical history which one of the following is an important consideration?
A) The accuracy of the diagnosis already provided
B) How the individual has been treated for the condition
C) If the diagnosis has been made by a health professional
D) All of the above are important considerations in this context
33 year old male, has chronic low back pain, no structural changes are found on MRI. Pain distribution is not corresponding to dermatomal distribution. Past medical history includes ankle fracture, followed by complex regional pain syndrome that has resolved, multiple general anaesthetics and a concussion. Now patient complains of “showers of fizzing” in arms and legs with no particular aggravating / easing factors. Patient admits that he develops extreme levels of pain with any acute injury. He works full time in a manufacturing plant. Very fatigued by the end of the day, though his job is not physically exhausting, he has sleep disturbances, because as he says: “my brain can’t calm down.” NSAID medication does not help. He maintains active lifestyle, regularly exercises at a local gym and self-reports as being competitive. He has attended pain clinics in the past. Which type of the pain does the patient have?
A) Idiopathic pain
B) Nociceptive pain
C) Psychogenic pain
D) Central sensitization
E) Neuropathic pain
Lateral displacement of PMI towards the axillar line can be caused by the following, except:
A) Pregnancy
B) High left diaphragm
C) Ischemic heart disease
D) Cardiomyopathy
E) Heart failure
F) Mediastinal shift
Which one from the listed below are not part of the personal and social history?
A) Leisure activities
B) Screening tests
C) Sexual orientation and practices
D) Alternative healthcare practices
E) Childhood diseases
F) ADLs
Making the anthropometric assessment of patient you note the short stature of patient. Which from the following cannot lead to this?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Marfan syndrome
C) Hypopituitary dwarfism
D) Childhood renal failure
E) Achondroplastic dwarfism
In supine position PMI diameter can be:
A) 1.5-2.5 cm
B) 1-2 cm
C) 1-3 cm
D) 1-2.5 cm
E) 2-2.5 cm
Which of the following situations warrant a comprehensive assessment of the patient?
A) Patient with pain in the right low quadrant of the abdomen
B) Patient who has complains related to a specific body system
C) Patient coming 2 weeks after prescribed treatment
D) Patient admitted with chest pain
E) Patient who visits general practitioner the first time
Which of the following is true about weakness?
A) It refers to a sense of weariness or loss of energy
B) Weakness is different from fatigue
C) Weakness suggests possible neuropathy or myopathy
D) Weakness denotes a demonstratable loss of muscle power
E) Weakness and fatigue are the same
Pulse that varies with respirations, found during asthma, pulmonary obstructive disease, cardiac tamponade is:
A) Pulsus alternanse
B) Irregularly irregular pulse
C) Large bounding pulse
D) Paradoxical pulse
E) Regularly irregular pulse
Which one of the following needs to be specifically asked about and standardized when enquiring about a person’s social history?
A) Use of prescribed medicines
B) Any factors which may indicate low mood
C) Alcohol intake
D) Sexual history
E) Health of parents
F) Health of siblings
On the auscultation of the patient, you find a murmur, which has a following description. Location at the apex, harsh, radiation to the left axilla, pitch medium, holosystolic, better heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope, on inspiration murmur does not become louder. Additionally, S3 auscultated. Which of the following condition may lead to such a murmur?
A) Mitral regurgitation
B) Mitral stenosis
C) Tricuspid regurgitation
D) Tricuspid stenosis
Which one from the listed below do require ambulatory 24-hours blood pressure monitoring?
A) All of them require 24 hours BP monitoring
B) Nocturnal fall of <10% of daytime value
C) White coat hypertension
D) Nocturnal fall of >20% of daytime values
E) Masked hypertension
Which of the following is true about heart murmurs?
A) Heart murmurs are attributed to the vibrations of ventricular walls
B) Heart murmurs always caused by valvular diseases
C) Heart murmurs derive from the non-simultaneous closure of semilunar valves
D) Heart murmurs are attributed to the turbulent blood flow
Which of the following cannot be caused by overweight and obesity?
A) Cardiovascular diseases
B) Arthritis
C) Diabetes T2
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Cerebrovascular diseases
A 76-year-old woman has deviation of her tongue to the left. Which of the following lesions of cranial nerve is the most likely cause for these findings?
A) Left vagus nerve lesion
B) Right hypoglossal nerve lesion
C) Right glossopharyngeal nerve lesion
D) Right vagus nerve lesion
E) Left hypoglossal nerve lesion (CN XII)
F) Left glossopharyngeal nerve lesion
During the skin inspection you find a primary lesion which is raised. >1 cm, and fluid filled. Which one from the following is corresponding lesion?
A) Papule
B) Macule
C) Vesicle (<1 cm)
D) Bulla
E) Plaque
Dullness identified by the percussion of lungs may not be caused by
A) Atelectasis
B) COPD
C) Consolidation
D) Pleural effusion
E) Pneumothorax
In terms of history taking which one of the following best describes the role of the social history?
A) To identify if the person takes part in any illegal practices
B) To provide an assessment of a person’s mental state
C) To identify risk factors for specific disease processes which may need further investigation
D) To provide an assessment of a person’s mood disorders
E) To assess the type of person that you are dealing with
A 60-year-old man with a history of appendectomy 30 years ago presents to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. He describes the pain as colicky and crampy and feels it builds up, then it improves on its own. He has vomited at least 10 times since the pain started this morning. He states that he has not had a bowel movement for two days and cannot recall the last time he passed flatus. The abdomen is slightly distended. Abdominal auscultation reveals high-pitched bowel sounds and peristaltic rushes. Percussion reveals a tympanic abdomen. The patient is diffusely tender with palpation but has no rebound tenderness. Rectal examination reveals the absence of stool. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Diverticulitis
B) Pancreatitis
C) Intestinal obstruction
D) Gastroenteritis
From the listed below choose the symptom/sign that is not warning in peripheral arterial disease
A) Nonhealing wounds
B) First-degree relatives with an AAA
C) Erectile dysfunction
D) ABI >0.9 (Normal)
E) Food fear and weight loss
36 year old male presents with proximal asymmetric weakness that gets worse with effort (fatigability), with associated diplopia, ptosis, dysarthria and dysphagia. Past medical history is nonremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Diabetes
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Myopathies from alcohol
D) Myositis and dermatomyositis
Pain with walking or prolonged standing radiating from the spinal area into the buttocks, legs and feet suggests
A) Claudication from the superficial venous insufficiency
B) Claudication from thrombophlebitis
C) Neurogenic claudication
D) Intermittent claudication
Pain from the biliary tree may be referred to the
A) To the right clavicle
B) To the epigastric area
C) To the back
D) Between the scapulas
E) Right shoulder or to the right posterior chest.
From patient history you identify he has anhedonia. This means:
A) Patient feels little interest or pleasure in doing things
B) Patient has social phobia
C) Patient has episodically panic attacks
D) Patient fells down, depressed
E) Patient fells anxious, on edge
Movement of the auricle up and down, pressing of tragus is painful in
A) Chronic otitis media
B) Perforation of tympanic membrane
C) Acute otitis externa
D) Acute otitis media
You are called to evaluate a 57-year-old man with pressure-like chest pain that occurred while he was shovelling snow. The pain radiates to the jaw and medial aspect of the left arm. The patient denies dizziness, nausea, vomiting, or palpitations. He has a past medical history of hypertension and he smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. He has a brother who had a myocardial infarction that required balloon angioplasty when he was is his forties. On physical examination the patient appears pale and diaphoretic. Blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg and pulse is 108 beats per minute. His extremities are cool. Heart examination reveals an S4 gallop. Lungs are normal. Peripheral pulses are palpable and bilaterally equal. He has no peripheral edema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute myocardial infarction
B) Right ventricular infarction
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Cardiogenic shock
E) Prinzmetal’s angina
A 16-year-old girl, the star on her high-school basketball team, sustains a knee injury after pivoting on her right knee during a game. She collapses to the floor in severe pain and immediately taken to the hospital. She arrives at the emergency department approximately 45 minutes after the injury, and her right knee is already very swollen. Laxity is noted with the anterior drawer test and Lachman test. What structures could be involved?
A) Medial collateral ligament and medical meniscus
B) Posterior cruciate ligament
C) Lateral collateral ligament and lateral meniscus
D) Anterior cruciate ligament. Posterior cruciate ligament, Medial meniscus
Abduction (or valgus) stress test produces pain in the knee during patient’s examination, what is caused by
A) Partial tear of the lateral collateral ligament (Varus – Adduction)
B) Partial tear of medial meniscus
C) Partial tear of the lateral meniscus
D) Partial tear of the medial collateral ligament
A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department with acute onset of severe right-sided flank pain. The pain radiates down into the groin and testicle and is associated with hematuria, urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. On examination, the patient is in acute distress. The patient has a low-grade fever at a temperature of 37.2ᴼC, Pulse is 96 beats per minute, Respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. He has significant right costovertebral angle tenderness. The rest of the examination is normal. There is 2+ blood on the urine dipstick test, no casts are seen on microscopic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Acute pyelonephritis (Need to have fever & chills)
B) Atypical appendicitis
C) Renal colic
D) None of the above
E) Acute pyelitis
45 year old patient with history of COPD presents to the clinic with suspected pneumonia. He is struggling, talking in sentences. Clinical findings support right-sided pneumonia. On physical examination would probably show:
A) Resonance on percussion and decreased tactile fremitus
B) Bronchovesicular sound on auscultation and increased tactile fremitus
C) Dullness of percussion and decreased tactile fremitus
D) Inspiratory wheezes and resonance on percussion
E) Dullness on percussion and increased tactile fremitus
Which of them is not risk factor for melanoma?
A) Male gender
B) Age over 50
C) History of previous melanoma
D) Age over 40
E) Mole changing
Soft and low-pitched breath sounds normally heard over most of both lungs through inspiration and without pause expiration are
A) Tracheal
B) Vesicular
C) Bronchovesicular
D) Bronchial
Which of the following does not require mental health screening?
A) Back pain continuing 4 weeks
B) Difficult encounter
C) Substance abuse
D) Chronic pain
E) High symptom count
A 29-year-old woman comes to your office with a 1-day history of nausea, mild vomiting, and vague central abdominal pain. The pain has begun to move down and to the right. She also describes mild dysuria. Anorexia began 24 hours ago, and the patient has “felt warm.” Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Her health has been excellent. She has no drug allergies and is not taking any medications. On physical examination, she appears ill. Her temperature is 38.1ᴼC. She has tenderness in both the right lower quadrant and left lower quadrant, but tenderness is the greatest in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is present. The rectal examination discloses tenderness on the right side. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness.
A) Acute cholecystitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Ovarian torsion
D) Acute pyelonephritis
E) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Which of the following maneuvers of examining the shoulder is pain provocation test for rotator cuff disorder?
A) Neer impingement test
B) All of the above
C) Apley scratch test
D) Hawkings test
E) Painful arc test
F) Only drop-arm test and painful arc test
G) Drop-arm test
An 80-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of pain accompanied by a short period of morning stiffness. She also notices mild pain in her lower back, hips, and knees. On examination, the patient is obese. She has significant swelling in both the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints and the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. There is also deformity of both knees on examination. The rest of her examination is normal. Which of the following statements regarding this patient’s condition is true? O
A) The swelling present at the PIP joints may represent Herberden nodes
B) This patient will most likely have a normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C) This patient will most likely have a positive rheumatoid factor
D) The swelling present at he DIP joints may represent Bouchard nodes
The Rinne test indicates equal of better bone conduction in which of the following?
A) Labyrinthine disorders
B) Conductive hearing loss
C) None of the above
D) Sensorineural hearing loss
You are asking patient about his/her full name, date and place of birth and the place of their being at the moment. You are assessing
A) Short term memory
B) Confusion
C) Awareness
D) Long term memory
E) Orientation
By the following description, grade the heart murmur: loud with palpable thrill. Cannot be heard when stethoscope is partly off the chest:
A) Grade 2
B) Grade 5
C) Grade 3
D) Grade 4
E) Grade 1
F) Grade 6
Which of the following is correct about cranial nerve examination?
A) Anisocoria or a difference of more than 0.4 cm in the diameter of one pupil compared to the other is seen of healthy individuals
B) Flattening of the nasolabial fold and drooping of the lower eyelid suggest trigeminal nerve injury
C) Patients will complain of partial loss of vision and testing of both eyes reveals a visual field defect an abnormality in peripheral vision as homonymous hemianopsia
D) Binocular diplopia occurs in CN II neuropathy
A 57-year-old man comes to the ED with “a headache like I’ve never had before.” He is brought to the ED by his wife. The patient had been completely well, healthy, and active before this episode (which began last night). Nausea and vomiting began soon after the headache onset. The patient and his family report no history of trauma. There is no family history of migraine or cluster headache. On examination, there us significant neck stiffness. The patient is unable to move his neck without extreme pain. At this time, with the information you have to this point, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute subdural hematoma
B) Glioblastoma multiforme
C) Cluster headache
D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
71 year old male during his office visit complains about pain in his legs during rest and very soon upon any physical activity. He smokes 1 package per day. On inspection legs look pale, there is obvious hair loss on the anterior surface of the tibias. In order to screen the peripheral artery disease there is necessary to conduct
A) Ultrasound of abdominal aorta
B) Ankle-Brachial Index
C) Measure blood pressure in both arms
D) Measure pulse on radial and femoral arteries simultaneously
Which of the following are associated with upper motor neuron lesions?
A) Fasciculations
B) Absent cutaneous reflex
C) Muscle flaccidity and hyporeflexia
D) Muscle spasticity and hyperreflexia
A thin 35-year-old woman presents with a two-day history of cough. She complains of some mild dyspnea and chest pain. On physical examination, her temperature is 38.5ᴼC (101.4ᴼF) and respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute. Her blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg and her heart rate is 125 beats per minute. Examination of the lungs reveals increased fremitus and bronchial breath sounds at the right base. There are no crackles, egophony, or pectoriloquy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Right lower lobe pneumonia
B) Right lower lobe atelectasis
C) Right lower lobe pneumothorax
D) Right lower lobe emphysema
E) Right-sided pleural effusion
A man is stabbed and arrives at the emergency room within 30 minutes. You notice that the trachea is deviated away from the side of the chest with the puncture. The most likely lung finding on physical examination of the traumatized side is which of the following?
A) Increased breath sounds
B) Hyperresonant percussion
C) Stridor
D) Wheezing
E) Increased fremitus
F) Dullness to percussion
Which of the following cannot be heard with the diaphragm of stethoscope?
A) S1
B) S2
C) Murmur of mitral regurgitation
D) Mitral stenosis
E) Murmur of aortic regurgitation
Which of the following is not a peritoneal sign?
A) Voluntary guarding
B) Rigidity of the abdomen
C) Rebound tenderness
D) Involuntary guarding
30 years old male presents to the clinic with right side flank pain, nausea, dysuria and fever. Which of the following is appropriate to treat
A) CVA tenderness
B) Murphy’s sign
C) Rovsings sign
D) Obtuatory sign
A 23-year-old medical student presents with the chief complaint of palpitations while playing basketball. The episode lasted 15 minutes. He denies dizziness, syncope, chest pain, and shortness of breath. He admits to a sedentary lifestyle but tries to eat three quality meals per day. He is adopted, and a family history of heart disease is unknown. Physical examination is remarkable for a reverse pulsus paradoxus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Right ventricular failure
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic regurgitation
D) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
E) Atrial septal defect
What causes S4 sound?
A) Passive filling into compliant left ventricle causing sudden tensing of chordae tendinae
B) Passive filling into non-compliant left ventricle
C) Active filling into non-compliant left ventricle
D) Active filling into compliant left ventricle causing tensing of chordae tendinae
Which of the following is not a component of the cerebellar examination?
A) Gait
B) Muscle strength
C) Fine coordination
D) Tandem walking
Which of the following cannot be in patient with increased JVP?
A) Tricuspid stenosis
B) Right-sided heart failure
C) Superior vena cava obstruction
D) Mitral stenosis
Examiners hand is placed on the patient’s right anterior thigh and the patient is asked to raise his/her right leg against the examiner’s hand. This test is called
A) Rovsing sign
B) Obturatory sign
C) Rebound tenderness
D) Psoas sign
A 45-year-old woman presents with a three-day history of cough. She complains of some mild dyspnea and chest pain. On physical examination, her temperature is 38.8ᴼC and her respiratory rate is 29 breaths per minute. Her blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg and her heart rate is 125 beats per minute. Examination of the lungs reveals increased fremitus and bronchial breath sounds at the right base. There are no crackles, egophony, or pectoriloquy in the area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Right lower lobe pneumonia
B) Right lower lobe pneumothorax
C) Right-sided pleural effusion
D) Right lower lode emphysema
Epigastric pain without radiation, with heartburn, sometimes regurgitation, especially after spicy food, that worsens when lies down, more probably is
A) Chronic pancreatitis
B) Angina
C) Manifesting gastric ulcer
D) Peptic ulcer
E) GERD
A 44-year-old man presents with facial asymmetry. On physical examination, touching the cornea of either eye with a cotton swab results in blinking of only the left eye. The patient states that he feels the cotton swab touch in both eyes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Right trigeminal palsy
B) Left oculomotor nerve palsy
C) Left trigeminal palsy
D) Right facial nerve palsy
E) Left facial nerve palsy
A 34-year-old nursing student is referred to your office because of the onset of a recent cough productive of dark-colored sputum. She is febrile but does not appear ill. She has been able to continue working with her symptoms. Examinations of the posterior thorax is normal, but there is dullness at the anterior right hemithorax below the fifth rib and on midaxillary line. Crackles, as well as localized pectoriloquy, are audible over the same area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Right lower lobe atelectasis
B) Right middle lobe pneumonia
C) Right upper lobe pneumonia
D) Left lower lobe pneumonia
You are performing a thorough cardiac examination. Which of the following chambers of the heart can you assess by palpation
A) Right ventricle
B) Left atrium
C) Right atrium
D) Sinus node
Which of the following is correct about transmitted voice sounds?
A) Fine crackles are soft, low pitch and very brief
B) Egophony may present in lobar consolidation from pneumonia
C) Increased transmission of voice sounds suggests that air filled lung has become airfull
D) Lower, soft, clearer whispered sounds called pectoriloquy
When assessing cranial nerves IX and X, which of the following would the doctor consider as a normal finding?
A) Deviation of uvula when client says ‘hai’
B) Stationary soft palate of phonation
C) Asymmetric soft palate
D) Uvula and soft plate rising bilaterally
A Weber teat that lateralizes to the deaf ear with a Rinne test that is negative detects which kind of hearing loss?
A) Electrical
B) Semantic
C) Conductive
D) Sensorineural
E) Hysterical
To distinguish voluntary guarding from involuntary muscular spasm we ask the patient to relax, to exhale, to mouth-breathe with the jaw dropped …..maneuvers:
A) Voluntary guarding usually does not change
B) Voluntary guarding usually decreases
C) Voluntary guarding usually increases
Which from the following is not true about Babinski reflex?
A) Dorsiflexion of the bog toe is a positive response from the CNS
B) Positive Babinski response indicates lesion in the corticospinal tract
C) Examiner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot towardshe big toe
D) Positive Babinski response indicates lesion in the lower motor neuron
E) Positive Babinski is seen in unconscious states from drug or alcohol intoxication
Which of the following describes is not common or concerning symptoms of Respiratory disease?
A) Dyspnea
B) Hematemesis
C) Hemoptysis
D) Cough
E) Orthopnea
Which of the following is true about lymph nodes examination?
A) Tender nodes suggest malignancy
B) Enlargement of a supraclavicular node. Especially on the left, suggests possible metastatis from neck region
C) Fixed to underlying structures and not movable on palpation nodes suggest malignancy
D) Submental node is palpable in the midline a few centimeters behind the tip of the mandible and it represents external lymphatic drainage
You are assessing a patient with joint pain and are trying to decide whether it is inflammatory or noninflammatory in nature. Which one of the following symptoms are consistent with an inflammatory process
A) Ecchymosis
B) Cool temperature
C) Tenderness
D) Nodules
Labored breathing manifestations include (Select all that apply)
A) Barely audible
B) Accessory muscles are recruited
C) Quiet/Easy
D) Specific pose of body
An 80-year-old woman who was healthy and active until the last 2-3 years presented for evaluation and treatment when she developed severe back pain that exacerbated with walking, bending, or lifting. She has a stooped posture that appears to have worsened over the last several months based on reports from family members. A magnetic resonance imaging scan of her spine reveals 80% loss of height of the bodies of the T7 and T8 vertebrae. She was diagnosed to have a compression fracture. What type of pain does patient have?
A) Neurogenic pain
B) Visceral pain
C) Central sensitization pain
D) Referred pain
E) Nociceptive pain
Which of the following is not characteristic for the ascetic fluid in abdomen?
A) Abdomen has a protuberant contour
B) Produces a hyper-resonant note on percussion
C) Produces a dullness
D) In supine position fluid accumulates in flanks
You palpate anatomical snuff box what elicit the tenderness. Patient might have
A) De Quervain's tenosynovitis
B) Gonococcal tenosynovitis
C) Scaphoid bone fracture
D) Osteoarthritis
E) All of the above
Intermittent claudication means
A) Cramping in the legs after long term standing and radiating to buttocks
B) Cramping in the legs upon standing up
C) Cramping in the legs during exertion
D) Cramping in the legs when they are elevated
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Early guarding is a voluntary process
B) Rigidity is an involuntary response of muscle suggesting peritoneal inflammation
C) Rigidity decreases with relaxing methods
D) Guarding presents only in case of appendicitis
Which of the following are the signs of peritonitis?
A) Rebound tenderness
B) Percussion tenderness
C) Positive cough reflex
D) Rigidity
E) All of the above
A 38 year old white woman, she presents to the physician experiencing intermittent low back and right sided hip joint pain with difficulty bending over when picking up her kids or cleaning around the house. Patient notes the pain began about six months ago without injury and comes and goes without any obvious trigger, although the pain seems to be worse when she gets up in the morning. She says she needs about 30-40 min to "unlock" her joints, On the examination physician notes pitted nails. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Psoriatic arthritis
C) Reiter’s syndrome
D) Systemic lupus erythematous
Positive Tinel's sign helps in diagnostics of
A) Wrist joint arthritis
B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Test is not relevant to any of the above listed
51-year-old woman employed as an administrator was present with chief complain in the right groin area, radiating into the right anterior thigh and sometimes knee. She also complained of right posterior low back pain. The pain was of a variable, intermittent-type ache, aggravated by walking and eased by rest in the supine position. During the day, the patient's job involved standing, walking, and sitting. As the day progressed, the patient's symptoms worsened. The patient reported sleeping well. There were no complaints of paranesthesia’s or anesthesia’s. The patient denied any neurological symptoms related to cauda equina or spinal cord involvement. On observation, the patient walked with Trendelenburg gait. Inspection revealed a slight shift in the lumbar spine toward the left. There appeared to be a flattening of the right gluteal musculature. Objectively, strength of musculus gluteus minimus and medius both graded 4. On palpation of the pelvic levels in standing, the right posterior inferior iliac spine was lower than the left. The right anterior superior iliac spine was higher than the left and the pelvis appeared to be in a right posterior ilial rotation. The levels of the greater trochanters, gluteal folds, and posterior knee creases appeared symmetrical. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Chronic back pain
B) Right sided disc herniation
C) Right knee joint osteoarthritis
D) Right hip joint osteoarthritis
You are having a patient male, 50 years old, with history of diabetes type 2, smoking 10 cigarettes per day. He says that 4-5 days per week he intensively exercises in gym. Which of the above listed parameters is not a risk factor for peripheral artery disease?
A) High physical activity levels for his age
B) Diabetes
C) Smoking
D) Age of 50
E) Gender
Which of the following are the risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurism?
A) Hyperglycosemia
B) Aortic diameter more than 2 cm
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Age more than 65 years
E) Hypertension
F) Coronary artery disease
A 74-year-old retired man, with history of smoking one pack within 40 years and hypertension, overweight, consulted a doctor of chiropractic for chronic low back pain. The history and physical examination confirmed chronic sacroiliac and a lumbar facet dysfunction. After 5 weeks, the patient stated he had stomach cramps. Physical examination revealed pulsatile mass in the abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Ruptured viscus
B) Mesenteric ischemia
C) Aorta aneurism
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Intestinal obstruction
Heberden's nodes are inspected in which of the following joints
A) DIP joint
B) PIP joint
C) MCP joint
D) Radiocarpal joint
47-year-old male construction foreman who has noticed worsening medial and posterior knee pain, joint stiffness, weakness, and the feeling of instability in his right knee over the last 10 days beginning after playing in a soccer game. The patient has not seen a physician regarding the pain until 1 day ago, On the examination he expresses that the worse pain (8/10) is felt during squatting motions, getting up from a chair, ambulating, and descending stairs. ROM was limited and presented decreased strength of muscles. There were signs of Inflammation in the Joint line and moderate swelling in the medial joint line. The patient also claims a locking sensation during deeper flexion. MCL stress testing has not reveal laxity and/or pain. McMurray test revealed tenderness in the medial joint line. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Medial meniscus tear
B) Medial collateral Ligament tear
C) Knee osteoarthritis
D) Anterior crucial ligament tear
63 year old female complains of shoulder pain and limited ROM due to it. Assessing patient, you ask her to scratch her neck and touch the opposite shoulder. She shows difficulties producing this motion. Patient might have joint
A) Rotator cuff disorder
B) Adhesive capsulitis
C) Anterior dislocation of the shoulder
D) Acromioclavicular joint arthritis
E) Biceps tendinitis
Unequal heights of the iliac crests, or pelvic tilt, can be produced from the following, except
A) Herniated lumbar disc
B) Unequal lengths of the legs
C) Scoliosis
D) Hip abduction
22-year-old female presents to hospital with lower abdominal pain, fever 38.2 C, nausea, urinary frequency and urgency. She said first symptoms appeared one week ago with pressure like discomfort in the suprapubic area and burning sensation during urination. On the examination costovertebral angle tenderness is present. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Chronic pyelonephritis
C) Urethritis
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
A 22-year-old male presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, and feverish. Pain started in the mid-abdominal region 6 hours ago and is now in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. The pain was steady in nature and aggravated by crouching, Physical examination reveals fever 38°C: HR 100 b/min. RR 20, BP 110/70, Spo2 98 on room air. Pain on palpation at right lower quadrant, rebound tenderness, positive Rovsing's sign. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Crohn’s disease
B) Referred pain from acute cholecystitis
C) Acute appendicitis
D) Acute diverticulitis
Which of the listed below statements is not true about dorsalis pedis pulse?
A) Dorsalis pedis pulse is felt medial to the extensor tendon of the great toe
B) Dorsalis pedis pulse is felt lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe
C) Dorsalis pedis artery may be congenitally absent
D) Dorsalis pedis pulse can be felt more laterally if it branches higher in the ankle
57-year-old man who reports to the clinic complaining of frequent cramping pain in his left leg induced by walking, Because of this he cannot accomplish his dally walking plan. On his visit to a physician, resting ankle-brachial index (ABI) test was performed and showed result <0.90. Patient has a past medical history of hypertension, which is well managed. He does not take any other prescription medications. Smokes 1 pack per day. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Left knee arthritis
C) Peripheral arterial disease
B) Chronic compartment syndrome
D) Muscle strain
Tenderness and spasm of paravertebral muscles can be caused by
A) Prolonged contraction from abnormal posture
B) Depression
C) Scoliosis
D) Herniated disc
E) All of the above
To examine the patient's abdomen the requirements are following
A) Full bladder
B) Warm stethoscope and cold hands
C) Empty bladder
D) Warm stethoscope and warm hands
E) Patient’s arms being at the sides or folded across the chest
Decreased strength during hand grip tests helps to identify which of the following?
A) Weakness of the finger flexors
B) Weakness of intrinsic muscles of the hand
C) From pain of degradation of degenerative joint changes
D) All of the above
You are having a female patient who presents with jaundice, telangiectasia, dilated veins on the abdominal wall and palmar erythema. What could be the possible disorder?
A) Pregnancy
B) Lymphoma
C) B12 anemia
D) Iron deficient anemia
E) Liver disease
A 55-year-old man presents because of chest pain, breathlessness, and headache. This patient had uncontrolled systemic arterial hypertension for 15 years and had been treated with B-blockers, diuretic and angiotensin receptor-blocker and calcium channel blockers. Despite this therapy, on physical examination, his blood pressure was 185/120 mm Hg with no difference between the two arms and leg. He had no history of diabetes, but he is a smoker. The most likely diagnosis is
A) Essential hypertension
B) Renal artery stenosis
C) Coarctation of aorta
D) Renal artery dissection
Dullness replaces resonance when:
A) Asthma
B) Fluid or solid tissue replaces air containing lung or occupies the pleural space beneath your percussing fingers.
C) Air containing lung replaces fluid or solid tissue
D) Healthy lung
Physical examination of the patient is the part of the:
A) Subjective examination
B) Objective examination
We know that the nurse knows the right time to do a physical assessment when she says:
A) I will do it as soon as possible
B) I think the next shift will have to do it
C) After I give the medication
D) Maybe later, when I am done with others
For most elective (nonemergency) cases the correct sequence of patient management is:
A) History, physical examination, lab, treatment & follow up
B) History
C) Treatment & Follow-Up
D) Laboratory & instrumental examination
E) Physical examination
The echocardiogram of a 22-year-old woman reveals mitral valve prolapse. Which of the following is the most common physical finding in this condition?
A) Diastolic click
B) Absent first heart sound
C) Late systolic murmur
D) Diastolic rumble
E) Aortic regurgitation
Melena or melaena means:
A) Black stools
B) Nasal bleeding
C) Bloody urine
D) Bloody vomitus
Screening is one of the following:
A) Test Before Surgery
B) Test to detect a potential health problem or disease in someone that doesn't yet have signs
C) Test after Surgery
D) Test for deadly infectious disease
A 20-year-old basketball player is seen for evaluation prior to beginning another season of competitive sports. A harsh systolic murmur of HOCM is heard at the left lower sternal border. Which of the following maneuvers will enhance this murmur if
A) Leaning forward while sitting
B) Squatting
C) Lying left side down
D) Valsalva maneuver
E) Hand grip
All of the following findings would suggest a diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except:
A) Fixed split S2
B) Paradoxically split S2
C) Bifid pulse
D) S4
E) ''Triple ripple'' apical impulse
A 24-year-old man is referred to cardiology after an episode of syncope while playing basketball. He has no recollection of the event, but he was told that he collapsed while running. He awakened lying on the ground and suffered multiple contusions as a result of the fall. He has always been an active individual but recently has developed some chest pain with exertion that has caused him to restrict his activity. His father died at age 44 while rock climbing. He believes his father's cause of death was sudden cardiac death and recalls being told his father had an enlarged heart. On examination, the patient has a III/VI mid systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. His electrocardiogram shows evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as the cause of the patient's heart disease. Which of the following maneuvers would be expected to cause an increase in the loudness of the murmur?
A) Valsalva maneuver
B) Handgrip exercise
C) Squatting
D) Standing
E) b & c
F) a & d
Which of the following valve disorders does produce a holosystolic murmur?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Incomplete aortic valve
C) Pulmonic stenosis
D) Mitral stenosis
E) Incomplete mitral valve
A patient with new-onset syncope has a blood pressure of 110/95 mm Hg and a harsh systolic ejection murmur at the base, radiating to both carotids. Auscultation of the second heart sound at the base might reveal which of the following findings?
A) It is normal in character
B) It is accentuated
C) It shows fixed splitting
D) It is diminished
E) It is widely split due to delayed ventricular ejection
A 59-year-old woman presents complaining of a cough productive of sputum for nearly 10 years. Her cough occurs during the day, and she produces sputum daily. The woman states that as a pneumonia requiring hospital admissions and antibiotics. Several times a year, her sputum becomes purulent and she requires antibiotic therapy. She denies smoking cigarettes and has worked physical examination, the lungs are clear without wheezes, rhonchi, or crackles. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Bronchiectasis
E) Cystic fibrosis
All of them can be a reason for vertigo, except:
A) Cerebral vascular disease
B) Meniere disease
C) Vestibular neuritis
D) Posterior fossa tumor
E) Labyrinthitis
F) Orthostatic hypotension
Which of the following is correct about chest inspection?
A) Symmetric expansion may occur in pleural effusion
B) Impaired respiratory movement on one side of chest may indicate phrenic nerve damage
C) Retraction occurs in lower airway obstruction
D) Retraction mostly apparent in the upper interspaces
Which of the following is correct about gastrointestinal disease symptoms?
A) Abdominal pain aggravated by meal, alcohol, aspirin like drugs and antacids
B) Dyspepsia defined as acute pain centered in the upper abdomen
C) Alarm symptoms may be bloating and belching
D) Odynophagia defined as a difficulty to swallow
E) Heartburn is a rising retrosternal burning pain or discomfort occurring weekly or more
Which of the following statement is correct?
A) Severe pain of rapid onset with swollen joint suggest crystalline arthritis
B) Inflammatory arthritis are more common in man
C) A severe pain of rapid onset in a red swollen joint suggests chronic septic arthritis
D) Pain in a single joint suggest oligoarticular arthritis
E) Limited only AROM suggests intraarticular cause of joint pain
Which of the following terms refers to difficulty breathing in supine position?
A. Dyspnea
B. Orthopnea
C. Dyspnea nocturia
What level should the examiner's thumbs be placed while assessing symmetric expansion?
A. T8 T9
B. T9 T10
C. T11-T12
Which of the following fremitus occurs with compression or consolidation of lung tissue like lobar pmeumonia
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Rhonchal
Ventilator Induced Lung Injury is caused by
A. Atelectrauma
B. Over-distention
C. Intra-thoracic pressure differences
D. All of the above
The left lung is made up of how many lobes?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
The first heart sound is due to
A. The closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves
B. The closing of the tricuspid and mitral valves
Baroreceptors are found where?
A. The subclavian artery
B. The carotid sinus
C. Jugular notch
What percentage of circulating blood volume needs to be lost to produce progressive shock?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%
Which are not acute coronary syndromes?
A. Unstable angina
B. NSTEMI
C. STEMI
D. Tachycardia
Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to blood pressure?
A. An immediate effect of exercise is to decrease blood pressure
B. There are three readings of blood pressure: Systemic, Systolic and Diastolic
C. Systolic blood pressure will be higher than Diastolic pressure whilst at rest
D. Diastolic blood pressure will be higher than Systolic blood pressure whilst at rest
Which of the following is not true about the abdominal cavity
A. Continuous inferiorly with the pelvic cavity
B. Lined with peritoneum
C. Enclosed by diaphragm at 4th intercostal space
D. None of the above
Which of the following regions would be located inferior to the Right lumbar region
A. Right hypochondriac
B. Left iliac
C. Hypogastric
D. Right iliac
Why do we use multiple angles of incidence?
A. To confirm if the fluid is simple
B. To know if the fluid is complex
C. To eliminate artifact
D. None of the above
If a patient has ascites, when happens when you roll the patient decubitus?
A. It stays
B. It drains into the lungs
C. It moves to dependent side
D. Both B & C
What is ascites?
A. Fluid in the brain
B. Fluid that resides above the diaphragm
C. Fluid that resides below the diaphragm
D. A solid malignant neoplasm
What can cause ascites
A. Cancer
B. Heart disease
C. Liver disease
D. All of the above
Where is the most common hernia location?
A. Inguinal
B. Umbillical
C. Femoral
D. Aorta
What is the tunica intima?
A. Outer layer of a vessel
B. Inner layer of a vessel
C. Inner layer of aorta
D. Middle layer of vessel
Uncontrolled hypertension is a symptom of what?
A. Memory loss
B. Cancer
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. None of the above
Where does the Spinal chord end?
L1/L2
L3/L4
L5/L6
White matter tracts are part of the PNS.
True
False
What does the Spinal Chord connect?
Spinal nerves
CNS and PNS
Brain and Body
The two functions of the nervous system are
Stimulate movement
Provide better cellular respiration
Maintain homeostatis
Cause atrial depolarization
Which of the following is/are type(s) of neurons?
Sensory
Motor
Interneurons
All of the above
The somatic system contains nerves that control ____
Skeletal muscles
Internal organs, joints, and glands
Skeletal muscles, skin, and glands
Smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and glands
How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have
4
12
16
21
31
Neurons often have many short dendrites and a long axon
True
False
The special sense organs include ________ .
Taste buds
Nose
Eye and ear
Semicircular canals
All of the above
The sense of knowing the position of the limbs is called ______.
Proprioception
Adaptation
Reflex
Isolation
Stasis
The testes lie within the _________
Urinary bladder
Erectile tissue
Scrotum
Prostate gland
Ejaculatory duct
Bones are held in place by muscles.
True
False
The axial skeleton lies in/at the ________
Top of the body, supporting the head
Extended limbs of the body
Midline of the body
Left and right side of the body
Skeletal muscles are attached to the skeleton, and they function to _____.
Support the body
Make bones move
Release heat to maintain body temperature
Protect internal organs
All of the above
The frontal, parietal and occipital are bones that form the ____________.
Pelvic girdle
Shoulder region
Hand
Skull
The jaw consists of the ___________.
Frontal and parietal bones
Mandible and maxillae
Palatine, zygomatic and nasal bones
Phalanges and carpals
________ is a term that refers to either fingers or toes.
Carpals
Tarsals
Clavicles
Digits
Deltoid tubercles
Skeletal muscles attach ______
At two origins
With the insertion of the muscle on the bone that moves
With the origin of the muscle on the bone that moves
At two insertion points
Because we need to both extend and flex at a joint, skeletal muscles generally work in ________.
Parallel contraction at the same time
A constant state of flexion
Antagonistic pairs
Cycles of forcible extension and forcible contraction
Which of these vessels contain the most valves?
Elastic arteries near the heart
Small arteries in the upper extremities
Venules in the feet
Medium veins in the arms
Medium veins in the legs
The artery that supplies blood to the structures of the neck and face is the
Axillary artery.
Brachial artery.
External carotid artery.
Internal carotid artery.
Basilar artery.
Which of these veins is a deep vein?
Basilic vein
Brachial vein
Cephalic vein
Median cubital vein
Great saphenous vein
In what part of the breast is milk stored before draining at the tip of the nipple?
Areola
Mammary alveoli
Lactiferous sinus
Mammary ducts
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