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ED-10 Exam 41

1. First line therapy for rate control in paroxysmal Atrial fibrillation is?
Propafenone.
Beta blockers.
Flicanide.
Amiodarine.
Dronedarone.
2. If Atrial fibrillation is present for more than 48 hours; it requires anticoagulation before DC cardioversion for a minimum duration of?
Days.
4 weeks.
1 week.
3 weeks.
4 months.
3. Complete heart block in a patient with infective endocarditis suggest?
Mitral valve abscess.
Pulmonic valve abscess.
Aortic root abscess.
Apical Myocarditis.
Tricuspid valve abscess.
4. What is the treatment for AVNRT with hemodynamic compromise?
DC cardioversion.
Carotid sinus massage.
Valsalva.
Adenosine.
Verapamil.
5. The Bundle of Kent in WPW does not lead to which of the following features?
A high risk of AF.
Wide QRS.
AVNRT.
A PR <120 ms.
Delta wave in QRS upstroke.
6. Which of the following drug is indicated in patients with WPW and Atrial fibrillation?
Bisoprolol.
Diltiazem.
Propafenone.
Adenosine.
Digoxin.
7. Symptomatic patients with ventricular premature beats should receive which drug?
Beta blockers.
Digoxin.
Amiodarone.
Adenosine.
Verapamil.
8. Which of the following features is not suggestive of VT?
Broad QRS complexes
Response to intravenous adenosine.
Extreme left axis deviation.
Capture beat.
Fusion beat.
9. Which of the following is false regarding Torsades de pointes?
Main risk factor is prolonged QT.
Sotalol and amiodarone are very effective treatment.
Treated with IV magnesium.
Hypomagnesemia is the commonest trigger.
Erythromycine is a recognized cause.
10. All of the following regarding Brugada syndrome are true, except?
Coved ST elevation in V1 and V2.
Occurs due to a defect in sodium channel function.
Presence of LBBB.
Presents with polymorphic VT.
Implantable defibrillator is the only treatment.
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