B757 Systems
The Engine anti-ice operation is dependent upon engine bleed switch position.
True
False
The windows are protected from thermal shock when the switches are initially placed on.
True
False
The Wing anti-ice operation is dependent upon engine bleed switch position.
True
False
What is used to compute engine thrust limit corrections for engine anti-ice?
Engine anti-ice valve position
Engine bleed air switch position
Engine anti-ice switch position
Wing anti-ice is on, what will be the Wing anti-ice valves do when the airplane lands?
Close.
Remain open until wing anti-ice is turned off.
Close only if an overheat condition exists.
If the left engine anti-ice switch is blank and its VALVE light on, what is the condition of the Left Engine Alti-ice Valve?
Signaled open, and not open.
Signaled closed, and not closed.
Signaled open, and is in transit.
You are flying over the south Atlantic through the intertropical convergence zone. SAT is -54°C. Is aircraft icing possible?
Airframe Icing: yes, engine icing: yes
Airframe Icing: no, engine icing: no
Airframe Icing: no, engine icing: yes
Airframe Icing: yes, engine icing: no
OAT I 4°C in Keflavík with light rain.
Engine anti ice must be on and a run up of 10 sec 60% N1 before takeoff must be accomplished.
Engine anti-ice must be on but a run up before takeoff is not required.
Engine anti-ice off and no run up.
What powers the normal brake system?
The R hydraulic system
The L hydraulic system
The C hydraulic system
The R and L hydraulic system
What powers the landing gear extension and retraction during normal operation?
The R hydraulic system
The L hydraulic system
The C hydraulic system
The R and L hydraulic system
What powers the landing gear down during alternate gear extension?
The R hydraulic system
The L hydraulic system
The C hydraulic system
Gravity
Aircraft on ground. The accumulator pressure is in the amber band. This means:
The hydraulic pressure in the accumulator is rather low.
No parkbrake is available
Nothing
Park brake is available but the accumulator should be serviced.
What does the message "BRAKE SOURCE" indicate?
The brakes are inop
Both the normal and the alternate brake system pressures are low.
The normal brake system pressure is low
The alternate brake system is low.
What is accomplished by pushing the "reverse brakse" switch?
It provides reserve hydraulic fluid to the right system electric pump. Pump pressure is then supplied exclusively to the normal brakes system.
The reserve brake system is activated.
Standpipe hydraulic fluid from the left system is used to power the alternate brake system.
Pushing the switch does not accomplish anything.
What message appears when the parkbrake valve does not open when the parkbrake is released?
"Brake valve"
"Parking brake valve"
"Antiskid"
No message
What is true regarding the autobrake system?
RTO provides the same braking poewr as Max AUTO
RTO provides the same braking power as Max Manual
Given that the airplane is above 85 kts GS, RTO commands maximum braking pressure.
Both B and C are correct
RTO initiated at 100 kts during T/O in KEF. Takeoff weight is 95.0T. Temperature is 0°C. Max manual braking with full reverse thrust. What is the brake cooling time?
In the caution zone so takeoff ha to be delayed.
In the fuse plug melt zone.
66 min
36 min
When will the AUTO BRAKES light be illuminated?
When the selector is in the DISARM position
When the selector is in the OFF position.
When the auto brakes system is operating.
When does the alternate brake system operate?
When right hydraulic pressure to normal brakes is low.
When the antiskid controller detects a fault in the normal brakes.
When the MAX AUTO setting is selected for autobrakes.
When will the landing gear lever lock release?
When the main gear tilts.
When the main and nose gear struts extends.
When the main gear struts are compressed.
What is the approximate center tank fuel capacity?
21.100kg
20.000kg
17.000kg
10.000kg
How much fuel can be stored in the Center fuel tank with less than full wing tanks?
800kg
900kg
1.000kg
1.100kg
When will the DC fuel boost pump start automatically?
When the APU is started with battery power only.
When the left forward boost pump switch is commanded off and the APU is running.
When the left aft boost pump switch is commanded off ant the APU is running.
The FUEL CONFIGURATION light illuminates when thee is more than 600kg in the center tank with the center tank pumps off.
True
False
The FUEL CONFIGURATION light illuminates and the EICAS message "FUEL CONFIG" displays when there is less than 1.000kg in either wing tank.
True
False
When will the Ram Air Turbine extend automatically?
When both engines fail in-flight
When either engine fails.
When center hydraulic system pressure is low.
What is indicated when one hydraulic pump "PRESS" light comes on?
Pump output pressure low
System pressure low
Pump output pressure high
The Ram Air Turbine can be retracted in flight.
True
False
Left and Right hydraulic system pressures are low. Is normal flap extension possible?
Yes
No
The Ram Air Turbine provides adequate hydraulic power down to..
200 kts
160 kts
130 kts
80 kts
Right and Center hydraulic system pressure low. Is stabilizer trim available?
No
Yes, at 50% of normal rate.
Yes, at 25% of normal rate.
Yes, at normal rate.
Is pressurization of the hydraulic reservoir monitored?
Yes
No
Yorur colleague on the flight deck inadvertently operates the alternate trim switches during cruise with C autopilot selected. What happens?
Nothing happens
"UNSCHD STAB TRIM" EICAS msg appears
The autopilot disconnects
The airplane enters an attitude stabilizing mode
Following the loss of which hydraulic system in-flight, results in the longest landing distance used?
L with the loss of all hydraulic fluid
R with the loss of all hydraulic fluid
C with the loss of all hydraulic fluid
Compared to a normal dry runway landing. How much longer is your landing distance following a loss of R and L hydraulic systems? (approx.)
The landing distance doubles.
The landing distance increases 50%.
The landing distance increases 25%.
Nearly same landing distance.
Which hydraulic systems power stabilizer trim?
Left and Right
Left and Center
Center and Right
What EICAS page displays the rudder, aileron and elevator position?
Maintenance
Status
Engine secondary
How many actuators on each aileron panel position the ailerons?
1
2
3
What is indicated by the AUTO SPDBRK light when the system is armed?
A fault exists which may cause an inflight extension.
The speedbrake is armed and operating normally.
The speedbrakes are not in the commanded position.
What Stabilizer Trim condition exists when both stabilizer trim cutout switches are in the CUTOUT position?
Hydraulic power is shut off
Electric power is shut off
Only manual trim is available.
What does the rudder trim reposition?
The rudder ratio changer.
The rudder trim tabs.
The rudder neutral point.
How many degrees of bank are the flap maneuvering speeds based on before initial buffet is encountered?
15
25
40
Which of the following is one of the required conditions for automatic speedbrake extension with the speedbrake in the ARMED position?
Application of wheel brake pressure.
Both thrust levers at idle.
Only one thrust lever at idle.
When are the leading edge slats extended to the landing position during normal flap extension?
Flaps 1
Flaps 15
Flaps 25
What is the purpose of the Flap Load Relief system?
Retract flaps from 30 to 25 when the flaps 30 airspeed limit is exceeded.
Relieve "C" hydraulic system pressure to flap actuators when pressure is too high.
Ensure that trailing edge flaps extend before the leading edge flaps.
When weather radar displays are on the HSI, what color indicates the least precipitation intensity?
Red
Yellow
Green
When does an altimiter OFF flag appear?
When the altimiter is in the backup pneumatic mode.
When the indications are unreliable.
When the altitude alert system is inoperative.
What should be done if the airplane is inadvertently moved during the IRS alignment?
Position the mode selector to ATT position
Turn the mode selector to OFF, then restart alignment.
Position all mode selector to ALIGN
Which instrument source select switch should be selected to alternate if the MAP flag is displayed on an HSI?
FMC switch
EFI switch
IRS switch
From what source does the Captain's ADI normally receive attitude signals?
Center IRS
Left IRS
Right IRS
Which instrument switch controls the signal to the vertical speed indicator?
FMC
EFI
IRS
ADC
What powers the EEC?
Dedicated generators.
The hot battery bus
L main AC bus
R main AC bus
What rotor turns the accessory gearbox?
N1
N2
N3
N4
The EEC provides:
EPR overboost protection
N1 speed protection
N2 speed protection
N3 speed protection
The ELC provides:
EPR overboost protection
N1 speed protection
N2 speed protection
N3 speed protection
The pneumatic starter drives...
N1
N2
N3
EPR
For how long can the air starter be operated (Normal Cycle)?
1 min
2 min
3 min
4 min
What is the normal, and maximum re-engagement speed for the air starter?
Normal 0-20%, max 30%
Normal 0%, max 20%
Normal 20%, max 20%
Normal 0-20%, max 40%
What type of ignition must be on in severe turbulence?
FLT
OFF
CONT
AUTO
Where is the fuel flow measured?
After passing the engine fuel valve
Before the second stage fuel pump
Right after the fuel control unit
In between the fuel/oil cooler and the fuel filter
How many oil pressure measurements are there per engine?
One
Two
Four
Three
Up to what altitude can the APU supply electrical power?
Max operating altitude
17.000'
14.000'
35.000'
Up to what altitude can the APU supply pneumatic power?
Max operating altitude
17.000'
14.000'
35.000'
The APU selector has been inadvertently moved to OFF and the APU RUN light is still illuminated, how can the shutdown cycle be cancelled?
Return the APU selector to ON
Place the APU selector to ON and cycle the Battery switch OFF then ON
Move the APU selector to START and release to ON
Which is a true statement regarding the APU?
The APU can supply only electrical power on the ground.
The APU can supply electrical power for all normal loads plus bleed air for two air conditioning packs or start an engine.
The APU should not be used to supply electric power and bleed air.
What action, if any, is required when starting the APU with battery power only?
The DC fuel pump must be switched on prior th APU start.
The left forward DC pump must be placed on.
No action is required. The DC fuel pump starts automatically.
What is the position of the reversers when the "REV" annunciations ar not displayed?
Stowed and locked.
In transit.
Extended.
What malfunction has occured if the right eng. Oil pr. Light is on, the "R ENG OIL PRESS" message is displayed and oil pressure on lower EICAS indicates normal for the R. eng?
Low oil pressure.
High oil pressure.
Oil pressure switch fault.
What occurs when the Fuel Control Switch is placed in the CUTOFF position?
Fuel control valve closes.
Fuel Shutoff valve closes.
Engine Fuel and Spar Valves close.
What will occur if EGT exceeds the red line limit?
Pointer will change to amber
Pointer will remain white for takeoff.
Maximum exceedance value attained will be displayed.
What does the APU selector do when turned OFF?
Opens the APU bleed valve
Initiates shutdown cooling cycle.
Cuts off fuel
Using Ground Air, what is the recommended minimum duct pressure for starting engines?
15 PSI
30 PSI
45 PSI
Engine has no response to thrust lever movement. What is the appropriate checklist?
Engine EEC
Engine limit or surge or stall.
Engin fire or severe damage or seperation.
Engine failure or shutdown
During start, if the valve fails to close automatically what will be the corresponding EICAS message?
Starter valve
Starter fail
Starter cutout
Starter auto fail
How many and what type of fire detectors are in ech cargo compartment?
Three heat sensors
Two fire detection loops
Two smoke detectors
Three fire detection sensors
What indicates a fault in one of the engine fire detection loops?
Fire signal
EICAS advisory msg
Status msg
Bite test
When is the fire bell inhibited?
Never
From nose gear strut extension to 400' or 20 sec
From 80kts to 400' or 20 sec
Below 200' in an automatic landing
Pulling the engine fire switch...
Closes the bleed air valve, trips the generator off, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the EDP, arms both fire ext bottles, silences the fire bell, closes engine fuel and spar valves
Bleed air valve to low flow, trips the generator off, arms both fire ext bottles
Closes the bleed air valve, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the EDP, arms the discharge fire ext bottles
Closes the bleed air valve, trips the generator, arms the fire ext bottle
A/C on ground with both engines shut down. APU shuts down automatically and APU fire ext bottle automatically discharged when APU fire detected.
True
False
How long should you wait before discharging the second fire extinguisher bottle into an engine that continues to have an illuminated fire warning light?
10 seconds
20 seconds
30 seconds
During engine start the tower informs you that "a fire is burning in the engine". There is no fire indication in the cockpit. You..
Pull the respective fire switch
Accomplish the "engine fire" checklist
Accomplish the "engine tailpipe fire" checklist
A and B
When is the fire bell inhibited?
Never
Frome nose gear ext to 400' or 20 sec
From 80kts to 400' or 20 sec
Below 200' in an automatic landing
During ground engine start, most new caution and advisory alert are inhibited.
True
False
Altitude alerting is inhibited in flight with all landing gear down and locked
True
False
How many "events" does the EICAS event record switch store?
One
Two
Three
Unlimited
The takeoff configuration warning includes:
Trim and flaps
Trim, flaps, park brake, spoilers
Trim, flaps, park brake
Trim, flaps, park brake, spoilers, engine parameters
The Predictive Windshear System (if installed) automatically, regardless of actual Weather Radar Control Panel settings, adjusts the antenna TILT and the system GAIN for optimum windshear detection.
True
False
What happens to the crew alerting messags when the Cancel Switch is pushed?
All warning, caution and advisory messages disappear
Only caution and advisory messages disappear
Only the most recent message disappear
When is the flight recorder automatically activated?
After both engines are started or inflight.
After either engine is started or inflight.
After the ACARS OUT time is recorded.
What does pushing the Alert Call Switch in the cockpit accomplish?
Calls all stations.
Sounds a continuous warning chime
A warning siren sounds
There is a smoke in the cabin and cockpit, you suspect that the Wi-Fi is on fire. What do you do?
Accomplish "Wi-Fi on fire" checklist
Turn off the Wi-Fi.
Accomplish "smoke, fire and fumes" checklist
Nothing
Does the HF radio sensitivity setting affect SELCAL reception?
Yes
No
The Bus Tie system parallels engine generators but prevents any other sources to be paralleled.
True
False
What bus powers most of the airplane fire detection systems?
Hot battery bus
Battery bus
Standby AC bus
R main AC bus
What bus powers the battery chargers?
Ground handling bus
Ground service bus
L main AC bus
Cpt xfer bus
Standby power selector in BAT position. Which is true?
L main AC bus powers the stb DC bus
The battery bus powers the stb DC bus
The hot battery bus powers the stb DC bus
The stb DC bus is unpowered
The EICAS msg "GEN DRIVE" displays when...
Oil temp is high and oil pressure low
Oil temp is high and/or oil pressure low
Oil temp high
Oil pressure is low
EICAS advisory msg "BUS ISOLATED" means:
The bus tie breaker is open
The bus tie breaker is closed
The DC system is isolated
The AC system is isolated
What bus powers the L utility bus?
The ground handling bus
The R main AC bus
L DC bus
The L main AC bus
BAT switch OFF, standby power selector in BAT. Is the Standby AC bus powered?
Yes
No
Maybe
If the L main bus is powered, then yes
What normally powers the battery bus during cruise?
R DC bus
L DC bus
Hot battery bus
Standby DC bus
During Autoland, which bus powers the C A/P?
L main AC bus
The battery standby system
L and R xfer bus
R main AC bus
Up to what altitude can the APU supply electrical power?
Max operating altitude
17.000'
14.000'
Pulling the engine fire switch...
Closes the bleed air valve, trips the generator off, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the EDP, arms both fire ext bottles, silences the fire bell, closes engine fuel and spar valves
Bleed air valve to low flow, trips the generator off, arms both fire ext bottles
Closes the bleed air valve, shuts off hydraulic fluid to the EDP, arms the discharge fire ext bottles
Closes the bleed air valve, trips the generator, arms the fire ext bottle
In flight, the left engine is shut down. What electrical busses are lost?
Only the respective utility bus.
Only the two utility buses.
Both utility buses and the left DC bus
When will moving the battery switch OFF cause the APU to shut down?
On the ground only
In flight only
On the ground or in flight
The APU can be used to power the left main AC bus while the right engine generator is powering the right main AC bus.
True
False
What causes the Standby power bus OFF light to illuminate?
Battery charger failure.
Loss of left system power to standby buses.
Loss of power on either the standby AC or DC bus or battery bus
With the APU supplying electrical power, what happens when the first engine is started?
The engine powers both main AC buses
The engine powers its respective buses only
Nothing happens until the APU is shut down
What does the External Power AVAIL light indicate?
Only the External power is plugged in
External power is plugged in and power quality is acceptable
External power is in use on the main airplane buses
Pushing the generator control switch off resets the fault trip circuitry.
True
False
Which of the following will cause the Generator DRIVE light to illuminate?
Clogged oil filter
High generator load
High oil temperature.
A Generator Drive light can indicate low oil pressure?
True
False
Which bus is powered automatically when external power is plugged in and available?
Standby AC
Ground service bus
Ground handling bus
Refer to the picture. What is the normal Icelandair setting?
100%
N
Refer to the picture. What would be the preferred setting during smoke in the cockpit?
Emergency knob rotated in the direction of the arrow.
The same setting as indicated on the emergency knob in the picture.
The passenger oxygen system is deployed automatically when the cabin altitude reaches:
12.000'
14.000'
15.000'
The crew can escape from the cockpit using the cockpit window Emergency pneumatic slide.
True
False
With the EICAS computer selector in AUTO, what happens if the left EICAS computer fails?
Left engine indications are blanked.
The right computer controls both CTRs
The upper CTR is blanked
The lower EICAS display (STATUS display) shows what oxygen pressure?
Passenger oxygen pressure
Cockpit oxygen pressure
Flight attendant oxygen pressure
The passenger oxygen system uses the same source as the cockpit crew.
True
False
What is the maximum Takeoff and Landing altitude for the B757? (Without high altitude landing switch)
8.400'
10.000'
14.000'
No limit
What indications can you expect when equipment smoke is present?
One or both air conditioning packs switch to high flow
One or both recirculation fans turn off
The overboard exhaust valve opens
All correct
Leaving the aircraft in Burkina Faso for crew rest, 42°C OAT, electrical power on. Which procedure is required?
No porcedure requried
Two cabin doors open
One pack operating or equivalent ground cooling
Two packs operating is minimum required
The engine anti-ice operation is dependent upon engine bleed switch position.
True
False
The EICAS msg "ENG HIGH STAGE" displays when...
Engine bleed air temperature is excessive
Engine bleed air pressure is excessive
The engine is in high stage mode
The engine bleed air valve is closed
The EICAS msg "ENG BLEED VALVE" displays when...
Engine bleed air temperature is excessive
Engine bleed air pressure is excessive
The engine is in high stage mode
The engine bleed air valve is closed
The EICAS msg "PACK TEMP" displays when...
Pack outlet temperature is excessive
Pack internal temperature is excessive
Pack controler fault
All correct
The EICAS msg "PACK OFF" displays when...
Pack switch off
Pack internal temperature is excessive
Pack controller fault
A and B correct
"The _____ recirculation fan should NOT be turned off as this causes the overboard exhaust valve to open."
Left
Right
The zone temperature controllers are set as follows: 22°C, 24°C, 25°C. What temperature will the pack output?
22°C
24°C
25°C
No way to tell
Equipment Cooling System. What below describes the forward system?
One supply fan and Left recirc fan operate in normal operation.
Two supply fans and Left recirc fan operate in normal operation
Only the L recirc fan operates in normal operation
L and R recirc fan operate in normal operation.
What is accomplished by pushing the Equip Cooling switch to ALTN?
Activates the alternate supply fan
Activates the Right recirc fan
Activates the Left recirc fan
Opens the overboard exhaust valve
At what cabin altitude does the CABIN ALTITUDE light illuminate?
8.500'
10.000'
14.000'
What can cause a PACK OFF light to illuminate when the selector is in AUTO?
Lack of air to the pack
Excessive air flow
Trim air switch off
What does the pack INOP light indicate?
Excessive pack temperature or controller fault
Loss of zone temperature controller
Excessive trim air temp or pack valve closed
What does it indicate when the isolation VALVE light comes on?
Valve and switch position are not in agreement
The valve is open
The valve is closed
Trim air switch is off. What cabin temperature do the packs attempt to maintain?
50°F (10°C)
75°F (24°C)
Variable, depending upon zone requirement
What altitude setting should be set on the LDG ALT selector during cockpit preparation?
200' below takeoff airport elevation
Destination airport elevation
Cabin altitude as determined from placard
During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output of the air conditioning packs?
The zone requiring the coolest air
The zone requiring the warmest air
The zone with the warmest selection
One forward equipment cooling supply fan operates at a time. What causes the alternate fan to operate?
High temperature in the forward E/E compartment
Pushing the Alternate equipment cooling switch
Low cooling air pressure
What limits are set by the AUTO RATE Control?
Cruise altitude
Differential pressure
Cabin rates of climb and descent
What type of power is used for outflow valve actuation during auto control?
DC
DC and AC
AC
When a pack selector is positioned to STBY N, what is the outlet temperature of the pack?
Constant moderate temperature
Variable, dependent upon zone requirements
Full cold
How can data entered on the scratch pad line be completely cleared?
Push the CLR key once
Push the CLR key twice
Push and hold the CLR key
How does the CDU identify an invalid entry by a crewmember?
Aural warning (3 beeps)
FAIL light
Message on the scratch pad line
Which of the following is true regarding the ILS?
The ILS cannot be tuned by the FMC
The ILS can be automatically tuned by the FMC
The ILS is automatically tuned by the FMC only during approach.
Which of the following will always be displayed when the HSI is placed in the map mode?
Active route and tuned VOR and DME stations within the range selected
All navaids within the range selected
All navaids and geographic ref. Points within the range selected
What function does the RANGE selector have in the MAP and PLAN mode?
Select the map range
Select the range to the next waypoint
Enter the distance to the next waypoint
What additional information is displayed on the HSI when the ARPT switch on the HSI control panel is on?
Location of all airports in the data base
Runway elevation for all airports in the data base
Runway direction for all airports in the data base
How many of the three IRSs use the position entered on the POS INIT page?
One
Two
Three
Can changes to route legs or arrival procedures be made inflight?
Yes
No
While airborne, what CDU mode key would be used to display VREF?
Push INIT REF key
Push DEP ARR key
Push PROG key
Which identifies the active waypoint?
White waypoint symbol
Blue waypoint symbol
Magenta waypoint symbol
During the Go-Around mode, what does the autothrottle annunciate?
THR HOLD
EPR/N1
GA
Is the runway alignment mode enunciated on the ADIs?
Yes
No
After takeoff, when may the autopilot be engaged?
Anytime
Only above 200' AGL
Only after takeoff flap retraction
What is one indication of lateral or vertical NAV mode engagement?
Annunciation on both ADI's
Annunciation on both ADI's and HSI's
A chime sounds twice
What is the ADI annunciation indicating that the autothrottle system is retarding the throttles during the landing flare?
RETARD
IDLE
THR HOLD
Which of the following effects does pushing down on the autopilot disengage bar have?
Disengages command modes, but permits autopilot operation in HDG SEL and FLCH.
Disengages autopilots and prevents re-engagement.
Disengages autopilots onlly if a control wheel disengagement swich is pushed at the same time
How can the crew get the localizer and glideslope deviation scales displayed on the ADI's?
Select and ILS frequency on the ILS tuning panel
Select park on the ILS tuning panel
Reset the ILS circuit breaker
What flight director mode is activated by placing a flight director switch ON while on ground with no autopilots engaged?
V/S and HDG HOLD mode
V/S and HDG SEL mode
Take-off mode
Which modes are affected by the bank limit selector?
All roll modes
Only HDG SEL mode
Only LOC and APP modes
During takeoff, when is the THR HOLD mode engaged?
At lift off
At 80 kts
At 60 kts
What does THR HOLD mode accomplish?
Moves throttles to hold take-off thrust
Moves throttles to hold selected speed
Removes power from the autothrottle servo system
What pitch mode is engaged by engaging the first autopilot in command, with neither flight director ON?
V/S
ALT HOLD
SPD
Normal takeoff. What speed does the flight director command?
V2+15kts or Vlof+15kts, whichever is higher. But never higher than V2+25kts
Nothing
Engine failure after takeoff. What speed does the flight director command?
V2 or present speed, whichever is higher. But never higher than V2+25kts
Nothing
What is the flight director roll command in TO mode after liftoff?
Runway track
Runway heading
Last ground track
Last heading
Take-off. MCP altitude 1.000'. No roll or pitch mode selected. Aircraft levels off in ALT CPT/ALT HOLD. Autothrottle mode will be..?
TO
EPR
SPD
THR HLD
What normally powers the battery bus during cruise?
The left main DC bus
The standby DC bus
The hot batteey bus
The Takeoff configuration warning includes:
Trim and flaps
Trim, flaps, park brake, spoilers
Trim, flaps, park brake
Trim, flaps, park brake, spoilers, engine parameters
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