SPL Knowledge Test 7
Two-cycle engine power and fuel economy can be greatly hindered when:
carburetor heat is not used at full throttle.
one-way pressure valves, or poppet valves, open when the pressure drops within the crankcase.
exhaust systems are installed that are not specifically tuned for an aviation engine.
What benefit does a digital attitude indicator provide?
It takes up less panel space.
The artificial horizon spans the entire width of the display.
It’s driven by the same vacuum system as a mechanical attitude indicator.
How often must the aircraft’s ELT be inspected?
Within 24 calendar months of the last inspection
Every two years
Within 12 calendar months of the last inspection.
What is the main operating principle of a float-type carburetor?
Low pressure in the venturi of the carburetor forces fuel to flow through the main fuel jet and mix with intake air.
Fuel is pumped from the float chamber to the fuel discharge nozzle by an engine-drive fuel pump where it mixes with intake air.
Fuel is discharged into the airstream at a pressure well above atmospheric pressure causing it to vaporize.
What instrument is affected in a glass cockpit airplane when the Air Data Computer (ADC) fails?
Attitude Indicator
Airspeed Indicator
Heading Indicator
Which instrument is affected if the pitot tube is blocked?
Vertical speed indicator.
Airspeed indicator.
Altimeter.
(Refer to figure 72.) The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the
ultimate load factor.
positive limit load factor.
airspeed range for normal operations.
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.
During unaccelerated flight.
When the aircraft is accelerating.
Lateral or roll stability is normally achieved by:
The design of the ailerons.
The design of the horizontal stabilizer/stabilator.
The upward pitch of the wings, called dihedral.
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of
incidence.
lift.
attack.
What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance?
Decreases takeoff distance.
Increases takeoff distance.
Increases takeoff speed.
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
How will ATC interpret a call from a pilot stating “Minimum Fuel”?
Advisory
Mayday
Emergency
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.
Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
The elevation of the departure area.
Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?
Solid lines.
Striped lines.
Both solid and striped lines.
What action should you take if your approach becomes unstable when less than 500’ above the height of the runway?
Go-around.
Retract the flaps.
Adjust pitch/power as necessary to re-establish a stabilized approach.
(Refer to figure 47.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
off course to the left.
above the glide slope.
below the glide slope.
(Refer to figure 26, area 3.) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace - 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
60.
70.
90.
(Refer to figure 20, area 3.) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
36°24'N - 76°01'W.
36°48'N - 76°01'W.
47°24'N - 75°58'W.
(Refer to Figure 68.) What does the line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represent?
True heading and airspeed.
groundspeed and true heading.
True course and groundspeed.
For a complete listing of information provided in a Chart Supplements book and how the information may be decoded, refer to the
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
"Directory Legend Sample" located in the front of each Chart Supplements book.
legend on sectional, VFR terminal area, and world aeronautical charts.
(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the 'FM (FROM) Group' is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from
180° at 10 knots.
180° at 10 knots, becoming 200° at 13 knots.
160° at 10 knots.
While operating in regions known for dust devils, such as the Southwest US, what is the recommended action a pilot should take when one is detected during flight operations at low altitudes?
Recognize and avoid the dust devil and be prepared to take evasive action if necessary.
Continue on the planned flight path, as dust devils are harmless and pose no risk to aircraft.
Immediately divert to the nearest airport and land as soon as possible to avoid the dust devil.
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
friction between the wind and the surface.
stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
Poor visibility and smooth air.
The layers of the atmosphere, beginning at the earth’s surface, are:
Troposphere, stratosphere, and mesosphere.
Stratosphere, mesosphere, and troposphere.
Troposphere, mesosphere, and stratosphere.
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
front.
frontogenesis.
frontolysis.
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
air pressure increases.
altitude decreases.
altitude increases.
Which of the substances below almost always negatively affect your flying performance?
Antibiotics.
Prescription analgesics.
Over-the-counter analgesics.
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
immediately.
within 48 hours.
within 7 days.
When a distress or urgency condition is encountered, the pilot of an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder, who desires to alert a ground radar facility, should squawk code
7600.
7500.
7700.
The positive three-step process in the exchange of flight controls between pilots includes these verbal steps: (1)You have the flight controls, (2)I have the flight controls and (3)
I have the flight controls.
I have the aircraft.
You have the flight controls.
For a student pilot solo flight, he or she must have the following on board:
Logbook with instructor endorsement, photo ID, student pilot certificate, and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA.
Student pilot certificate and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA only.
Logbook with instructor endorsement and student pilot certificate only.
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
90 days after the date of the move.
30 days after the date of the move.
60 days after the date of the move.
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
It has no effect on performance.
It increases performance.
It decreases performance.
The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the
pilot in command.
safety officer.
ground crewmember.
(Refer to figure 34) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?
WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
Empty weight 1,350 51.5
Pilot and front passenger 250 ---
Rear passengers 400 ---
Baggage --- ---
Fuel, 30 gal --- ---
Pilot and front passenger 250 ---
Rear passengers 400 ---
Baggage --- ---
Fuel, 30 gal --- ---
Oil, 8 qt --- -0.2
105 pounds..
110 pounds.
120 pounds.
{"name":"SPL Knowledge Test 7", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/Q6JUC3YK7","txt":"Two-cycle engine power and fuel economy can be greatly hindered when:, What benefit does a digital attitude indicator provide?, How often must the aircraft’s ELT be inspected?","img":"https://cloud.quiz-maker.com/uploads/112/5456674-Figure-72.png"}