Gyneco USMLE 201-300

201.A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician's office for evaluation of vaginal dryness, burning and dyspareunia. She also has dysuria and increased urinary frequency. The symptoms have been present for several months but have intensified recently. She has tried over-the-counter lubricants with little relief. Her last menstrual period was seven years ago. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension and pravastatin for hypercholesterolemia. Physical examination shows scarce pubic hair and reduced elasticity and turgor of the vulvar skin. Pale, dry and smooth vaginal epithelium is noted. Urine dipstick is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Ciprofloxacin for one w eek
B. Metronidazole for one w eek
C. Discontinue hydrochlorothiazide
D. Vaginal estrogen replacement
E. High-potency corticosteroid cream
202.A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, comes for a routine prenatal visit. According to her history, she is at 18-weeks gestation. Her family history is significant for Down syndrome on her maternal side. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show a decreased maternal serum alpha- fetoprotein (MSAFP). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villus sampling
C. Ultrasonogram
D. Cordocentesis
E. Urinary estradiol levels
 
203.A 24-year-old woman presents to your office with a self-palpated breast lump. She discovered the mass 2 days ago while taking a shower and noted that it is mildly tender. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 3 weeks ago. Her past medical history is insignificant. She has no family history of breast cancer. Physical examination reveals a lump in the superior outer quadrant of the right breast without palpable lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most reasonable next step in the management of this patient?
A. Ask her to return shortly after the menstrual period
B. Order mammography
C. Proceed with fine needle aspiration biopsy
D. Suggest excisional biopsy
E. Reassure that the mass is benign and no follow-up is necessary
204.A 76-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe vulvar itching for the past six months. She has tried over-the-counter topical lubricants without relief. Physical examination reveals numerous vulvar excoriations. The vulvar skin is thin, dry and white in color. The labia minora are difficult to visualize. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Vaginal Pap smear
B. Vulvar punch biopsy
C. Radical vulvectomy
D. Estrogen cream
E. W et mount smear
205.A 30-year-old G2 P 1woman at 38 weeks gestation presents to the hospital complaining of regular and painful uterine contractions that started two hours earlier. Pelvic examination reveals bulging membranes, and her cervix is 50% effaced and dilated to 3 cm. Her pregnancy was complicated by first trimester hemorrhage of unknown cause. Her past medical history is unremarkable. After placing a fetal heart monitor and an external tocometer on the patient, you note 3 separate 15 beat/min decreases in the fetal heart rate not coinciding with uterine contractions, each lasting for 25 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Oxygen administration and change in maternal position
B. Artificial rupture of membranes
C. Amnioinfusion
D. Fetal scalp pH testing
E. Emergent cesarean section
206.A 15-year-old girl is being evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She is otherwise healthy and has no previous medical problems. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals normal breast development, normal pubic and axillary hair, and a blind vagina; the uterus and adnexae could not be appreciated. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals 2 ovaries and no uterus is seen. The karyotype is 46XX. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Mullerian agenesis
B. Androgen insensitivity
C. 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
D. Imperforate hymen
E. Turner's syndrome
207.A 24-year-old woman delivered a healthy baby by vaginal delivery at 36 weeks gestation. She had a prolonged premature rupture of the membranes, and mid forceps application was required during delivery. On the second postpartum day she complained of fever and chills. She cannot breast-feed because her "nipples are tender". Her temperature is 38.5C (101.3F), blood pressure is 120/55 mmHg and pulse is 92/min. Bimanual examination shows tender uterus and foul-smelling lochia. Her nipples are cracked but without surrounding erythema or warmth. Physical examination otherwise shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal postpartum
B. Puerperal mastitis
C. Endometritis
D. Deep venous thrombosis
E. Aspiration pneumonia
208.A 14-year-old female is brought to the physician's office for evaluation of excessive menstrual bleeding. She experienced menarche at age 13, and since then her menses have been irregular and unpredictable. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and for the past week she has been having heavy menstrual bleeding. She has never been sexually active. Vital signs are stable. Her external genitalia are normal. She refused pelvic examination, and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Bleeding disorder
B. Anovulation
C. Cervical polyp
D. Endometrial carcinoma
E. Uterine fibroids
209.A 26-year-old G1 P1 woman requests contraception after delivering a healthy baby three weeks ago. She is breastfeeding the child and plans to continue for at least six months. She does not want to get pregnant for at least one year. She has no medical problems and does not take any medication. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most preferred method of contraception you can advise for this patient?
A. Tubal ligation
B. Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives
C. Coitus interruptus
D. Progestin-only oral contraceptives
E. No contraception needed while nursing
A 20-year-old, G1 PO, woman at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital because of regular uterine contractions. She noticed a passage of clear fluid per vagina for the past 24 hours. She has no other symptoms. Her pregnancy thus far has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is 38.2° C (100.7° F), blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min and respirations are 17/min. Speculum examination shows a closed cervix and clear fluid pooling in the vaginal fornix. The pH of the fluid is 7.5. Fetal heart monitoring shows a rate of 165/min and uterine contractions occurring every 3-4 minutes. Initial laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin: 10.2 g/L Platelets: 198,000/mm3 Leukocyte count: 18,500/mm3 Neutrophils: 86% Lymphocytes: 14% Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abruptio placenta
B. Lntraamniotic infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Trichomonas vaginitis
E. Normal labor
A Caucasian couple presents to your office for infertility evaluation. They are unable to conceive after 14 months of unprotected sex. The woman is 23 years of age. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. She denies perimenstrual pain or pelvic discomfort. Her last menstrual period was six days ago. Her past medical history is insignificant, and bimanual examination is normal. The man is 27 years old, He is not taking any medications, Physical examination, including external genitals, is normal. What is the best next step in the management of this couple?
A. Serum progesterone level
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. Semen analysis
D. Serum prolactin level of the woman
E. Laparoscopy
212.A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of infertility. She and her 39-year- old husband have not been able to conceive after 13 months of unprotected and frequent intercourse. She has 28-day regular menstrual cycles. The patient had a pregnancy with her husband at age 31. She has no other genitourinary complaints such as menorrhagia, dyspareunia or pelvic pain. She has no previous history of sexually transmitted diseases or abdominal surgery. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is an aerobics instructor and teaches 230-minute classes daily. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Complete physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her condition?
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Decreased ovarian reserve
C. Intense exercise
D. Premature ovarian failure
E. Uterine leiomyomas
213.A 24-year-old, gravida 0, para 0 woman comes to the physician because of an 8-week history of amenorrhea. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills for contraception. Her only other complaints are moderate fatigue and a decline in mood. She denies headaches, visual disturbances, and gastrointestinal symptoms. She has no other medical problems. She socially drinks alcohol and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. She denies stress at home or work. She walks 1-2 miles every day. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Visual field test is within normal limits. Examination shows no hirsutism. Breast examination reveals a white, milky secretion upon expression of both nipples. Pelvic examination reveals a uterus of normal size. Initial investigations reveal a negative serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level. According to these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Measure serum TSH level
B. Order hysterosalpingogram
C. Measure serum LH and FSH levels
D. Order MRI of the brain with pituitary focus
E. Measure serum testosterone level
214.A 22-year-old woman (G2POA1) is being followed by her family physician for pregnancy. She is currently at 28 weeks' gestation, feeling well, and gaining an appropriate amount of weight. She has not had sexual intercourse during her pregnancy. Her first prenatal exam at 12 weeks' gestation showed a negative HIV, Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and urine cultures. Her blood type is A negative and Rh (D) negative. She has not communicated with the father of the child during the pregnancy but is excited to raise the child with the help of her mother. She is unable to recall or confirm her immunization status for a number of vaccines. Which of the following measures is warranted at this time?
A. MMR vaccination
B. Urine culture
C. Rh(D) antibody test
D. HIV antibody test
E. Pneumococcal vaccine
215.A 29-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She is 10 weeks pregnant as determined by her last menstrual period. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She is devoutly religious and has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband since getting married 5 years ago. They live in a house built in 1983 where she works as a homemaker. Her husband is an accountant. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following screening tests is indicated at this time?
A. Rapid plasma reagin test
B. Hepatitis C antibody
C. Serum lead level
D. Red blood cell folic acid level
E. Chlamydia PCR
216.A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy external genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?
A. Ureteric stone
B. Pelvic infection
C. Abnormal myometrial growth
D. Increased prostaglandins
E. Ectopic endometrial implants
217.A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset intense uterine contractions and vaginal bleeding. She has been followed closely for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 140/86mmHg, pulse is 92/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity and moderate vaginal bleeding. Pelvic examination shows an effaced and 3cm dilated cervix. Ultrasonography shows a fundic placenta and a fetus in the cephalic position. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. After initial resuscitation the bleeding is stopped Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Vaginal delivery with augmentation of labor, if necessary
B. Emergency cesarean section
C. Perform tocolysis and schedule cesarean section within 48 hours
D. Forceps delivery
E. Conservative management at home
218.A wealthy executive donates five million dollars for the prevention of intrauterine growth restriction in the local county. Spending this money on which of the following programs would prevent the greatest number of cases of fetal growth restriction (FGR) in the population?
A. Alcoholic anonymous
B. Smoking cessation
C. Malnutrition prevention
D. Hypertension control
E. Infection control
219.A 20-year-old, G1PO, woman at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital because of regular uterine contractions and passage of clear fluid per vagina. She has no other symptoms. Her pregnancy thus far has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is 38.2 C (100.7 F), blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, pulse is 110/min and respirations are 17/min. Speculum examination shows a closed cervix and clear fluid pooling in the vaginal fornix. The pH of the fluid is 7.5. Fetal heart monitoring shows a rate of 165/min and uterine contractions occurring every 3-4 minutes. Initial laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.2 g/L Platelets 198,000/mm3 Leukocyte count 18,500/mm3 Neutrophils 86% Lymphocytes 14% Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abruptio placenta
B. Lntraamniotic infection
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Trichomonas vaginitis
E. Normal labor
220.A 30-year-old African-American woman with type- 1 diabetes and hypertension comes to the physician's office after obtaining a positive result from a home pregnancy test. She takes insulin and enalapril. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2 C (99.0F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her BUN is 18 mg/dl and creatinine is 1.4 mg/dl. A repeat β-HCG test performed in the office confirms pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Stop enalapril and start furosemide
B. Continue enalapril and add methyldopa
C. Stop enalapril and start labetalol
D. Stop enalapril and start losartan
E. Continue current therapy
221. An 81-year-old woman presents to your office complaining that her uterus fell out 2 months ago. She has multiple medical problems, including chronic hypertension, congestive heart failure, and osteoporosis. She is limited to sitting in a wheelchair because of her health problems. Her fallen uterus causes significant pain. On physical examination, the patient is frail and requires assistance with getting on the examination table. She has complete procidentia of the uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Reassurance
B. Placement of a pessary
C. Vaginal hysterectomy
D. Le Fort procedure
E. Anterior colporrhaphy
222.A 78-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic hypertension, and history of myocardial infarction requiring angioplasty presents to your office for evaluation of something hanging out of her vagina. She had a hysterectomy for benign indications at age 48. For the past few months, she has been experiencing the sensation of pelvic pressure. Last month she felt a bulge at the vaginal opening. Two weeks ago something fell out of the vagina. On pelvic examination, the patient has total eversion of the vagina. There is a superficial ulceration at the vaginal apex. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Biopsy of the vaginal ulceration
B. Schedule abdominal sacral colpopexy
C. Place a pessary
D. Prescribe oral estrogen
E. Prescribe topical vaginal estrogen cream
223.A 40-year-old G3P3 comes to your office for a routine annual GYN examination. She tells you that she gets up several times during the night to void. On further questioning, she admits to you that during the day she sometimes gets the urge to void, but sometimes cannot quite make it to the bathroom. She attributes this to getting older and is not extremely concerned, although she often wears a pad when she goes out in case she loses some urine. This patient is very healthy otherwise and does not take any medication on a regular basis. She still has regular, monthly menstrual periods. She has had three normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries of infants weighing between 7 and 8 lb. An office dipstick of her urine does not indicate any blood, bacteria, WBCs, or protein. Her urine culture is negative. Based on her office presentation and history, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Urinary stress incontinence
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Bladder dyssynergia
E. Vesicovaginal fistula
224.A 38-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of urinary incontinence. Her symptoms are suggestive of urge incontinence. She admits to drinking several large glasses of iced tea and water on a daily basis because her mother always told her to drink lots of liquids to lower her risk of bladder infections. Urinalysis and urine culture are negative. After confirming the diagnosis with physical examination and office cystometrics, which of the following treatments should you recommend to the patient as the next step in the management of her problem?
A. Instruct her to start performing Kegel exercises.
B. Tell her to hold her urine for 6 hours at a time to enlarge her bladder capacity.
C. Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.
D. Prescribe an anticholinergic.
E. Schedule cystoscopy
225.A 45-year-old woman with previously documented urge incontinence continues to be symptomatic after following your advice for conservative self-treatment. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Prescribe Ditropan (oxybutynin chloride).
B. Prescribe Estrogen therapy.
C. Schedule a retropubic suspension of the bladder neck.
D. Refer her to a urologist for urethral dilation.
E. Schedule a voiding cystourethrogram
226. An 18-year-old G0 comes to see you complaining of a 3-day history of urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. She panicked this morning when she noticed the presence of bright red blood in her urine. She also reports some midline lower abdominal discomfort. She had intercourse for the first time 5 days ago and reports that she used condoms. On physical examination, there are no lacerations of the external genitalia, there is no discharge from the cervix or in the vagina, and the cervix appears normal. Bimanual examination is normal except for mild suprapubic tenderness. There is no flank tenderness, and the patient’s temperature is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chlamydia cervicitis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Acute cystitis
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Monilial vaginitis
227.A 28-year-old woman presents to your office with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. This is her second infection in 2 months. You treated the last infection with Bactrim DS for 3 days. Her symptoms never really improved. Now she has worsening lower abdominal discomfort, dysuria, and frequency. She has had no fever or flank pain. Physical examination shows only mild suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient?
A. Urine culture
B. Intravenous pyelogram
C. Cystoscopy
D. Wet smear
E. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
228.A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy external genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?
A. Ureteric stone
B. Pelvic infection
C. Abnormal myometrial growth
D. Increased prostaglandins
E. Ectopic endometrial implants
229.A 23-year-old G3POA2 female presents to your clinic at an estimated 12 weeks of gestational age. She is a new patient and has come to your clinic to seek an elective abortion. She has had two elective abortions in the past because of unplanned pregnancy. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. Her physical examination is within normal limits and a limited ultrasound examination was able to detect fetal heart tones. You and your partners have a strict policy against performing abortions because some members of the group object to the procedure. You decide it would be best to stick to this policy; however, the patient becomes angry and tells you that she will sue you if you do not perform the procedure. What is the best response to this patient?
A.You can do what you want. I cannot do the abortion because of our group policy"
B. "If you wanted to have an abortion why did you not come earlier?"
C. "I don't think any physician will perform an abortion at this gestational age."
D. "I can refer you to another physician who will perform the procedure"
E. "If we keep doing abortions, then your uterus can get scarred and you may not be able to become pregnant again
230.A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 26 weeks' gestation comes to the physician complaining of aching and swelling in both legs. The aching of her legs is worst at night. She has no shortness of breath or chest pain. She has no past medical history. Her temperature is 36.9 C (98.2F), blood pressure is 11 0/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows symmetrical pitting edema of both calves with no tenderness of either calf. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Doppler ultrasonogram of both lower extremities
B. Admit for monitoring of her condition
C. Start low molecular w eight heparin
D. Reassurance and routine follow-up
E. Order echocardiogram and serum albumin levels
231.A 27-year-old female comes to the physician's office for evaluation of infertility. She has not been able to conceive for 12 months despite frequent intercourse. Her menses started at age 12 and have always been irregular. She uses over the counter acne medications. She is also obese and has been unsuccessful with weight loss. Physical examination shows an obese woman with sparse hair over the upper lip. There is no galactorrhea, thyromegaly or clitoromegaly. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient's infertility?
A.Progesterone supplement
B. Clomiphene citrate
C. Dexamethasone
D. Dopamine agonist
E. In vitro fertilization
232.A 20-year-old, gravida 1, para 0, at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of moderate vaginal bleeding. She has a colicky suprapubic pain radiating to the back and denies the passage of tissue through her introitus. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has no history of trauma or serious illness. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 100/65 mm of Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and the products of conception can be seen through it. Her blood type is AB Rh negative and her antibody titer is 1:2. Ultrasonogram shows a ruptured gestational sac with no fetal heart motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hospitalization, analgesics and observation
B. Reassurance, administration of RhoGAM and follow up
C. Serial beta-hCG monitoring
D. IV fluids, suction curettage and RhoGAM administration
E. Administration of a dilute infusion of oxytocin to induce labor
233. You have diagnosed a healthy, sexually active 24-year-old female patient with an uncomplicated acute urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the likely organism responsible for this patient’s infection?
A. Chlamydia
B. Pseudomonas
C. Klebsiella
D. Escherichia coli
E. Candida albicans
234.A 32-year-old woman presents to your office with dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency for 24 hours. She is healthy but is allergic to sulfa drugs. Urinalysis shows large blood, leukocytes, and nitrites in her urine. Which of the following medications is the best to treat this patient’s condition?
A. Dicloxacillin
B. Bactrim
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Azithromycin
E. Flagyl
235. You are seeing a patient in the emergency room who complains of fever, chills, flank pain, and blood in her urine. She has had severe nausea and started vomiting after the fever developed. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection 3 days ago by her primary care physician. The patient never took the antibiotics that she was prescribed because her symptoms improved after she started drinking cranberry juice. The patient has a temperature of 38.8C (102F). She has severe right-sided CVA tenderness. She has severe suprapubic tenderness. Her clean-catch urinalysis shows a large amount of ketones, RBCs, WBCs, bacteria, and squamous cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Tell her to take the oral antibiotics that she was prescribed and give her a prescription of Phenergan rectal suppositories.
B. Admit the patient for IV fluids and IV antibiotics.
C. Admit the patient for diagnostic laparoscopy.
D. Admit the patient for an intravenous pyelogram and consultation with a urologist.
E. Arrange for a home health agency to go to the patient’s home to administer IV fluids and oral antibiotics.
A 22-year-old woman has been seeing you for treatment of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past 6 months. She married 6 months ago and became sexually active at that time. She seems to become symptomatic shortly after having sexual intercourse. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient to help her with her problem?
A. Refer her to a urologist.
B. Schedule an IVP.
C. Prescribe prophylactic urinary antispasmodic.
D. Prescribe suppression with an antibiotic.
E. Recommend use of condoms to prevent recurrence of the UTIs
A 23-year-old G1PO female presents for her first prenatal visit at 14 weeks gestation. A pap smear is done at that time and a high grade squamous intraepitheliallesions (HSIL) is seen at cytology. A test for HPV discloses the presence of a strain with high oncogenic risk. A satisfactory colposcopy is done and shows no site of abnormalities. At this time the next best step is
A. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
B. Repeat pap smear 12 months
C. Termination of pregnancy
D. Repeat colposcopy after delivery
E. Endocervical curettage
238.A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has felt only 2 or 3 fetal movements in the past 12 hours. As in her previous pregnancies, she has gestational diabetes, which is under good control with diet and mild exercise. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination is unremarkable. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Amniotic fluid index
B. Contraction stress test
C. Deliver the fetus immediately
D. Non-stress test
E. Ultrasound for fetal heart tones
18-year-old woman comes to your office because of abdominal pain. She states that the pain started yesterday afternoon and has been worsening. The pain is in the right lower quadrant and does not radiate. She rates it a 7 on a scale of 1 to 10. She has had some nausea but no vomiting. Nothing seems to improve or worsen the pain. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes thyroid hormone replacement, and no other medical problems. She has never had surgery. She is allergic to penicillin. Physical examination is significant for right lower quadrant tenderness. Bimanual examination reveals right adnexal tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup of this patient?
A. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
B. Abdominal x-ray
C. Appendiceal ultrasound
D. Pelvic ultrasound
E. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
E. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 240.A 17-year-old married girl comes to see you, complaining of “feeling tired all the time,” vomiting in the morning, and weight gain. Examination shows signs of pregnancy that is confirmed by laboratory studies. When informed of this, the girl is visibly distraught. “How could this happen?” she says, “I’ve been on the pill!” Mentioning that she and her husband live with her parents, she declares that she wants an immediate abortion. Which of the following is the best reply?
A. Certainly, let’s schedule you for the procedure right now.”
B. “Have you considered discussing this with your husband first?”
C. “I want you to take time to think about things before you do anything rash.”
D. “Maybe you should talk this over with your parents before proceeding.”
E. “That’s one option, but I’d like to talk with you a bit before we schedule anything.”
241.A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of amenorrhea. She had menarche at age 13 and has had normal periods since then. However, her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. She also complains of an occasional milky nipple discharge. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She is particularly concerned because she would like to become pregnant as soon as possible. Examination shows a whitish nipple discharge bilaterally, but the rest of the examination is unremarkable. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal. Prolactin is elevated. Head MRI scan is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Bromocriptine
B. Dicloxacillin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oral contraceptive pill (OCP)
E. Thyroxine
242.A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 14 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has some mild nausea, but otherwise no complaints. She has no significant medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She is concerned for two reasons. First, the "flu season" is coming, and she seems to get sick every year. Second, a child at her son's daycare center recently broke out with welts and was sent home. Which of the following vaccinations should this patient most likely be given?
A. Influenza
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Rubella
E. Varicella
243.A 35-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 39 weeks' gestation, comes to the labor and delivery ward with contractions. Past obstetric history is significant for two normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries at term. Examination shows the cervix to be 4 centimeters dilated and 50% effaced. The patient is contracting every 4 minutes. Over the next 2 hours the patient progresses to 5centimeters dilation. An epidural is placed. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed, demonstrating copious clear fluid. 2 hours later the patient is still at 5centimeters dilation and the contractions have spaced out to every 10 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Expectant management
B. Intravenous oxytocin
C. Cesarean delivery
D. Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
E. Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
244.A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, comes to the physician for the first time for a prenatal checkup. She changed her physician and in the interim has missed two prenatal checkups. She states that she is at 7 months gestation. According to her prenatal records and an ultrasound performed at 16 weeks gestation, she is now at 30 weeks, but her fundal height is only 26cm (10.2 inches). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. You suspect fetal growth restriction (FGR) and order a repeat ultrasonogram. Which of the following is the single most useful parameter for predicting fetal weight by ultrasonogram in suspected FGR?
A. Biparietal diameter
B. Abdominal circumference
C. Femur length
D. Head to abdomen circumference ratio
E. Calculated fetal weight
245.A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is rushed to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She was sleeping when she first noticed the bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 14th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 11 6/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows cold extremities and bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Emergency transvaginal ultrasonogram
B. Obtain blood for PT/INR and PTI
C. Obtain venous access with two large bore needles
D. Immediate vaginal examination
E. Immediate cesarean section
246.A 25-year-old G1PO woman at 39 weeks gestation by last menstrual period confirmed by first trimester ultrasound presents to the hospital with complaints of vulvar pain and a "bump" on her vulva. On examination you see clear vesicles and inguinal adenopathy. No cervical or vaginal lesions are present. She is 2cm dilated, 50% effaced and at-2 station. Fetal heart rate and contraction monitoring is started. She is contracting regularly. No abnormalities are seen. Which of the following is the most effective intervention to reduce neonatal morbidity in this patient?
A. Immediate cesarean section
B. Expectant management
C. Augmentation of labor with oxytocin
D. Tocolysis with nifedipine
E. Antiviral treatment with acyclovir
247.A 54-year-old female comes to the physician because of involuntary loss of urine. She states "Doc, whenever I laugh, cough, or sneeze, I am unable to hold my urine. I am afraid to leave the house." She has no involuntary loss of urine while sleeping. She had a hysterectomy four years ago. She has had no trauma to her head or back. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Physical examination shows a relaxed anterior vaginal wall. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. A cotton-tipped swab test reveals a urethral straining angle of 45 degrees when intra-abdominal pressure is increased. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most beneficial long-term management for this patient?
A. Oxybutynin therapy
B. Bethanechol
C. Alpha blockers
D. Oral hormone replacement therapy
E. Urethropexy
248.A 16-year-old female comes to the emergency department because of heavy vaginal bleeding. She has no pain. Since menarche, menses have been irregular. She has a steady boyfriend and uses condoms for contraception. She has no other medical problems. She does not use alcohol, tobacco, or drugs. Her temperature is 37° C (99° F), blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows active vaginal bleeding. Pregnancy test is negative. Coagulation studies are within normal limits. Ultrasound shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin is 9.8 g/dl and hematocrit is 29%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Emergency dilatation and curettage
B. Packed red blood cell transfusion
C. High dose estrogen therapy
D. Hysteroscopy
E. High dose GnRH agonists
249.A 45-year-old woman presents to her physician's office complaining of night sweats and insomnia. She states that for the past month she has woken up completely soaked with perspiration on several occasions. She has had irregular menstrual periods for the past six months. She consumes one ounce of alcohol nightly before going to the bed, and quit smoking 5 years ago. She has a history of hypertension controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. She denies illicit drug use. Her temperature is 36.7° C (98° F), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Prescribe a short course of oral hormone replacement therapy
B. Obtain a urine toxicology screen
C. Reassure her that she is reaching menopause
D. Measure serun1 TSH and FSH
E. Measure 24-hour urinary catecholamines
250.A 25-year-old woman is referred to the physician for lactation suppression after the death of her 1-month-old infant from severe sepsis. She is very depressed and complains of breast fullness and tenderness. Examination shows both breasts are warm, firm and tender to palpation. Prenatal records show no abnormalities except mild varicosities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Frequent emptying of breasts
B. Tight fitting bra and ice packs
C. Conjugated estrogen
D. Dexamethasone
E. Bromocriptine therapy
251.A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, presents to your office at 20 weeks' gestation for a routine prenatal check-up. This pregnancy has been uncomplicated thus far. She is known to be D (-) while her husband is D (+). Her obstetric history is significant for intrapartum placental abruption, which did not require caesarian delivery. She received a standard dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy and immediately postpartum. You decide to determine her anti-D antibody titers, and they turn out to be 1:34. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the positive antibody screen in this patient?
A. No prophylaxis early in this pregnancy
B. Too early administration of anti-D immune globulin postpartum
C. Low dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy
Low dose of anti-D immune globulin postpartum
No prophylaxis between the pregnancies
252.A 15-year-old girl is being evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She has no other symptoms. She has not been sexually active. She has no other medical problems and does take any medication. Her family history is unremarkable. On examination, you note fully developed breasts and absent axillary and pubic hair. External genitalia have a normal appearance, but the vagina is abnormally short and blind ended. Initial work-up reveals no uterus on ultrasound, a testosterone level of 400 ng/dl (Normal is 20-80 for a female), and a 46 XY karyotype. Which of the following events is most likely to have caused the absence of in utero development of the internal reproductive organs?
A. Absence of mullerian inhibiting factor
B. Presence of mullerian inhibiting factor
C. Agenesis of Wolffian ducts
D. Agenesis of mullerian ducts
E. Testosterone surge
253.A 32-year-old woman who is one week postpartum presents with dull pain in her left leg for the past three days. She denies any history of trauma, fever or chills. Her pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated, and her past medical history is unremarkable. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/76 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a swollen, tender, and mildly erythematous left leg. Doppler ultrasonogram reveals a thrombus in the superficial femoral vein of the left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Reassurance and ibuprofen
B. Anticoagulation with heparin
C. Inferior vena cava filter
D. Thrombolytic therapy
E. Antistaphylococcal antibiotics
254.A 47-year-old woman presents to your office with complaints of lower abdominal pain, nocturia, urinary urgency and frequency relieved with urination. She states the symptoms have been worsening this past month and she recently experienced dyspareunia. She is sexually active with her husband, but this is causing her a great amount of pain. She has four children and had uncomplicated pregnancies. She denies fevers or chills. On examination, she has diffuse lower abdominal pain with no rebound or guarding. Her external genitalia appear normal. On bimanual examination, palpation of the anterior vaginal wall elicits extreme pain. No cervical motion tenderness is present. No other abnormalities are noted. A urinalysis is negative. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Stress incontinence
C. Cystocele
D. Interstitial cystitis
E. Pelvic inflammatory disease
255.A previously healthy 50-year-old gravida 5, para 4, Caucasian woman comes to the physician complaining of passing small amounts of urine while sneezing or coughing for the past five months. She denies any episodes of weakness, numbness or fecal incontinence. There is no history of dysuria, increased frequency of urination, or hematuria. Her symptoms are progressively getting worse. Her other medical problems include diabetes mellitus-type 2 diagnosed 3 years ago, treated with glyburide 2.5mg/day. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and has no known drug allergies. She mentions that she is an avid jogger, but her problem causes her significant embarrassment. She now has to wear absorbent pads while jogging. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the abdomen is soft. Neurological examination is within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a cystocele. The patient's labs reveal: Urine Specific gravity: 1.020 Blood: negative Glucose: negative Leukocyte esterase: negative Nitrites: negative WBC: 5-10/hpf Bacteria: none Random blood sugar is 120 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Detrusor instability
B. Interstitial cystitis
C. Overflow incontinence due to detrusor weakness
D. Overflow incontinence due to medication
E. Pelvic floor muscle weakness
256.A 34-year-old primigravida develops severe postpartum bleeding requiring aggressive volume resuscitation and transfusion of 5 units of packed red blood cells. Her pregnancy was complicated by mild hypertension and trace proteinuria that was treated with low-dose methyldopa. Her mother suffered from premature menopause and severe osteoporosis. Seven days after giving birth, she has failed to lactate. Her urinalysis is insignificant and her blood pressure has ranged from 95 to11 0 mmHg systolic and 69 to 75 mmHg diastolic. Fundoscopy shows no retinal changes. Which of the following is most likely deficient in this patient?
A. lnhibin
B. Progesterone
C. Aldosterone
D. Prolactin
E. Oxytocin
257.A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine annual visit. She has no complaints. She has no significant previous medical problems. She has been sexually active since the age of 19 with the same partner. They married 4 years ago. She has never had any sexually transmitted diseases. She had her last Pap smear 4 years ago and was within normal limits. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A repeat Pap smear now shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat Pap smear in 3 years
B. Repeat Pap smear in 12 months
C. Reflex HPV testing
D. Immediate colposcopy
E. Prescribe estrogen cream
258.A 20-year old GOPO woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding and right lower quadrant pain. Her last menstrual period was approximately 5 weeks ago. She is sexually active and uses condoms occasionally. Her temperature is 37.2° C (98.9° F), blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 14/min. Examination shows mild right lower quadrant tenderness, but no rebound or guarding. There is no active vaginal bleeding and the cervical os is closed. Her initial hemoglobin is 11.0 g/dl. She is Rh positive and a quantitative β-HCG is 1000 mIU/mL. A vaginal ultrasound is done and no intrauterine or extrauterine pregnancy can be seen. Which of the following is next best step in management?
A. Consent for laparoscopy
B. Methotrexate administration
C. Repeat 13-HCG in 48 hours
D. Administration of anti-D immune globulin
E. Consent for dilatation and curettage
259.A 26-year-old G1P0 patient at 34 weeks gestation is being evaluated with Doppler ultrasound studies of the fetal umbilical arteries. The patient is a healthy smoker. Her fetus has shown evidence of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) on previous ultrasound examinations. The Doppler studies currently show that the systolic to diastolic ratio (S/D) in the umbilical arteries is much higher than it was on her last ultrasound 3 weeks ago and there is now reverse diastolic flow. Which of the following is correct information to share with the patient?
A. The Doppler studies indicate that the fetus is doing well.
B. With advancing gestational age the S/D ratio is supposed to rise.
C. These Doppler findings are normal in someone who smokes.
D. Reverse diastolic flow is normal as a patient approaches full term.
E. The Doppler studies are worrisome and indicate that the fetal status is deteriorating.
260.A 17-year-old primipara at 41 weeks wants an immediate cesarean section. She is being followed with biophysical profile (BPP) testing. Which of the following is correct information to share with the patient?
A. BPP testing includes amniotic fluid volume, fetal breathing, fetal body movements, fetal body tone, and contraction stress testing.
B. The false-negative rate of the BPP is 10%.
C. False-positive results on BPP are rare.
D. Spontaneous decelerations during BPP testing are associated with significant fetal morbidity.
E. A normal BPP should be repeated in 1 week to 10 days in a post-term pregnancy.
261.A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet. She is very anxious to find out because she has a history of a previous ectopic pregnancy and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care. Which of the following actions is most appropriate at this time?
A. No action is needed because the patient is asymptomatic, has not missed her period, and cannot be pregnant.
B. Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
C. Listen for fetal heart tones by Doppler equipment.
D. Perform an abdominal ultrasound.
E. Perform a bimanual pelvic examination to assess uterine size
262.A patient presents for her first initial OB visit after performing a home pregnancy test and gives a last menstrual period of about 8 weeks ago. She says she is not entirely sure of her dates, however, because she has a long history of irregular menses. Which of the following is the most accurate way of dating the pregnancy?
A. Determination of uterine size on pelvic examination
B. Quantitative serum human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) level
C. Crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal ultrasound
D. Determination of progesterone level along with serum HCG level
E. Quantification of a serum estradiol level
263.A healthy 20-year-old G1P0 presents for her first OB visit at 10 weeks gestational age. She denies any significant medical history both personally and in her family. Which of the following tests is not part of the recommended first trimester blood testing for this patient?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Screening for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
C. Hepatitis B surface antigen
D. Blood type and screen
E. One-hour glucose challenge testing
264. Your patient is a healthy 28-year-old G2P1001 at 20 weeks gestational age. Two years ago, she vaginally delivered at term a healthy baby boy weighing 6 lb 8 oz. This pregnancy, she had a prepregnancy weight of 130 lb. She is 5ft 4 in tall. She now weighs 140 lb and is extremely nervous that she is gaining too much weight. She is worried that the baby will be too big and require her to have a cesarean section. What is the best counsel for this patient?
A. Her weight gain is excessive, and she needs to be referred for nutritional counseling to slow down her rate of weight gain.
B. Her weight gain is excessive, and you recommend that she undergo early glucola screening to rule out gestational diabetes.
C. She is gaining weight at a less than normal rate, and, with her history of a smallfor- gestational-age baby, she should supplement her diet with extra calories.
D. During the pregnancy, she should consume an additional 300 kcal/day versus prepregnancy, and her weight gain so far is appropriate for her gestational age.
E. During the pregnancy she should consume an additional 600 kcal/day versus prepregnancy, and her weight gain is appropriate for her gestational age.
265.A healthy 31-year-old G3P2002 patient presents to the obstetrician’s office at 34 weeks gestational age for a routine return visit. She has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. Her baseline blood pressures were 100 to 110/60 to70, and she has gained a total of 20 lb so far. During the visit, the patient complains of bilateral pedal edema that sometimes causes her feet to ache at the end of the day. Her urine dip indicates trace protein, and her blood pressure in the office is currently 115/75. She denies any other symptoms or complaints. On physical examination, there is pitting edema of both legs without any calf tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the patient’s concern?
A. Prescribe Lasix to relieve the painful swelling.
B. Immediately send the patient to the radiology department to have venous. Doppler studies done to rule out deep vein thromboses.
C. Admit the patient to L and D to rule out preeclampsia.
D. Reassure the patient that this is a normal finding of pregnancy and no treatment is needed.
E. Tell the patient that her leg swelling is caused by too much salt intake and instruct her to go on a low-sodium diet.
266.A 28-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital. She has regular uterine contractions. Her blood pressure is 120/70mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 18/min. Fetal heart monitoring is placed and shows a baseline rate of 130 beats/min, without any associated abnormalities. Pelvic examination shows the cervix is 50% effaced and 3 cm dilated. Amniotomy is performed. Immediately after the rupture of membranes, the baseline fetal heart rate increases to 160 beats/min and then drops to 70 beats/min with repetitive late decelerations. There is severe acute vaginal bleeding. Repeat vital signs of the patient shows a blood pressure of 130/70mmHg, pulse of 80/min and respirations of 18/min. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the current condition?
A. Premature separation of the placenta
B. Abnormal placental implantation
C. Ruptured fetal umbilical vessel
D. Excessive amniotic fluid
E. Tear in uterine musculature
267.A 25-year-old woman delivered a baby boy at 38 weeks gestation. The newborn has a small body size with microcephaly, hypoplasia of the distal phalanges of the fingers and toes, excess hair and a cleft palate. He weighs 2.5kg (5.51b). Further history or evaluation of the mother would most likely reveal which of the following:
A. Untreated syphilis
B. Phenytoin use
C. Alcohol abuse
D. Cocaine abuse
E. Azithromycin use
 
268.A 35-year-old African-American marathon runner presents to the gynecologist complaining of secondary amenorrhea that developed three months ago. Her cycles are normally 28 days long, and her menses last three to five days with moderate flow. One year ago, the woman adopted a vigorous exercise regimen that lasted between three and five hours every day. Since then, her BMI has declined from 23.4 to 16.5 Kg/m2. She has been winning many local races and is considering increasing the difficulty of her exercise regimen, but would like to address the issue of her amenorrhea first. Physical examination reveals a thin woman with well-defined musculature but is otherwise unremarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely etiology of her amenorrhea?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Testosterone deficiency
C. Estrogen deficiency
D. Progesterone deficiency
E. Prolactin excess
269.A 19-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and psychosis comes to the physician requesting a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. Her menses usually occur every 30 days. She is sexually active with one partner and occasionally uses condoms. She is concerned because she has gained 3 kg (6 lb) in the past 3 months. She also complains of breast tenderness and milky-white discharge from both nipples. She denies headaches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A. Valproic acid
B. Risperidone
C. Aripiprazole
D. Carbamazepine
E. Lamotrigine
270.A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman was found to have right adnexal enlargement on pelvic examination 2 weeks ago. Transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasounds revealed a 5 cm, unilocular, right ovarian mass with regular borders. There is no ascites. The patient went through menopause at age 52. She has had no postmenopausal spotting. There is no family history of ovarian or breast cancer. Her latest mammogram 2 months ago showed no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Cancer antigen 125 level
B. Combination chemotherapy
C. Needle aspiration for cytology
D. Repeated vaginal ultrasonography in 6-8 weeks
E. Surgical removal
271.A 26-year-old graduate student presents at her husband's urging, complaining of severe pain during sexual intercourse. She says that she was a virgin when she married her husband two years ago, and that she has been experiencing severe "genital pain" during sex since then. As a result, she avoids sexual intimacy with her husband, which is placing a strain upon their marriage. She also complains of intense pain with her menses and when passing stool. She admits to sporadic pelvic pain that waxes and wanes with no discernible trigger. What would be the most appropriate treatment given this woman's condition?
A. Use of vaginal dilators
B. Pain management training
C. Oral contraceptive pills
D. Regularly scheduled follow-up visits
E. Psychotherapy and sexual education
272.A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 36 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department after passing out. She is drowsy and moaning, complaining of abdominal pain. Her husband accompanies her. He states that she has not experienced any trauma, but that she experienced the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain before she passed out. She has no significant past medical history. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated thus far. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. She takes supplemental vitamins, but no other medications. Her temperature is 36.9° C (98.4° F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm of Hg, and pulse is 130/min. Physical examination shows a cold and diaphoretic female. Examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation; the cervical os is closed and no vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Preeclampsia
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
E. Septic shock
273.A 19-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of fever, shaking chills and lower abdominal pain. She had an abortion at an outside clinic 3 days ago. Her temperature is 39.8°C(103.7° F), blood pressure is 100/65mmHg, pulse is 114/min and respirations are 26/min. Physical examination shows mild rigidity and guarding. Fundal height is at 12 weeks gestation, the adnexae are free and no mass is noted. Bimanual examination shows uterine tenderness with purulent, offensive vaginal discharge coming out of a dilated cervical os. Which of the following is the most appropriate sequence in management?
A. Cervical and blood cultures, antibiotics, vigorous and thorough curettage
B. Cervical and blood cultures, antibiotics, gentle suction curettage
C. Antibiotics, suction curettage, cervical and blood sampling
D. Cervical and blood cultures, antibiotics and close observation
E. Laparotomy and antibiotics
E. Laparotomy and antibiotics 274.A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 10-month history of dysmenorrhea associated with a dull pelvic sensation. She has heavy periods but denies inter-menstrual bleeding. She is sexually active with her husband and does not use contraception because they have been trying to become pregnant for one year. She has no pain during intercourse. Physical examination shows normal external genitalia and an enlarged uterus, but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Endometriosis
C. Fibroid uterus
D. Pelvic congestion syndrome
E. Primary dysmenorrhea
275.A 38-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 10 weeks gestation comes to the physician's office for prenatal counseling of genetic disorders. She has a healthy 3-year-old child. Given her age, she is worried about the risk of Down syndrome, and if her baby test is positive for Down syndrome she would like to terminate the pregnancy. Ultrasonogram shows increased fetal nuchal fold lucency. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Chorionic villus sampling
B. Second trimester amniocentesis
C. Early amniocentesis
D. Cordocentesis
E. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein levels (MSAFP)
276.A 28-year-old woman is admitted for delivery. She began experiencing regular, painful uterine contractions three hours ago and her water broke en route to the hospital. The cervix is 5 cm dilated and 80% effaced. The fetal presentation is vertex and the baby's head is at -1 station. After placing a fetal heart monitor and external tocometer, repetitive decreases in fetal heart rate are noted which begin at the same time as the contractions and end before the contractions have ceased. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the fetal heart pattern?
A. Periods of fetal sleep
B. Umbilical cord compression
C. Fetal head compression
D. Uteroplacental insufficiency
E. Intrauterine infection
277.A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has not felt her baby's movements for the past two weeks. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Ultrasonogram shows absence of fetal cardiac activity. Fetal demise is diagnosed. Laboratory studies show: Serum fibrinogen level: 250 mg/dl (normal is 150 - 450 mg/dl) Platelets: 130,000/mm3 Prothrombin time: 15 sec Partial thromboplastin time: 33sec There are no signs of active bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
B. Platelet transfusion and fibrinogen replacement
C. Immediate induction of labor
D. Emergency cesarean section
E. Weekly fibrinogen monitoring and expect spontaneous delivery
278.A 37-year-old G4 P3 woman delivered a 4,100gram (9.02lbs) infant by spontaneous vaginal delivery one hour ago. This pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes for which she is being treated with insulin. The patient is currently on magnesium sulfate for elevated blood pressures and proteinuria. You are called to evaluate her because she began to have very heavy vaginal bleeding and is feeling lightheaded. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and pulse is 98/min. On physical examination you see heavy vaginal bleeding and numerous blood clots. Her cervix is closed and the uterus can be palpated 3cm above the umbilicus. The uterus feels boggy. The next best step in management is
A. Dilatation and curettage
B. Oxytocin infusion
C. Packing of the uterine cavity
D. Cesarean hysterectomy
E. Immediate uterine artery embolization
279.A seven-year-old girl is brought to the physician's office because of a sudden onset of growth spurt, pubic hair development, and breast enlargement. Her family history is not significant. She has no other medical problems. On examination, there is no hirsutism or acne. Her weight is 70th percentile and her height is 98th percentile. Examination showed a pelvic mass. Pelvic ultrasonogram showed a right ovarian mass. Initial evaluation showed elevated estrogen levels Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
C. Granulosa cell tumor
D. Mature teratoma
E. Serous cystadenoma
280.A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling of her hands and feet. Her previous prenatal check-up was normal. Blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg, and five minutes later following lateral rest her blood pressure is 140/95 mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema of the legs and a macular eruption on the cheekbones. Optic fundi show no abnormalities. Laboratory studies are as follows: Urinalysis: 4+ protein, RBC casts Urine protein: 8 g/24hr Uric acid: 5 mg/dl BUN: 28 mg/dl Serum creatinine: 2.1 mg/dl Serum electrolytes, liver function tests and coagulation studies are within normal limits. A serum antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is positive in high titers Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pregnancy induced hypertension
B. Chronic hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
E. HELLP syndrome
281.A 28-year-old nulliparous woman is being evaluated for infertility. She has no other medical problems. Pelvic examination reveals abundant mucous and a clear cervical secretion, which when lifted vertically extends in a long thread; pH is 6.5. This visit took place at which of the following phases of the menstrual cycle?
A.Early follicular phase
B. Ovulatory phase
C. Mid luteal phase
D. Late luteal phase
E. The secretion is abnormal
282.A 28-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit secondary to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp and occurring with movement and exercise. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits. She also denies any fever or chills. The application of a heating pad helps alleviate the discomfort. As her obstetrician, what should you tell this patient is the most likely etiology of this pain?
A. Round ligament pain
B. Appendicitis
C. Preterm labor
D. Kidney stone
E. Urinary tract infection
283.A 19-year-old G1P0 presents to her obstetrician’s office for a routine OB visit at 32 weeks gestation. Her pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes requiring insulin for control. She has been noncompliant with diet and insulin therapy. She has had two prior normal ultrasounds at 20 and 28 weeks gestation. She has no other significant past medical or surgical history. During the visit, her fundal height measures 38 cm. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy between the fundal height and the gestational age?
A. Fetal hydrocephaly
B. Uterine fibroids
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Breech presentation
E. Undiagnosed twin gestation
284.A 43-year-old G1P0 who conceived via in vitro fertilization comes into the office for her routine OB visit at 38 weeks. She denies any problems since she was seen the week before. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid per vagina, vaginal bleeding, or regular uterine contractions. She reports that sometimes she feels crampy at the end of the day when she gets home from work, but this discomfort is alleviated with getting off her feet. The fundal height measurement is 36 cm; it measured 37 cm the week before. Her cervical examination is 2 cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Instruct the patient to return to the office in 1 week for her next routine visit.
B. Admit the patient for induction caused by a diagnosis of fetal growth lag.
C. Send the patient for a sonogram to determine the amniotic fluid index.
D. Order the patient to undergo a nonstress test.
E. Do a fern test in the office.
285.A pregnant woman who is 7 weeks from her LMP comes in to the office for her first prenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy ended in a missed abortion in the first trimester. The patient therefore is very anxious about the well-being of this pregnancy. Which of the following modalities will allow you to best document fetal heart action?
A. Regular stethoscope
B. Fetoscope
C. Special fetal Doppler equipment
D. Transvaginal sonogram
E. Transabdominal pelvic sonogram
286.A 30-year-old G2P1001 patient comes to see you in the office at 37 weeks gestational age for her routine OB visit. Her first pregnancy resulted in a vaginal delivery of a 9-lb 8-oz baby boy after 30 minutes of pushing. On doing Leopold maneuvers during this office visit, you determine that the fetus is breech. Vaginal examination demonstrates that the cervix is 50% effaced and 1 to 2 cm dilated. The presenting breech is high out of the pelvis. The estimated fetal weight is about 7 lb. The patient denies having any contractions. You send the patient for a sonogram, which confirms a fetus with a double footling breech presentation. There is a normal amount of amniotic fluid present and the head is hyperextended in the “stargazer” position. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Allow the patient to undergo a vaginal breech delivery whenever she goes into labor.
B. Send the patient to labor and delivery immediately for an emergent cesarean section.
C. Schedule a cesarean section at or after 41 weeks gestational age.
D. Schedule an external cephalic version in the next few days.
E. Allow the patient to go into labor and do an external cephalic version at that time if the fetus is still in the double footling breech presentation
287.A 21-year-old nulligravid woman comes to her physician to discuss birth control options. She became sexually active for the first time 2 weeks ago. She is currently using condoms for contraception. Her past medical history is significant for asthma, which has been inactive for 2 years. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. She has no family history of cancer. Her examination is within normal limits. After a discussion with the physician, she chooses to take the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She stays on the pill for the next 6 years. She now has most significantly decreased her risk of developing which of the following malignancies?
(A) Breast cancer
(B) Cervical cancer
(C) iver cancer
(D) ung cancer
(E) Ovarian cancer
288.A 33-year-old woman presents to the physician because of a malodorous vaginal discharge that has been present for the past 3 days. She has no vaginal or vulvar irritation, and has no urinary complaints. Pelvic examination demonstrates a copious, gray discharge with a pH of 5.0. When 1 drop of potassium hydroxide (KOH) is added to a sample of the discharge there is an intense amine odor. A normal saline wet preparation is performed that demonstrates epithelial cells whose borders and nuclei are obscured by the presence of bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
(A) Candida albicans
(B) Chlamydia trachomatis
(C) Gardnerella vaginalis
(D) Lactobacillus species
(E) Trichomonas vaginalis
289.A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of vaginal itch and pain with intercourse. She had her last menstrual period at age 52. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and is allergic to penicillin. Pelvic examination demonstrates pale vaginal mucosa with no rugae present. The vagina is dry with no discharge. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) and normal saline wet preparation is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
(A) Clotrimazole vaginal cream
(B) Estrogen vaginal cream
(C) Metronidazole vaginal cream
(D) Oral fluconazole
(E) Oral metronidazole
290.A 32-year-old woman is brought to the operating room for diagnostic laparoscopy because of chronic pelvic pain and chronic right upper quadrant pain. She has had these pains for the past 2 years. Her bowel and bladder function are normal. Past medical history is significant for two episodes of gonorrhea. She drinks one beer per day. Laboratory studies show: Urine hCG: negative Haematocrit: 39% leukocyte count: 8,000/mm3 platelet count: 200,000/mm3 AST: 12U/L ALT: 14U/L Intraoperatively, the patient is noted to have dense adhesions involving her fallopian tubes, ovaries, and uterus. The fallopian tubes themselves appear clubbed and occluded. A survey of her upper abdomen is remarkable for perihepatic adhesions extending from the liver surface to the diaphragm. The liver otherwise appears unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for her right upper quadrant pain?
(A) Alcoholic cirrhosis
(B) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Hepatocellular carcinoma
(E) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
291.A 24-year-old female presents to you for the evaluation of acne. Further questioning, reveals that she also has had irregular periods for a long time. She is single and not sexually active. On examination, her BMI is 31 Kg/m2 and she has evidence of hirsutism. Further evaluation reveals increase in serum free testosterone and LH/FSH ratio of 2.4. Glucose tolerance testing reveals two-hour blood glucose of 155 mg/dl. Apart from prescribing oral contraceptive pills, which of the following is indicated in this patient?
A.Clomiphene citrate
B. Metformin
C. Insulin
D. Glipizide
E. No other medication needed
292.A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She was cleaning the house when she suddenly started feeling colicky pain in the suprapubic area. The pain did not subside after resting, and a few minutes later a tissue-like substance passed through her vagina along with moderate bleeding. The pain subsequently ceased, but she still has mild discomfort. Her temperature is 37.0° C (98.7° F), blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows a closed cervix and blood pooled in the vaginal vault. Ultrasonogram shows a vacant uterine cavity and free adnexae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Incomplete abortion
B. Molar pregnancy
C. Inevitable abortion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Complete abortion
293.A 25-year-old female presents to the physician's office for evaluation of infertility. Her menstrual periods are regular. She has mild chronic pelvic pain. Her husband's semen analysis is within normal limits. She has no history of sexually transmitted diseases in the past. Her temperature is 37.2° C (98.9°F), and her blood pressure is 120/72 mmHg. Physical examination shows a normal sized uterus and enlarged left adnexae. Ultrasonography shows a homogeneous mass on the left ovary, but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Endometriosis
B. Ovarian malignancy
C. Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Adenomyosis
E. Submucosal fibroid
294.A 14-year-old phenotypically female child is brought to your office by her mother who is concerned that her daughter has not had menstrual bleeding yet. Her past medical history is significant for an episode of severe bilateral pneumonia that required hospitalization when she was seven years old. Physical examination reveals Tanner stage 3 breast development, but very little pubic and axillary hair. Bilateral inguinal masses are palpated. A blind vaginal pouch is noted on pelvic exam. A karyotype analysis showed 46 XY. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Start progesterone supplementation
B. Start low-dose corticosteroid therapy
C. Perform gonadectomy immediately
D. Perform gonadectomy after completion of puberty
E. Reassurance and no further therapy
295.A 30-year-old woman in her second pregnancy presents to your office at 36 weeks gestation complaining of dull, low back pain. The pain is minimal in the morning, but increases at the end of the day. She also noticed ankle edema that appears at the end of the day. Her past medical history is insignificant. Her temperature is 36.7° C (98° F), blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's complaints?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Compression fracture of the vertebrae
D. Lumbosacral strain
E. Increased lumbar lordosis
296.A 26-year-old Caucasian female calls your office with a question about levothyroxine dosage during pregnancy. She is contemplating her first pregnancy very soon. You have been following her for primary hypothyroidism for several years. Her thyroid functions have been stable on a daily levothyroxine dose of 100µg. Her TSH level three months ago was 2.0 µU/ml (0.35 - 5.0 µU/ml is normal). What would be the most appropriate answer to this patient's question?
A. Ask her to increase her levothyroxine dose before becoming pregnant
B. She is most likely to increase her levothyroxine dose during pregnancy
C. Her levothyroxine dose will not change after she becomes pregnant
D. She is most likely to decrease her levothyroxine dose during pregnancy
E. Levothyroxine is contraindicated in pregnancy and she has to switch to liothyronine (T3)
297.A 50-year-old woman presents to your office complaining of severe insomnia, hot flashes, and mood swings. She also states that her mother had a hip fracture at 65 years of age. She is afraid of developing osteoporosis and having a similar incident. Her last menstrual period was six months ago. Her past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism diagnosed seven years ago. She takes L-thyroxine and the dose of the hormone has been stable for the last several years. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg and her heart rate is 75/min. Serum TSH level is normal. You consider estrogen replacement therapy for this patient. Which of the following is most likely concerning estrogen replacement therapy in this patient?
A. The level of total thyroid hormones would decrease
B. The metabolism of thyroid hormones would decrease
C. The requiren1ent for L-thyroxine would increase
D. The volume of distribution of thyroxine would decrease
E. The level of TSH would decrease
298.A previously healthy 50-year-old gravida 5, para 4, Caucasian woman comes to the physician complaining of passing small amounts of urine while sneezing or coughing for the past five months. She denies any episodes of weakness, numbness or fecal incontinence. There is no history of dysuria, increased frequency of urination, or hematuria. Her symptoms are progressively getting worse. Her other medical problems include diabetes mellitus-type 2 diagnosed 3 years ago, treated with glyburide 2.5mg/day. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs, and has no known drug allergies. She mentions that she is an avid jogger, but her problem causes her significant embarrassment. She now has to wear absorbent pads while jogging. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, the abdomen is soft. Neurological examination is within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a cystocele. The patient's labs reveal: Urine Specific gravity: 1.020 Blood: negative Glucose: negative Leukocyte esterase: negative Nitrites: negative WBC: 5-10/hpf Bacteria: none Random blood sugar is 120 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Detrusor instability
B. Bladder irritation from a neoplasm
C. Interstitial cystitis
D. Overflow incontinence due to detrusor weakness
E. Pelvic floor muscle weakness
299.A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 6 weeks gestation. She has no complaints except mild nausea. She quit tobacco and alcohol use after she learned that she was pregnant. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The screening VDRL test returns positive, as does the confirmatory FTA-ABS test. The patient has a history of an allergic reaction to penicillin. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Doxycycline
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Penicillin desensitization
300.A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. She is working as an aerobics instructor and is concerned about the effect her exercise schedule might have on the pregnancy. She teaches 30 minutes daily in the morning and does not feel fatigued. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
A. "You need to reduce the duration of exercise time to 15 minutes per day"
B. ''You need to reduce the intensity of exercise"
C. ''You should continue your current aerobic exercise schedule"
D. ''You may have prolonged labor during delivery"
E. ''You can even intensify your training efforts if you want"
{"name":"Gyneco USMLE 201-300", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"201.A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician's office for evaluation of vaginal dryness, burning and dyspareunia. She also has dysuria and increased urinary frequency. The symptoms have been present for several months but have intensified recently. She has tried over-the-counter lubricants with little relief. Her last menstrual period was seven years ago. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension and pravastatin for hypercholesterolemia. Physical examination shows scarce pubic hair and reduced elasticity and turgor of the vulvar skin. Pale, dry and smooth vaginal epithelium is noted. Urine dipstick is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?, 202.A 33-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, comes for a routine prenatal visit. According to her history, she is at 18-weeks gestation. Her family history is significant for Down syndrome on her maternal side. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal, and physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory studies show a decreased maternal serum alpha- fetoprotein (MSAFP). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?, 203.A 24-year-old woman presents to your office with a self-palpated breast lump. She discovered the mass 2 days ago while taking a shower and noted that it is mildly tender. Her menstrual periods are regular, occurring every 26 days. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 3 weeks ago. Her past medical history is insignificant. She has no family history of breast cancer. Physical examination reveals a lump in the superior outer quadrant of the right breast without palpable lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most reasonable next step in the management of this patient?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
Powered by: Quiz Maker