Micro exam 2019/20
Microbiology Mastery Quiz
Test your knowledge in microbiology with our comprehensive quiz based on real exam questions. This quiz features 60 questions covering a wide range of topics, including infectious diseases, bacterial resistance, and virology.
Whether you are a student preparing for exams or a healthcare professional looking to refresh your knowledge, this quiz is designed for you!
- 60 Questions
- Multiple Choice and Checkbox format
- Developed by experts
Which of the following prevents initiation of protein synthesis at 50S ribosome: Select one:
Tigecycline
Gentamicin
Linezolid
Tetracycline
Fosfomycin
Which property is responsible for the survival and replication of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in an infected patient?
Phagocytized bacteria inhibit phagosome lysosome fusion
Production of phospholipase C that degrades cellular membranes
Production of proteases that degrade IgM and IgG
Presence of a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis
Phagocytized bacteria inactivate lysosomal enzymes
Choose correct statement/s:
ASO titer is used in streptococcal pharyngitis diagnostic
Penicillin is a drug of choice for treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis
Ceftaroline cannot be used to treat MRSA infections
Streptococci are catalase-positive bacteria
Streptococci are responsible for suppurative diseases eg. Glomerulonephritis
Choose correct combination of virus and infection
Hemorrhagic cystitis – JC virus
Stomatitis herpetic – HSV
Condylomata lata – HPV
Infection of the spinal cord anterior horn cells – Rabies virus
Herpangina – Influenza virus
Choose true statement/s:
Cardiobacterium hominis is the Gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium responsible for endocarditis
Francisella Tularensis is typical, extracellular bacteria responsible for anthropozoonosis
Aggregatibacter belong to fast growly in blood cultures
Dental caries is caused mostly by S. Salivarius
Bartonella Henselae causes chronic, regional lymphadenopathy associated with cat scratch
Choose correct combination/s of toxin and its mode of action:
Pertussis toxin – inactivates G1 alpha surface protein activity
Shiga toxin – activation of protein synthesis
Tetanospasmin – spastic paralysis
Cholera toxin – diarrhea
Botulinum toxin – flaccid paralysis
Choose incorrect combination of antimicrobial agent and its mode of action: Select one:
Clindamycin – protein synthesis inhibition
Tigecycline – protein synthesis inhibition at 30s ribosome
Flucytosine – ergosterol synthesis inhibition
Oseltamivir – neuraminidase inhibition
Vancomycin – peptidoglycan synthesis inhibition
Choose correct combination of infections and recommended treatment: Select one:
Yersiniosis – in severe cases penicillin are used for treatment
Disseminated meningococcal disease – colistin and cefazolin
Furunculosis – penicillin G
Pertussis – tetracyclines shortens the duration of infectious period of the disease
Cholera – fluid and electrolytes replacement, in severe cases
Choose correct statement/s:
Smallpox is one of classic childhood exanthems
CMV establishes latency in memory B cells and is reactivated when B cell is activated
Measles – host range is limited to animals
Adenoviruses cause "pink eye"
Rotaviruses rare cause foodborne disease
Anatoxins are available for vaccination against:
Borreliosis
Typhoid fever
Salmonellosis
Pertussis
Diphtheria
Choose true statement/s concerning Influenza virus:
Viral hemagglutinin has enzyme activity
Major antigenic change resulting from mutation of HA and NA genes are called antigenic drift
Antigenic shift occur only with Influenza A virus
Antigenic drifts are often associated with the occurrence of pandemics
Influenza B is predominantly an animal virus
**The cause of tracheobronchitis and pneumonia mainly in school-age children (5-15 years). Infection, transmitted via droplet route is more common during summer and fall. In treatment macrolides are used. The characteristic most probably indicates:
Streptococcus pneumonia
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Legionella pneumophila
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
**Bacterial resistance to beta lactams results from all mentioned below, EXCEPT: Select one:
Prevention of the interaction between the antibiotic and the target PBPs
Efflux pump
Altered target PBPs
Hydrolysis of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes
Synthesis of new PBPs
Sterilization methods include all listed below, EXCEPT: Select one:
Filtration
Hydrogen peroxide vapor
Formaldehyde vapor
Pasteurization
Steam under pressure
Herpesviridae are the etiological agents of all infections listed below, except:
Burkitt’s lymphoma
Herpes zoster
Stomatitis herpetica
Condyloma acuminata
Infectious mononucleosis
Which of the following virulence factors predisposes to kidney stone formation and pyelonephritis:
Resistance to antibiotics
Avoidance of phagocytosis
Urease
Presence of fimbriae
LPS
Choose facultative anaerobic skin microbiota representatives:
Propionibacterium sp., Clostridium difficile
Proteus mirabilis, S. aureus
Bifidobacterium sp., Eubacterium sp
Corynebacterium sp., Staphylococcus epidermidis
E.coli, Citrobacter freundii
**Individuals with B-cell deficiencies are at high risk of developing infections caused by:
Extracellular bacteria
Molds
Enveloped viruses
Yeasts
Intracellular bacteria
Choose etiological agent/s of bite-wound infections (by human, dog, cat)
Staphylococcus aureus
Pasteurella Multocida
Eikenella corrodens
Mycobacterium avium
Ehrlichia
**Patients with C5, C6, C7, C8 components deficiencies are at risk of developing the infections caused by:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Adenoviruses
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Legionella pneumophila
HIV
Choose correct combination of toxin and disease associated with its activity: Select one:
Exfoliative toxin – puerperal fever
Panton Valentine Leukocidin – furunculosis
Shiga cytotoxin – food poisoning
Streptolysin S – TSST
TSST-1 – HUS
Which one of the metabolites is directly detected in patients serum in diagnosis of Aspergillus fumigatus invasive infection?
Galactomannan – cell wall component
Mannan – cytoplasmic component
Galactomannan – cell membrane component
Mannan – cell wall component
Capsular polysaccharide
Choose correct combination of pathogen and active drug:
Staphylococcus aureus – colistin
Candida glabrata – caspofungin
Haemophilus influenzae – cefazolin
Prevotella melaninogenica – ceftriaxone
Mycobacterium tuberculosis – ampicillin
Choose the drugs of choice used to treat meningitis in adults (age 18-50 years):
Erythromycin + cefotaxime
Ceftriaxone + vancomycin
Gentamicin + colistin
Penicillin G + erythromycin
Cefuroxime + gentamicin
Choose correct statement/s concerning invasive aspergillosis:
Voriconazole and amphotericin B are the treatment options
Is mostly associated with infections in patients with complement deficiencies
Aspergillosis is primary fungal infection
Caused by Aspergillus fumigatus is often documented by a positive blood culture
Digestive tract is the most frequent and most important portal of entry
Choose correct combination/s of specimen collected and virus detected:
Stool – Norovirus
Urine – HIV
Sputum – Rabies virus
Skin – Mumps virus
CSF – BK virus
Choose correct statement/s concerning dimorphic fungi:
Coccidioides immitis is one of its representatives
Laboratory diagnostic is based on biochemical assay
Fungi are responsible only for secondary infections
Fungi are responsible only for superficial infections
Filamentous forms occur in infected tissue
Choose correct combination of infection and bacterium isolated from blood in secondary blood infection onset:
Epiglottitis – Haemophilus influenzae
Intra-abdominal abscesses – Corynebacterium sp.
Swimmer ear – Serratia marcescens
Osteitis – E.coli
Erysipelas – Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Choose correct combination of virus and active antiviral agent:
HCV – Zidovudine
Influenza B – Amantadine
CMV – Ganciclovir
HSV-1 – Ribavirin
HIV – Oseltamivir
Sexually active, 23-year old man was admitted to a dermatologist to evaluate a small, painless ulcer on a penile shaft. This aroused a suspicion of syphilis. Which of the following tests should be approached to confirm the etiology of infection at this stage of infection?
Gram-stained smear observation
VDRL test
Dark Field microscopy
FTA-ABS test
Culture on artificial media
The diagnosis of early, localized Lyme disease is most commonly made by:
History of tick exposure in endemic areas
Detection of Borrelia burgdorferi in Giemsa-stained blood smear
Clinical diagnosis of erythema migrans
Detection of anti-Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies in the blood or CSF
Culturing of Borrelia burgdorferi
Which specimen is appropriate to confirm the indicated condition:
Pneumonia: swab from throat
Urethritis: midstream urine
Sinusitis: nasopharyngeal washings
Otitis media: ear swab
Epiglottitis: blood culture
Choose correct statement/s concerning prions:
Form aggregates of protease-sensitive, hydrophobic glycoprotein
Causative treatment is possible in early stage of prion disease
The infections may follow transplantation of contaminated tissue eg. cornea
Prion diseases can be only acquired
During the prion disease inflammation is observed
Choose the drug of choice used to treat purulent pharyngitis and tonsillitis considering the most common etiology:
Erythromycin
Piperacillin
Cloxacillin
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Gentamicin
Choose correct statement/s concerning tuberculosis:
Extrapulmonary tuberculosis rarely follows hematogenous spread of the bacteria
Is caused by obligate intracellular pathogens
To prevent vaccines with attenuated M. Tuberculosis is useful
First line anti-TB agents include rifampin and isoniazid
Is caused by Mycobacterium avium
Lipid A is a cell wall component of: Select one:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Cryptococcus neoformans
Candida glabrata
Choose correct statement/s concerning laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection:
Serologic tests can identify recently infected people
ELISA is used as confirmation assay
RNA RT-PCR is used to determine the presence of viral genome in patients' blood
HIV antibody may develop fast, 2-3 weeks in most patients
Ratio of CD4 to CD8 does not correlate with the status of HIV infection
Listeria monocytogenes infections may follow the consumption of: Select one:
Raw beef
Seafood
Oysters
Chicken eggs
Unpasteurized milk
Choose correct combination of virus and its mode of spread:
HBV – Fecal-oral route
Adenovirus – Sexual transmission
SARS CoV-2 – Droplet route
Measles virus – Fecal route
HAV – Blood transmission
Which organism is commonly associated with meningitis in 1-week-old infants?
Salmonella enteritidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus agalactiae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis
Choose correct combination of bacterium and clinical picture of the disease:
S. pyogenes – Erysipeloid
S. epidermidis – impetigo contagiosa
S. aureus – SSSS
S. agalactiae – meningitis in elderly Individuals
S. pneumoniae – aseptic meningitis
Coagulase – negative Staphylococci play an essential role in etiology of :
Osteomyelitis
Endocarditis of a prosthetic heart valve
Brain abscesses
Wound infection following skin injury
Intrabdominal abscesses
The 8-year-old boy was admitted to hospital with watery diarrhea progressing into bloody diarrhea and demonstrated acute abdominal pain. The hemorrhagic colitis was recognized, and the child was transferred to ICU. Symptoms occurred after ingestion of spinach. Which of the toxins is responsible for the disease symptoms?
Toxin of Vibrio cholerae
Enterotoxin of S. aureus
Cytotoxin of Clostridium difficile
Enterotoxin of Bacillus cereus
Verotoxin of E. coli
Choose true statement/s concerning blood collection for bacterial culture:
Blood sample is collected into transport-growth medium
Blood is collected from indwelling intravascular catheter
Gram-stained smear is performed directly from all blood samples; few
Approximately 5 ml of blood should be collected from an adult for each blood culture
Blood cultures should be incubated for a minimum 3 days
Acid fast bacteria, cultured on selective and special media, do not cultured on artificial media used in routine diagnostic, facultatively intracellular, the etiological agents of multiorgan infections that cause immune response mostly due to macrophages activation – the characteristic most probably indicates:
Shigella sp
Actinomyces Israeli
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Campylobacter Jejuni
Nocardia Asteroids
Choose fungal indicator diseases of AIDS:
Toxoplasma encephalitis
Mycobacteriosis
Burkitt’s lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma
Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis
Echinocandins: Select one:
Inhibit synthesis of DNA
Inhibit 1,3 beta – glucan synthesis in fungal cell membrane
Inhibit 1,3 – beta glucan synthesis in fungal cell wall
High toxicity is reported in patients
Act fungistatic
68-year-old female patient was admitted to hospital with fever, chills, productive cough and chest pain. 2-week earlier influenza was diagnosed. X-ray of the chest revealed lobar pneumonia. What is the most probable cause of described case?
Neisseria meningitidis
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Choose correct statement/s:
Transformation leads to acquisition of new genetic features due gene mutations
Plasmids are small genetic elements that replicate dependently of the bacterial Chromosome
Pathogenic bacteria don’t use a transposon-like mechanism to coordinate expression of a system of virulence factors
Transposons (jumping genes) are mobile genetic elements
Transduction is an active incorporation of foreign DNA
Choose a drug of choice used to treat vaginitis considering the most common etiology
Fluconazole
Acyclovir
Doxycycline
Erythromycin
Metronidazole
Choose correct statement/s concerning Bacillus cereus:
Inhalational form of the disease is associated with high mortality
Belong to obligates anaerobic bacteria
Sulfonamides are used to treat gastroenterocolitis caused by this bacterium
Is an etiological agent of anthrax
Is involved in food poisoning
Hospital acquired pneumonia in intensive care units are most commonly caused:
MRSA
Enterococcus sp. HLAR
Klebsiella pneumoniae ESBL positive
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Fluconazole resistant candida albicans
Purulent conjunctivitis is caused by the all etiological agents listed below, EXCEPT:
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Adenoviruses
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
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