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Micro exam 2019/20

A detailed illustration of bacteria, viruses, and fungi in a laboratory setting, with a background of medical textbooks and a microscope, colorful and educational

Microbiology Mastery Quiz

Test your knowledge in microbiology with our comprehensive quiz based on real exam questions. This quiz features 60 questions covering a wide range of topics, including infectious diseases, bacterial resistance, and virology.

Whether you are a student preparing for exams or a healthcare professional looking to refresh your knowledge, this quiz is designed for you!

60 Questions
Multiple Choice and Checkbox format
Developed by experts

60 Questions15 MinutesCreated by LearningPathways202

Which of the following prevents initiation of protein synthesis at 50S ribosome: Select one:

Tigecycline

Gentamicin

Linezolid

Tetracycline

Fosfomycin

Which property is responsible for the survival and replication of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in an infected patient?

Phagocytized bacteria inhibit phagosome lysosome fusion

Production of phospholipase C that degrades cellular membranes

Production of proteases that degrade IgM and IgG

Presence of a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis

Phagocytized bacteria inactivate lysosomal enzymes

Choose correct statement/s:

ASO titer is used in streptococcal pharyngitis diagnostic

Penicillin is a drug of choice for treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis

Ceftaroline cannot be used to treat MRSA infections

Streptococci are catalase-positive bacteria

Streptococci are responsible for suppurative diseases eg. Glomerulonephritis

Choose correct combination of virus and infection

Hemorrhagic cystitis – JC virus

Stomatitis herpetic – HSV

Condylomata lata – HPV

Infection of the spinal cord anterior horn cells – Rabies virus

Herpangina – Influenza virus

Choose true statement/s:

Cardiobacterium hominis is the Gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium responsible for endocarditis

Francisella Tularensis is typical, extracellular bacteria responsible for anthropozoonosis

Aggregatibacter belong to fast growly in blood cultures

Dental caries is caused mostly by S. Salivarius

Bartonella Henselae causes chronic, regional lymphadenopathy associated with cat scratch

Choose correct combination/s of toxin and its mode of action:

Pertussis toxin – inactivates G1 alpha surface protein activity

Shiga toxin – activation of protein synthesis

Tetanospasmin – spastic paralysis

Cholera toxin – diarrhea

Botulinum toxin – flaccid paralysis

Choose incorrect combination of antimicrobial agent and its mode of action: Select one:

Clindamycin – protein synthesis inhibition

Tigecycline – protein synthesis inhibition at 30s ribosome

Flucytosine – ergosterol synthesis inhibition

Oseltamivir – neuraminidase inhibition

Vancomycin – peptidoglycan synthesis inhibition

Choose correct combination of infections and recommended treatment: Select one:

Yersiniosis – in severe cases penicillin are used for treatment

Disseminated meningococcal disease – colistin and cefazolin

Furunculosis – penicillin G

Pertussis – tetracyclines shortens the duration of infectious period of the disease

Cholera – fluid and electrolytes replacement, in severe cases

Anthozoans include:

Lyme disease

Relapsing fever

Typhoid fever

Anaplasmosis

Choose correct statement/s:

Smallpox is one of classic childhood exanthems

CMV establishes latency in memory B cells and is reactivated when B cell is activated

Measles – host range is limited to animals

Adenoviruses cause "pink eye"

Rotaviruses rare cause foodborne disease

Anatoxins are available for vaccination against:

Borreliosis

Typhoid fever

Salmonellosis

Pertussis

Diphtheria

Choose true statement/s concerning Influenza virus:

Viral hemagglutinin has enzyme activity

Major antigenic change resulting from mutation of HA and NA genes are called antigenic drift

Antigenic shift occur only with Influenza A virus

Antigenic drifts are often associated with the occurrence of pandemics

Influenza B is predominantly an animal virus

**The cause of tracheobronchitis and pneumonia mainly in school-age children (5-15 years). Infection, transmitted via droplet route is more common during summer and fall. In treatment macrolides are used. The characteristic most probably indicates:

Streptococcus pneumonia

Chlamydia pneumoniae

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Legionella pneumophila

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

**Bacterial resistance to beta lactams results from all mentioned below, EXCEPT: Select one:

Prevention of the interaction between the antibiotic and the target PBPs

Efflux pump

Altered target PBPs

Hydrolysis of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes

Synthesis of new PBPs

Sterilization methods include all listed below, EXCEPT: Select one:

Filtration

Hydrogen peroxide vapor

Formaldehyde vapor

Pasteurization

Steam under pressure

Herpesviridae are the etiological agents of all infections listed below, except:

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Herpes zoster

Stomatitis herpetica

Condyloma acuminata

Infectious mononucleosis

Which of the following virulence factors predisposes to kidney stone formation and pyelonephritis:

Resistance to antibiotics

Avoidance of phagocytosis

Urease

Presence of fimbriae

LPS

Choose facultative anaerobic skin microbiota representatives:

Propionibacterium sp., Clostridium difficile

Proteus mirabilis, S. aureus

Bifidobacterium sp., Eubacterium sp

Corynebacterium sp., Staphylococcus epidermidis

E.coli, Citrobacter freundii

**Individuals with B-cell deficiencies are at high risk of developing infections caused by:

Extracellular bacteria

Molds

Enveloped viruses

Yeasts

Intracellular bacteria

Choose etiological agent/s of bite-wound infections (by human, dog, cat)

Staphylococcus aureus

Pasteurella Multocida

Eikenella corrodens

Mycobacterium avium

Ehrlichia

**Patients with C5, C6, C7, C8 components deficiencies are at risk of developing the infections caused by:

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Adenoviruses

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Legionella pneumophila

HIV

Choose correct combination of toxin and disease associated with its activity: Select one:

Exfoliative toxin – puerperal fever

Panton Valentine Leukocidin – furunculosis

Shiga cytotoxin – food poisoning

Streptolysin S – TSST

TSST-1 – HUS

Which one of the metabolites is directly detected in patients serum in diagnosis of Aspergillus fumigatus invasive infection?

Galactomannan – cell wall component

Mannan – cytoplasmic component

Galactomannan – cell membrane component

Mannan – cell wall component

Capsular polysaccharide

Choose correct combination of pathogen and active drug:

Staphylococcus aureus – colistin

Candida glabrata – caspofungin

Haemophilus influenzae – cefazolin

Prevotella melaninogenica – ceftriaxone

Mycobacterium tuberculosis – ampicillin

Choose the drugs of choice used to treat meningitis in adults (age 18-50 years):

Erythromycin + cefotaxime

Ceftriaxone + vancomycin

Gentamicin + colistin

Penicillin G + erythromycin

Cefuroxime + gentamicin

Choose correct statement/s concerning invasive aspergillosis:

Voriconazole and amphotericin B are the treatment options

Is mostly associated with infections in patients with complement deficiencies

Aspergillosis is primary fungal infection

Caused by Aspergillus fumigatus is often documented by a positive blood culture

Digestive tract is the most frequent and most important portal of entry

Choose correct combination/s of specimen collected and virus detected:

Stool – Norovirus

Urine – HIV

Sputum – Rabies virus

Skin – Mumps virus

CSF – BK virus

Choose correct statement/s concerning dimorphic fungi:

Coccidioides immitis is one of its representatives

Laboratory diagnostic is based on biochemical assay

Fungi are responsible only for secondary infections

Fungi are responsible only for superficial infections

Filamentous forms occur in infected tissue

Treatment of Legionnaires’ disease include:

Cephalothin

Ceftazidime

Penicillin G

Cefuroxime

Tetracycline

Choose correct combination of infection and bacterium isolated from blood in secondary blood infection onset:

Epiglottitis – Haemophilus influenzae

Intra-abdominal abscesses – Corynebacterium sp.

Swimmer ear – Serratia marcescens

Osteitis – E.coli

Erysipelas – Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Choose correct combination of virus and active antiviral agent:

HCV – Zidovudine

Influenza B – Amantadine

CMV – Ganciclovir

HSV-1 – Ribavirin

HIV – Oseltamivir

Mother-child transmission indicates:

HIV

HSV

Rotavirus

Varicella zoster virus

Parvovirus

Sexually active, 23-year old man was admitted to a dermatologist to evaluate a small, painless ulcer on a penile shaft. This aroused a suspicion of syphilis. Which of the following tests should be approached to confirm the etiology of infection at this stage of infection?

Gram-stained smear observation

VDRL test

Dark Field microscopy

FTA-ABS test

Culture on artificial media

The diagnosis of early, localized Lyme disease is most commonly made by:

History of tick exposure in endemic areas

Detection of Borrelia burgdorferi in Giemsa-stained blood smear

Clinical diagnosis of erythema migrans

Detection of anti-Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies in the blood or CSF

Culturing of Borrelia burgdorferi

Which specimen is appropriate to confirm the indicated condition:

Pneumonia: swab from throat

Urethritis: midstream urine

Sinusitis: nasopharyngeal washings

Otitis media: ear swab

Epiglottitis: blood culture

Choose correct statement/s concerning prions:

Form aggregates of protease-sensitive, hydrophobic glycoprotein

Causative treatment is possible in early stage of prion disease

The infections may follow transplantation of contaminated tissue eg. cornea

Prion diseases can be only acquired

During the prion disease inflammation is observed

Choose the drug of choice used to treat purulent pharyngitis and tonsillitis considering the most common etiology:

Erythromycin

Piperacillin

Cloxacillin

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Gentamicin

Choose correct statement/s concerning tuberculosis:

Extrapulmonary tuberculosis rarely follows hematogenous spread of the bacteria

Is caused by obligate intracellular pathogens

To prevent vaccines with attenuated M. Tuberculosis is useful

First line anti-TB agents include rifampin and isoniazid

Is caused by Mycobacterium avium

Lipid A is a cell wall component of: Select one:

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

Cryptococcus neoformans

Candida glabrata

Streptococcus pneumoniae produces:

Capsule

Protein A

Leucocidin

IgA protease

Alpha-hemolysin

Choose correct statement/s concerning laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection:

Serologic tests can identify recently infected people

ELISA is used as confirmation assay

RNA RT-PCR is used to determine the presence of viral genome in patients' blood

HIV antibody may develop fast, 2-3 weeks in most patients

Ratio of CD4 to CD8 does not correlate with the status of HIV infection

Listeria monocytogenes infections may follow the consumption of: Select one:

Raw beef

Seafood

Oysters

Chicken eggs

Unpasteurized milk

Choose correct combination of virus and its mode of spread:

HBV – Fecal-oral route

Adenovirus – Sexual transmission

SARS CoV-2 – Droplet route

Measles virus – Fecal route

HAV – Blood transmission

Which organism is commonly associated with meningitis in 1-week-old infants?

Salmonella enteritidis

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus agalactiae

Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria meningitidis

Choose correct combination of bacterium and clinical picture of the disease:

S. pyogenes – Erysipeloid

S. epidermidis – impetigo contagiosa

S. aureus – SSSS

S. agalactiae – meningitis in elderly Individuals

S. pneumoniae – aseptic meningitis

Coagulase – negative Staphylococci play an essential role in etiology of :

Osteomyelitis

Endocarditis of a prosthetic heart valve

Brain abscesses

Wound infection following skin injury

Intrabdominal abscesses

The 8-year-old boy was admitted to hospital with watery diarrhea progressing into bloody diarrhea and demonstrated acute abdominal pain. The hemorrhagic colitis was recognized, and the child was transferred to ICU. Symptoms occurred after ingestion of spinach. Which of the toxins is responsible for the disease symptoms?

Toxin of Vibrio cholerae

Enterotoxin of S. aureus

Cytotoxin of Clostridium difficile

Enterotoxin of Bacillus cereus

Verotoxin of E. coli

Choose true statement/s concerning blood collection for bacterial culture:

Blood sample is collected into transport-growth medium

Blood is collected from indwelling intravascular catheter

Gram-stained smear is performed directly from all blood samples; few

Approximately 5 ml of blood should be collected from an adult for each blood culture

Blood cultures should be incubated for a minimum 3 days

Acid fast bacteria, cultured on selective and special media, do not cultured on artificial media used in routine diagnostic, facultatively intracellular, the etiological agents of multiorgan infections that cause immune response mostly due to macrophages activation – the characteristic most probably indicates:

Shigella sp

Actinomyces Israeli

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Campylobacter Jejuni

Nocardia Asteroids

Choose fungal indicator diseases of AIDS:

Toxoplasma encephalitis

Mycobacteriosis

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Kaposi sarcoma

Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis

Echinocandins: Select one:

Inhibit synthesis of DNA

Inhibit 1,3 beta – glucan synthesis in fungal cell membrane

Inhibit 1,3 – beta glucan synthesis in fungal cell wall

High toxicity is reported in patients

Act fungistatic

68-year-old female patient was admitted to hospital with fever, chills, productive cough and chest pain. 2-week earlier influenza was diagnosed. X-ray of the chest revealed lobar pneumonia. What is the most probable cause of described case?

Neisseria meningitidis

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Streptococcus pyogenes

Staphylococcus aureus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Choose correct statement/s:

Transformation leads to acquisition of new genetic features due gene mutations

Plasmids are small genetic elements that replicate dependently of the bacterial Chromosome

Pathogenic bacteria don’t use a transposon-like mechanism to coordinate expression of a system of virulence factors

Transposons (jumping genes) are mobile genetic elements

Transduction is an active incorporation of foreign DNA

Oncogenic viruses include all listed below, EXCEPT:

HBV

HEV

EBV

HTLV

HPV

Choose a drug of choice used to treat vaginitis considering the most common etiology

Fluconazole

Acyclovir

Doxycycline

Erythromycin

Metronidazole

Choose correct statement/s concerning Bacillus cereus:

Inhalational form of the disease is associated with high mortality

Belong to obligates anaerobic bacteria

Sulfonamides are used to treat gastroenterocolitis caused by this bacterium

Is an etiological agent of anthrax

Is involved in food poisoning

Hospital acquired pneumonia in intensive care units are most commonly caused:

MRSA

Enterococcus sp. HLAR

Klebsiella pneumoniae ESBL positive

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Fluconazole resistant candida albicans

Purulent conjunctivitis is caused by the all etiological agents listed below, EXCEPT:

Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Adenoviruses

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus pyogenes

Antibiotic therapy is contraindicated for management of infections caused by:

Campylobacter Jejuni

Shigella Sonnei

Helicobacter pylori

E.coli O157

Clostridium difficile

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis include:

Sulbactam

Metronidazole

Amikacin

Erythromycin

Clavulanic acid

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