Pharmacology
Pharmacology Mastery Quiz
Test your knowledge in pharmacology with our comprehensive quiz! This quiz covers a range of topics, including anesthetics, sedatives, and analgesics, providing an opportunity for students and professionals alike to assess their understanding of this critical field.
- 100 multiple-choice questions
- Focused on pharmacological effects and drug classifications
- Ideal for students, educators, and practitioners
Atropine have the following pharmacodynamic effects:
A) Activates peristalsis causing the evacuation of the digestive tract
B) It has a digestive antispasmodic effect
C) Increase the heart rate
D) It has a bronchodilator action
Atropine is used in pre-anesthesia to reduce:
A) Convulsions
B) Stress
C) Secretion of the salivary glands
D) Pain
3. Which of the following information about sodium glycopyrrolate are false:
A) Induced tachycardia is less obvious compared to atropine
B) Accelerates the motility of the small intestine in dogs
C) Induces an exciting effect
D) It is recommended in spasm of the abdominal viscera
4. Nicotinic receptor sites are found in all of the following locations, EXEPT:
A) parasympathetic ganglia
B) sympathetic ganglia
C) skeletal muscle
D) bronchial smooth muscle
5. α1-Receptors are associated with which one of the following effects:
A) Cardioacceleration
B) Vasodilation
C) Pupillary dilation
D) Pupillary constriction
6. Which of the following adrenergic agonists at clinical doses produces dilation of vessels in muscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart?
A) Phenylpropanolamine
B) Isoproterenol
C) Epinephrine (adrenaline)
D) Dobutamine
7. During the period of recovery from anesthesia, is attention paid to the following issues:
A) Prevention of heat loss
B) Evolution of the pupil and the position of the eyeballs
C) Changing the position of the head
D) Postoperative hydratation
8. Which of the following anesthetics does not sensitize the myocardium to catecholamines:
A) Nitrogen oxide
B) Methoxyflurane
C) Enfluran
D) Isoflurane
9. Which are the concentrations used in Isoflurane anesthesia:
A) Induction 3 - 5%; 1-2% maintenance
B) Induction 2.5 - 4.5%; maintenance 1-3%
C) Induction 3.5 - 4.5%; maintenance 2 - 4%
D) Induction 1.5 - 2.5%; maintenance 3 - 4%
10. Which the following statement is not correct about thiobarbiturates:
A) Distributes rapidly in the brain, causing rapid anesthesia
B) With their redistribution in muscle and fat, the concentration in the brain increases
C) Post-narcotic sleep is shorter in species with rich adipose tissue
D) Post-narcotic sleep is longer in species with little adipose tissue
11. Hypnotic substances have the following pharmacodynamic actions:
A) Depressing on the CNS and promotes the installation of physiological sleep
B) Stimulating on the CNS and promotes the installation of physiological sleep
C) Decreased brain activity and motor capacity
D) It does not act on the CNS
12. Which of the following statements is correct for tranquilizers?
A) They can be used in the excitation phase of some nervous disorders
B) Enhances anesthesia and/or local anesthesia
C) Prevent operator shock
D) They have a convulsive action
13. Neuroleptic-induced vegetative-lytic syndrome is characterized by?
A) Actuation/excitation of the thermoregulatory center
B) Anti-vomiting effect
C) Increased appetite
D) None of the options is correct
14. Which of the following statement is a correct about phenothiazine tranquilizers?
A) They also have potent analgesic activity.
B) They stimulate α1-adrenergic receptors to induce hypertension.
C) Most of them are desirable restraining agents for aggressive dogs
D) They suppress emesis by blocking dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptortrigger zone.
15. Which of the following statements about xylazine are true:
A) Has the ability to eliminate ketamine-induced hypertension in dogs and cats
B) It has a sedative action
C) Induces muscle relaxant and analgesic effects
D) The duration of local anesthesia is about 15-80 minutes
16. Which of the following statements about detomidine are true:
A) Recommended for all animal species
B) Induces xylazine-like cardiovascular disorders in horses
C) Induces long-term sedation and analgesia
D) Cannot be combined with ketamine or butophanol
17. IV administration of an α2-agonist produces all of the following pharmacological effects, EXCEPT:
A) bradycardia
B) increased GI motility
C) transient hypertension
D) diuresis
18. The α2-agonist with the most selectivity and potency for α2-receptors is:
A) medetomidine
B) detomidine
C) romifidine
D) xylazine
19. Which of the following statements about atipamezole (Antisedan®) are true:
A) It is an α2 adrenoceptor agonist
B) Neutralizes the pharmacodynamic effect of xylazine, detomidine, medetomidine and romifidine
C) The dose of atipamezole is 4-5 times higher than the dose of anesthetic used
D) No special attention should be paid to animals with heart failure and shock
20. Which of the following statements about medetomidine are true:
A) Administered intravenously, it acts in maximum 2 minutes
B) Induces bradycardia and bradypnea
C) The intensity of the sedative and analgesic effects is not dose dependent
D) Cannot be associated with opioids
21. Which of the following statements about ketamine are true:
A) Produces dissociative anesthesia
B) It has fast action without excitation phase
C) It has no analgesic qualities
D) It has a strong bronchodilator effect
22. Which of the following statements about tiletamine are true:
A) It is similar to ketamine, but with more intense effects at the same dosage
B) Do not combine with minor tranquilizers (diazepam, zolazepam, etc.)
C) It has no muscle relaxant qualities
D) May induce amnesia
23. Which one of the following statements concerning buprenorphine are true?
A) It is a partial agonist opioid with partial agonist activity at the μ-receptor and agonist activity at the κ-receptor.
B) It is an agonist–antagonist opioid with partial agonist activity at the μ-receptor.
C) It is a very potent μ-agonist used to immobilize nondomestic ungulates.
D) It is an α2-adrenoreceptor agonist in the central and peripheral nervous system.
24. Inhalant anesthetics vary in how quickly the alveolar concentration (blood concentration) will approximate the inspired concentration. Which one of the following anesthetics has the fastest rate of rise in alveolar concentration?
A) Sevoflurane
B) Desflurane
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Isoflurane
25. Which one of the following anesthetics is an NMDA receptor antagonist?
A) Thiopental
B) Propofol
C) Etomidate
D) Ketamine
26. Which injectable anesthetic is best suited for use in a small animal requiring an outpatient procedure?
A) Propofol
B) Pentobarbital
C) Thiopental
D) Tiletamine-zolazepam
27. Which of the following statements about propofol are true:
A) The animal recovers quickly from anesthesia
B) The duration of action in cats is longer than in dogs
C) It has no analgesic qualities
D) Has affinity for adipose tissue, risk of accumulation
28. In which situations is propofol recommended:
A) When the aim is to perform a short-term or medium-term anesthesia
B) When aiming for a fast and safe induction
C) When aiming for rapid loss of consciousness
D) None of the options is correct
29. Naloxone is a total antagonist for the group of medicines:
A) Butyrophenone
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Alpha 2-agonists
D) Opioids
30. Which of the following is the most frequently seen adverse effect of the prostaglandin inhibitors?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Gastric ulcers
C) Renal papillary necrosis
D) Anemia
31. The antipyretic effect of an NSAID can result from all of the following except:
A) Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis in the central nervous system
B) Dilation of the peripheral vasculature
C) Sweating
D) Lowering body temperature in both normal and febrile animals
32. All of the following concerning the pharmacological actions of aspirin are true, EXCEPT
A) Reversible inhibition of COX-1.
B) Significant drug interaction with anticoagulants.
C) GI ulceration and hemorrhage.
D) Antiplatelet effects.
33. Which of the following is the correct statement concerning COX-2 inhibitors?
A) They decrease platelet function
B) They have greater analgesic activity than other NSAIDs
C) Their anti-inflammatory activity is better than that of other NSAIDs
D) They cause less gastric ulceration than other NSAIDs
34. Which of the following is an incorrect statement concerning the drug interactions of NSAID?
A) Concurrent use of a glucocorticoid is encouraged, since this practice will ensure better anti-inflammatory activity.
B) Concurrent use of diazepam may increase the activity of both drugs.
C) Concurrent use of gentamicin can increase nephrotoxicity of NSAID.
D) Concurrent use of two NSAIDs should be avoided.
35. Which of the following statements about diuretics are true:
A) Furosemide, ethacrynic acid and thiazides increase kaliuresis
B) Spironolactone prevents the reabsorption of sodium ions and the secretion of potassium and hydrogen in the distal tube
C) Mannitol (osmotic diuretic) causes a predominantly aqueous diuresis
D) None of the options is correct
36. Regarding the indications of thiazide diuretics, which are false information:
A) Chronic heart failure
B) Chronic liver and / or kidney disease
C) Acute heart failure
D) High doses cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia and hypermagnesemia
37. About mannitol, which are true information:
A) It is indicated in the early stages of acute renal failure
B) It is recommended as an immediate treatment in acute intoxications with nephrotoxic substances
C) Not indicated in acute intoxications with aminoglycosides, barbiturates, acetylsalicylic acid.
D) It is indicated in cerebral edema and acute glaucoma crisis
38. About furosemide, which are true information:
A) Eliminate a large volume of isotonic or slightly hypotonic urine
B) Eliminates an increased amount of sodium, potassium, chlorine, calcium and magnesium ions
C) The increase in diuresis occurs quickly and is maintained for a short time;
D) All variants are incorrect.
39. Which of the following exemple is not a side effect of furosemide:
A) Dehydration
B) Electrolyte depletion (eg hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hypokalemia)
C) Azotemia
D) Pulmonary toxicity (eg acute respiratory distress syndrome)
40. About carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, which are the true information:
A) Sodium is no longer reabsorbed
B) Decreases urine volume
C) Decreases the alkaline reserve of the blood
D) It leads to the accumulation of H+ in body fluids, acidosis occurs
41. In cases of severe generalized edema, which of the following fluid compartments is increased in volume?
A) Intracellular
B) Interstitial
C) Transcellular
D) Plasma
42. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance leading to dehydration, muscle weakness, hypokalemia, and CNS depression may result from high or prolonged dosage with:
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Amiloride
C) Furosemide
D) Theophylline
43. Regarding pimobendan, all the following are true, EXCEPT:
A) Elimination in the dog is primarily via hepatic metabolism.
B) The drug is often called an inodilator.
C) The drug has phosphodiesterase III inhibiting effects.
D) The drug substantially increases myocardial oxygen requirement while increasing contractility.
44. Which of the following statements about pimobendan is correct?
A) It is an inodilator used in the treatment of chronic heart failure in dogs
B) It is a diuretic with beta-blocking properties
C) In cats, the half-life is almost three times shorter than in dogs
D) Increases survival time and improves quality of life in dogs with congestive heart failure
45. A purely venous vasodilator would be most useful in treating which of the following conditions?
A) Chronic, stable dilated cardiomyopathy
B) Aortic regurgitation from endocarditis
C) Cardiac tamponade with ascites
D) Mitral regurgitation with acute pulmonary edema
46. The effects of digital cardiotonic glycosides are characterized by?
A) Positive inotropic effect
B) Positive batmotropic effect
C) Negative dromotropic effect
D) Negative chronotropic effect
47. In general, digoxin would be indicated for a dog with
A) Dilated cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation
B) Heartworm disease
C) Pericardial effusion
D) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
48. The mechanism of action of digoxin’s positive inotropic effect is:
A) direct stimulation of the Na+–Ca2+ exchanger
B) competitive inhibition of Na+, K+-ATPase
C) activation of Gs protein
D) peripheral and central sympathetic stimulation
49. A dog is presented in severe heart failure from dilated cardiomyopathy; you decide to institute therapy with a catecholamine. Regarding dopamine and dobutamine, all the following are true, EXCEPT:
A) Both agents have a t 1/2 between 10 and 20 minutes
B) Both agents have extensive hepatic metabolism
C) Long-term use is limited by β-receptor down-regulation.
D) Dopamine is more arrhythmogenic than dobutamine.
50. Drugs which act by blocking β-adrenergic receptors comprise which class of antiarrhythmic agents?
A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV
51. Which antiarrhythmic drug is INCORRECTLY matched with its classification?
A) Lidocaine—Class IA
B) Procainamide—Class IA
C) Tocainide—Class IB
D) Quinidine—Class IA
52. When used IV, lidocaine has all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
A) It usually suppresses premature ventricular contractions
B) It consistently abolishes atrial arrhythmias
C) It decreases Na+ conductance in automatic cells
D) It has little to no effect on sinus node pacemaker function
53. Heparin is used in cats after acute thromboembolism because of its inhibitory effects on coagulation. In combination with antithrombin III, it neutralizes all the following factors, EXCEPT:
A) XII
B) X, XI
C) VIII
D) IX
54. Which of the following statements regarding route of administration for fluid therapy is correct?
A) The oral route causes more adverse effects than most of other routes.
B) The rectal route may be useful when standard IV access is impossible.
C) KCl in the concentration of 30 mEq/L is best given IV if parenteral administration is necessary.
D) The SC route is versatile in dogs and cats because it can be used to administer a large amount of isotonic, hypertonic, or hypotonic solution
55. Which of the following statements are true recommendations for rehydration therapy?
A) It is recommended in hypovolemia by dehydration
B) Not indicated in acute and chronic diarrhea
C) It is recommended for exhausted animals
D) None of the options is true
56. What are the factors that determine the amount of fluid to be administered to the animal?
A) Determination of % dehydration and estimation of water deficit
B) Amount of body water maintenance
C) Water losses at the time of intervention
D) None of the options is correct
57. Which of the following statements about dextran are correct?
A) They produce an increase in the circulating volume
B) The duration of the effect is 6 hours
C) It is pharmacologically inactive
D) It is very toxic
58. Which of the following colloid solutions has the shortest duration of action?
A) 6% Hetastarch
B) 6% Dextran 70
C) 10% Dextran 40
D) 5% Oxypolygelation
59. Flucytosine absorption is achieved rapidly and completely when?
A) It is administered intravenously;
B) It is administered orally;
C) In the absence of the food.
D) None of the options is correct d) None of the options is correct
60. Flucytosine activity spectrum does not include:
A) Aspergillus and Coccidioides immunitis
B) Cryptoccus neoformons, Candida albicans, Cladosporium spp
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) Gram-positive bacteria
61. Co-administration of fluconazole and erythromycin may increase the risk of:
A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Cardiotoxicity
D) Encephalopathy
62. Therapeutic activity of griseofulvin is more effective when administered:
A) Orally and in ultramicronized form
B) Intravenous and in ultramicronized form
C) Subcutaneous and in micronized form
D) Intramuscularly and in ultramicronized form
63. Which are the therapeutic indications for griseofulvin:
A) Dermatophytosis of the skin, hair and nails
B) Nematodes of small animals
C) Candidiasis infections
D) Viral infections
64. Co-administration of amphotericin B with colistin potentiates:
A) Therapeutic effect
B) Cardiac toxic effect
C) Renal toxic effect
D) Ototoxicity
65. All of the following statements concerning ketoconazole are true, EXCEPT:
A) It is more effective than flucytosine for meningeal cryptococcosis since it penetrates the CNS more completely
B) It inhibits ergosterol synthesis in both systemic mycotic infections and candidiasis (yeast infections)
C) Cortisol and testosterone synthesis in mammals is inhibited at high doses
D) It must be administered for 3–6 months in therapy for systemic mycoses
66. Ketoconazole is characterized by:
A) Very high toxicity
B) Relatively low toxicity
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Cardiotoxicity
67. What is the most widely used antifungal in the treatment of Aspergillus fumigatus infections:
A) Terbinafine
B) Clotrimazole
C) Itraconazole
D) Flucitozine
68. Nystatin is used to treat mycoses caused by fungi such as:
A) Candida, Aspergillus, Sporotrichum
B) Tricophyton
C) Microsporum
D) It has no antifungal action
69. Which of the following enilconazolol indications in veterinary medicine are correct:
A) It is a topical antifungal used in the treatment of dermatophytosis in animals
B) It is a systemic antifungal
C) It is active against the genera Aspergillus and Penicillium
D) None of the options is correct
70. What does the term "antibiotic" mean?
A) Synthetic analogues of natural substances that destroy protozoa and helminths
B) Substances produced by some micro-organisms and their synthetic analogues which selectively destroy or inhibit the growth of another micro-organism
C) Inorganic or synthetic substances which selectively destroy or inhibit the growth of other micro-organisms
D) Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that inhibit the growth of cells in the body
71. A good example of the responsible use of antibiotics in animals is:
A) Use of a broad-spectrum antibiotic instead of a narrow-spectrum antibiotic
B) Prescribing antibiotics before vaccination to prevent possible infections
C) Avoiding the use of antibiotics for bacterial infections secondary to a viral infection.
D) The selection of antibiotics should be made on the basis of the antibiogram
72. Which is the most important factor in the selection of antibiotics:
A. Age of the animal
B. A definite indication for the use and choice of antibiotics
C. Previous experience with the use of antibiotics in animals in similar situations
D. Price
73. Which of the following uses of antibiotics in farm animals is no longer approved:
A. Prevention
B) Treatment
C) Control
D. Growth promoter
74. Which are the mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance:
A) Inactivation or destruction of the antibiotic
B) Inhibition of antibiotic entry into the cell
C) Target modification (antibiotic binding site) so that the antibiotic molecule can no longer react with cellular components
D) Elimination of antibiotic (active efflux)
75. Infectious or transferable drug resistance, which involves transfer of multiple-drug resistant genes via pili, has been observed clinically in Gram(–) infections of the:
A) Urinary tract
B) Intestinal tract
C) Respiratory tract
D) Skin
76. A therapeutic protocol with anti-infectious substances should aim at:
A) Maintaining a serum concentration above the MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)
B) Do not administer the therapeutic dose more than 4 times
C) The curative dose should be higher than the preventive one
D) None of the options is correct
77. To be active, an antibiotic must:
A) To penetrate all barriers to its bacterial target
B) Not to be inactivated
C) Be able to relate to his target
D) Act locally to reduce the risk of toxicity
78. The bacteriostatic effect means:
A) Inhibition of bacterial growth
B) Destruction of bacterial cells
C) Acceleration of bacterial cell division
D) Accelerating the division of young bacterial cells
79. What are the general principles of anti-infectious therapy:
A) Optimal route of administration, dose, frequency of dosing and duration of treatment
B) Identification of bacterial infection and susceptibility of the microorganism
C) Non-involvement of microbiological factors
D) All are correct
80. The minimum duration of antibacterial treatment is usually:
A) Not less than 5 or 7 days
B) Not less than 10-14 days
C) Not less than 3 weeks
D) Not less than 1 day
81. The rational combination of antimicrobials is used to:
A) A broad spectrum of antimicrobial action
B) To prevent antibiotic resistance
C) Antibacterial synergism (when microorganisms are not effectively eradicated with just one antibiotic)
D) All
82. Which of the following antibiotic combinations is correct:
A) Crystalline penicillin and chloramphenicol
B) Crystalline penicillin and streptomycin
C) Ciprofloxacin and streptomycin
D) Sulfamides and penicillin
83. Which of the following statements about antibiotic associations are correct:
A) The main reason for the association of antibiotics in veterinary medicine is to obtain a broad or ultra-wide antibacterial spectrum.
B) The combination of two bacteriostatic antibiotics does not usually lead to a synergistic effect
D) Bactericidal antibiotics active in the multiplication phase may be associated with bacteriostatic antibiotics
C) The associations lead to the limitation of the toxicity of some antibiotics, by reducing the doses of each one
84. Antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis are:
A) Beta-lactam antibiotics
B) Tetracyclines
C) Macrolides
D) Aminoglycosides
85. Considering the pharmacology of the penicillin G and the first-generation cephalosporins, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:
A) They inhibit peptidoglycan cross-linking in the third stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis
B) Bacterial resistance is most commonly due to β-lactamase production.
C) Tissue penetration of cephalosporins is superior to penicillin G and thus they are preferred for antibiotic prophylaxis in surgery.
D) They are eliminated primarily by hepatic metabolism and biliary excretion of conjugated drug.
86. Which beta-lactamase inhibitors are used with amoxicillin and ampicillin:
A) Clavulanic acid
B) Tazobactam
C) Sulbactam
D) All are correct
87. Cephalosporins are recommended for the treatment of:
A) Infections with gram-negative microorganisms
B) Viral infections
C) Infections with gram-positive microorganisms
D) Infections with gram-negative and gram-positive microorganisms, if penicillins have no effect
88. Trimethoprim or ormetoprim combined with a sulfonamide results in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) a sequential blockade of folate synthesis in susceptible bacteria
B) a decreased ability of sulfonamides to produces dry keratoconjunctivitis (KCS).
C) a decrease in the rate of development of resistant bacteria.
D) an extended antibacterial spectrum.
89. Two semisynthetic penicillins that are effective against Pseudomonas spp. are:
A) Methicillin and ampicillin
B) Ampicillin and amoxicillin
C) Amoxicillin and ticarcillin
D) Ticarcillin and piperacillin
90. The aminoglycoside antibiotics such as amikacin and gentamicin:
A) Are lipid soluble and distribute widely to tissues including the CNS
B) Are not effective against Gram(–) anaerobes because their uptake by bacteria is oxygen linked.
C) Are bacteriostatic at therapeutic concentrations
D) Are well absorbed orally if they are enteric coated to protect them from gastric acid
91. Adverse reactions to the aminoglycoside antibiotics include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Neuromuscular blockade
B) Myelosuppression and anemia
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Ototoxicity
92. Tetracyclines are broad spectrum and bacteriostatic by a mechanism of action that involves
A) Binding to the 30S ribosome to inhibit the addition of aminoacids to the growing peptide chain
B) Binding to phospholipids in bacterial cell membranes to increase permeability
C) Binding to the 50S ribosome to inhibit peptidyl transferase
D) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
93. Considering the pharmacology of the and tylosin, all of the following are false, EXCEPT:
A) inhibits the first step of cell wall synthesis and thus is bactericidal in growing bacteria.
B) may produce anemia by blocking iron uptake in erythroblasts
C) antibacterial spectrum includes mycoplasma
D) is usually effective in organisms resistant to erythromycin
94. Considering the pharmacology of the and clindamycin, all of the following are false, EXCEPT:
A) Is primarily active against Gram (–) pathogens
B) Is used in equine enteric infections since it is a poorly absorbed “enteric” macrolide
C) Distribution is generally limited to the ECF
D) Is frequently effective in staphylococcal osteomyelitis
95. Which of the following antibiotics have a bacteriostatic effect:
A) Carbapeneme
B) Cephalosporins
C) Lincosamide
D) Aminoglycosides
96. Which of the following therapies is not correct?
A) Lincomycin—swine dysentery
B) Florfenicol—bovine respiratory disease
C) Tetracycline—psittacosis in birds
D) Chloramphenicol—mycoplasmal pneumonia in swine
97. Three antibiotic used topically or orally but not parenterally (primarily because of nephrotoxicity) are:
A) streptomycin, kanamycin, bacitracin
B) polymixin B, bacitracin, neomycin
C) bacitracin, tiamulin, polymixin B
D) neomycin, gentamicin, rifampin
98. What is the antibiotic that inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis:
A) Imipenem
B) Rifampicin
C) Chloramphenicol
D) Erythromycin
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