USMLE_Management II

A 19-year-old G1 at 40 weeks gestation presents to the hospital with the complaint of contractions. She states they are very painful and occurring every 3 to 5 minutes. She reports good fetal movement and denies any leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding. The nurse places an external tocometer and fetal monitor and reports that the patient is having contractions every 4 to 12 minutes. The nurse states that the contractions are mild to moderate to palpation. On examination the cervix is 1 cm dilated, 60% effaced, and the vertex is at −1 station. The patient had the same cervical examination in your office last week. The fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 19-year-old G1P0 African American woman who is at 30 weeks’ gestation is admitted to the hospital from the obstetrics clinic after being found to have an elevated blood pressure during a routine prenatal visit. She complains of a constant headache, intermittent blurred vision, and episodic nausea and vomiting for the last week. Before this week her pregnancy has been uncomplicated, and her prenatal visits have not revealed any health problems. Vital signs are: blood pressure 180/110 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, respirations 26/min. She is afebrile. Physical examination reveals a systolic ejection murmur and 1+ pitting edema bilaterally. Laboratory studies show: Liver Function Test: Albumin: 3.9g/dl, Alkaline phosphatase: 230U/L, ALT(SGPT): 133U/L, AST(SGOT): 103U/L, Bilirubin unfractionated:1.1mg/dl, Total protein: 6.0g/dl. Hematologic: Hematocrit: 29%, Leukocytes: 8,200/mm3, Platelets: 8,900/mm3, PT: 12sec (normal: 11 to 15 sec), aPTT: 22sec(normal: 20-35sec), Urine dipstick: Specific gravity: 1.030, Hemoglobin: Trace, Glucoose: 1+, Protein: 2+, Leukocyte esterase: negative, Nitrite: negative. The patient is hospitalized and placed on bed rest. Her hypertension is controlled with hydralazine, and she is placed on a magnesium sulfate drip for seizure prophylaxis. Over the next 3 days, her liver enzyme levels continue to climb and her platelet count drops to 50,000/mm3. Which of the following is an additional medication that should be given at this time?

A 19-year-old G1P0 woman presents to the emergency department in active labor and delivers a full-term male infant. The infant appears healthy with the exception of jaundice (bilirubin 10 mg/dL [>95th percentile]). The mother does not speak English, but a cousin who does states that he has seen the mother taking pills prescribed by her doctor, although he does not know the reason she was taking medication. Based on the newborn’s jaundice, which drug was the mother most likely taking?

A 19-year-old gravida 2, para 1 woman presents at her first prenatal visit complaining of a rash, hair loss, and spots on her tongue. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 112/74 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination is significant for a maculopapular rash on her trunk and extremities, including her palms and soles. She has "moth-eaten" alopecia and white patches on her tongue. Her uterus is 10 week size, which is consistent with her dating by last menstrual period. The rest of her examination is unremarkable. RPR and MHA-TP are positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A 19-year-old known patient with bipolar disorder presents to her psychiatrist for a follow-up visit. She experienced her first manic episode three years ago and was then immediately placed on lithium. She has had no relapses and remains asymptomatic. Today she inquires about the possibility of discontinuing her medication. Her mother is apprehensive, however, about the prospect and asks the psychiatrist to continue the medication for a longer period. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's condition?

A 19-year-old male college student returns from spring break in Fort Lauderdale, Florida, with complaints of acute pain and swelling of the scrotum. Physical examination reveals an exquisitely tender, swollen right testis that is rather hard to examine. The cremasteric reflex is absent, but there is no swelling in the inguinal area. The rest of his genitourinary examination appears to be normal. A urine dip is negative for red and white blood cells. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old man comes to the office and says, "Doctor! I have been having a peculiar problem lately. My stool has a funny color. First, it was black and almost sticky. Yesterday, it became maroon. In fact, today I saw some bright red blood." He denies any associated pain or fever. He is adopted, and his family history is unknown. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination is normal, but his stool is positive for occult blood. Laboratory studies reveal a hematocrit of 29% and hemoglobin concentration of 9.6 g/dL. Colonoscopy reveals hundreds of colonic polyps, which are identified as adenomatous polyps with the biopsy. What is the appropriate recommendation for this patient at this point?

A 19-year-old man complains of chest pain while playing basketball on his high school team. Paramedics are called and he is rushed to the hospital. Physical examination reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and a crescendodecrescendo systolic ejection murmur that gets louder with Valsalva maneuver. Echocardiography reveals thickened left ventricular walls and dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. What is the best first step in management?

A 19-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the emergency department because of severe left lower quadrant pain. She has been noticing this pain intermittently for the past 3 days, but this afternoon it became persistent and severe and was accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Examination shows left lower quadrant tenderness and a tender left adnexal mass. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 7 cm left ovarian complex mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician for a routine annual check-up. She complains of weight gain of approximately 10 lbs (4.5 kg) over the last year. She feels that this is related to her oral contraceptive pill use. She has no previous medical problems. She became sexually active at the age of 18. She has been sexually active with one partner for the past 2 months. She and her partner use condoms inconsistently, but use combination oral contraceptive pills regularly for contraception. Vital signs are normal. Her body mass index is 25 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to this patient?

A 19-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician's office for a routine annual check-up. She complains of weight gain of about 10lbs over the last year. She feels this is related to her oral contraceptive pill use. She has no previous medical problems. She had her first sexual intercourse at the age of 18. She has been sexually active with one partner for the past 2 months. She and her partner use condoms inconsistently, but use oral contraceptive pills regularly for contraception. Vital signs are normal. Her body mass index is 25 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to this patient?

A 19-year-old previously healthy man is an unbelted driver of a motor vehicle involved in a front-end collision. On arrival in the emergency department, the patient is noted to have stridor, with marked respiratory distress, and an oxygen saturation of 88% despite 100% oxygen by mask. He has obvious extensive facial injuries, a flail chest, and poor chest expansion. Bag-mask-valve ventilation is ineffective. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 12 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date, and her past medical history is unremarkable. Her medications include a multivitamin with iron and a folate supplement daily. She has no known drug allergies. Examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 12 weeks gestation. Clean-catch urine culture grows >100,000 colony-forming units/ml of Escherichia coli Sensitivity testing on the bacteria is pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?

A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician's office because of w eight gain and mild generalized body swelling. She has no previous medical problems and her pregnancy has been otherwise uncomplicated. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Physical examination show s mild generalized edema; the remainder of her examination is unremarkable. A fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 48%, Platelets: 230,000/mm3, Serum creatinine: 1.0 g/dl, Alanine aminotransferase: 35 U/L, Urinalysis: 2 +protein. Amniotic fluid analysis show s immature fetal lungs. She lives close to the hospital and is compliant with medication follow-ups. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician's office because of weight gain and mild generalized body swelling. She has no previous medical problems and her pregnancy has been otherwise uncomplicated. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows mild generalized edema; the remainder of her examination is unremarkable. A fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 48%, Platelets: 230,000/mm3, Serum creatinine: 1.0 g/dl, Alanine aminotransferase: 35 U/L, Urinalysis: 2+protein. Amniotic fluid analysis shows immature fetal lungs. She lives close to the hospital and is compliant with medication follow-ups. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She takes one multivitamin and one iron tablet daily. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 34 weeks gestational age. Routine clean-catch urine culture grows greater than 100,000 colonies/ml of Escherichia coli Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound. Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old primigravida at term has been completely dilated for 21/2 hours. The vertex is at 2 to 3 station, and the position is occiput posterior. She complains of exhaustion and is unable to push effectively to expel the fetus. She has an anthropoid pelvis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management to deliver the fetus?

A 19-year-old woman at 32 weeks’ gestation was the driver in a front-end motor vehicle crash. The air bags did not inflate, and the patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen. The patient is taken to a nearby emergency department in stable condition, where she notes a small amount of bright red blood on her underwear. Maternal vital signs are significant for a heart rate of 110/min and blood pressure of 110/55 mm Hg. What is most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of fever, shaking chills and lower abdominal pain. She had an abortion at an outside clinic 3 days ago. Her temperature is 39.8C (103.7F), blood pressure is 100/65mmHg, pulse is 114/min and respirations are 26/min. Physical examination shows mild rigidity and guarding. Fundal height is at 12 weeks gestation, the adnexae are free and no mass is noted. Bimanual examination shows uterine tenderness with purulent, offensive vaginal discharge coming out of a dilated cervical os. Which of the following is the most appropriate sequence in management?

A 19-year-old woman comes to the office because of irregular vaginal spotting. She always has had normal periods that occur every 28 days and last 5 days, and so this is particularly concerning. She is sexually active with her boyfriend of 3 years and has been taking oral contraceptive pills that you prescribed 2 months ago. She has no known medical problems besides seasonal allergies and has never had any surgery. She takes the oral contraceptive pill daily and loratadine intermittently, but takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination, including pelvic examination, is unremarkable. Urine hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine physical examination. She has no complaints. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no significant past medical history and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72 mm Hg. Complete physical examination, including pelvic examination, is unremarkable. A cervical swab is sent for nucleic acid amplification of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The nucleic acid amplification test returns positive for chlamydia infection and negative for gonorrhea. The patient is still asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 19-year-old woman presents for voluntary termination of pregnancy 6 weeks after her expected (missed) menses. She previously had regular menses every 28 days. Pregnancy is confirmed by β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG), and ultrasound confirms expected gestational age. Which of the following techniques for termination of pregnancy would be safe and effective in this patient at this time?

A 19-year-old woman presents to the physician's office for routine physical examination and Pap smear. She has no complaints. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no significant past medical history and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72mm Hg. Complete physical exam including pelvic examination is unremarkable. Cervical swab is sent for nucleic acid amplification of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. One week later, the nucleic acid amplification test returns positive for Chlamydia infection. The patient is still asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate next step in the management?

A 19-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and psychosis comes to the physician requesting a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. Her menses usually occur every 30 days. She is sexually active with one partner and occasionally uses condoms. She is concerned because she has gained 3 kg (6lb) in the past 3 months. She also complains of breast tenderness and milky-white discharge from both nipples. She denies headaches, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for this patient's symptoms?

A 19-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, is immediately status post a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery and normal third stage when she develops brisk bright red bleeding from the vagina. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. She has asthma, which worsened during the pregnancy. Ten years ago, she had a tonsillectomy. She takes a steroid and albuterol inhaler. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 16/min. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Her uterus is soft and "boggy" to palpation. Pelvic examination reveals no evidence of a laceration. Which of the following treatments should be avoided in managing this patient's postpartum hemorrhage?

A 19-year-oldgangmemberisshotintheabdomenwith a .38 caliber revolver. The entry wound is in the epigastrium, to the left of the midline. The bullet is lodged in the psoas muscle on the right. He is hemodynamically stable, and the abdomen is moderately tender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 2-month-old child of an HIV-positive mother is followed in your pediatric practice. Which of the following therapies should be considered for this child?

A 2-month-old female infant born at term is brought to the office for a well-baby visit. Her antenatal and birth histories are unremarkable. Her developmental milestones are all normal for her age. Ophthalmoscopic examination reveals a white reflex in the right eye. The rest of the examination is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 2-week-old baby girl is brought to the clinic for the evaluation of vaginal discharge. Her mother has noticed a cloudy white vaginal discharge mixed with blood since yesterday. She was born by normal vaginal delivery at term, and no congenital anomalies were noted at birth. Physical examination reveals a blood-stained, odorless vaginal discharge. Her vital signs are stable. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 2-year-old boy is hospitalized for severe pneumonia requiring endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. His hemoglobin level is 13.2 mg/dl and his WBC count is 3,200/mm3. The absolute level of CD3- positive lymphocytes is normal but the level of CD 19-positive lymphocytes is very low. This patient would benefit most from which of the following as a maintenance therapy?

A 2-year-old child has been shot in the arm in a drive-by shooting. His brachial artery was partially transected, and there was copious bleeding. The EMTs control the site of bleeding by local pressure, and the child is no longer losing blood; however, he is hypotensive and tachycardic. IV fluid resuscitation is urgently needed, but several attempts at starting peripheral IV lines have been unsuccessful. Which of the following would be the best alternative route in this situation?

A 2-year-old child is brought by an anxious mother to the emergency department because of difficulty in breathing for the past 12 hours. The child has a history of runny nose that started 3 days ago. He suddenly developed a progressively increasing difficulty in breathing. The mother reports that the child "sounds like a barking dog when he coughs." The child's temperature is 37.7C (99.9F), respirations are 30/min, blood pressure is 90/60mm Hg, and pulse rate is 104/min. He is coughing and using his accessory muscles of respiration. His oxygen saturation is 98% on 2L of oxygen. He is diagnosed with laryngotracheobronchitits, started on humidified oxygen, and kept in an upright position. After 20 minutes, he becomes more irritable, his oxygen saturation drops to 92%, respirations increase to 40/min, and pulse increases to 120/min. His blood pressure and temperature are unchanged. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 2-year-old child was recently adopted from India. She appears to be healthy, and there are no abnormal symptoms. Her weight and height are at 25th percentile for age. Her examination is normal. On screening, you find a positive TB skin test using purified protein derivative (PPD) with 20 mm induration. She has a history of receiving a BCG vaccination at birth. Your management plan is to do which of the following?

A 2-year-old girl is playing in the garage with her Chihuahua, only partially supervised by her father, who is weed-whacking around the garden gnomes in the front yard. He finds her in the garage, gagging and vomiting. She smells of gasoline. In a few minutes she stops vomiting, but later that day she develops cough, tachypnea, and subcostal retractions. She is brought to your emergency center. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in management?

A 2-year-old girl is referred to the hospital for evaluation of her inability to gain weight. She is well fed by her parents, but appears to tire during feedings and has been losing weight despite frequent high-calorie meals. There is no family history of developmental delay or short stature. She is well dressed, her hair is brushed, and she is playful but tires quickly. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 110/min, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 24/min. She has a harsh 2/6 holosystolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal border, which is unchanged and has been present since birth. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 20-year old GOPO woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding and right lower quadrant pain. Her last menstrual period was approximately 5 weeks ago. She is sexually active and uses condoms occasionally. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 14/min. Examination shows mild right lower quadrant tenderness, but no rebound or guarding. There is no active vaginal bleeding and the cervical os is closed. Her initial hemoglobin is 11.0 g/dl. She is Rh positive and a quantitative β-HCG is 1000 mIU/mL. A vaginal ultrasound is done and no intrauterine or extrauterine pregnancy can be seen. Which of the following is next best step in management?

A 20-year-old college student comes to the student health clinic concerned that she may be pregnant. She states that she has had a steady boyfriend for the last 2 years and that they regularly use condoms for birth control. Last night the condom broke, however, and the patient is extremely worried that she may have become pregnant. Although she has mixed feelings about terminating an advanced pregnancy, she is not opposed to terminating an early pregnancy, and wants to know if she can take an “abortion pill” that she has heard about in the news. Her last menstrual period was 14 days ago, and her last gynecologic examination, which included a negative Pap smear, was 10 months ago. She has no previous illnesses and has a negative review of systems. She does not smoke, drinks only rarely, and does not use any illicit substances. Vital signs are: temperature 37.0 C (98.6 F), blood pressure 118/78 mmHg, pulse 72/min, and respirations 20/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Given her request, which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A 20-year-old female at 34 weeks of gestation develops a lower urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the best choice for treatment?

A 20-year-old female college student is brought to the emergency department by police at 2:30 am after she was caught attempting to enter the White House. She is highly agitated and is pacing around the examination room. Upon further questioning, she states that she just flew in from Texas to meet with the president because she has a "foolproof plan for eliminating terrorism worldwide in just seven days." She adds that she has barely slept for the past ten nights because she has been working intensively on this plan. She speaks very quickly, but periodically stops to angrily shout, "I'm going to sue all of you for interfering with my right to meet with the president." The evaluation has to be stopped because she demands that she be allowed to leave. Family history is significant for major depression in her mother. Vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 148/84 mmHg, pulse 98/min, and respiratory rate 22/min. Which of the following medications should be administered to this patient immediately?

A 20-year-old female comes to the physician because she has never had a period. She has no medical problems, has never had surgery, and takes no medications. Examination shows that she is a tall female with long extremities. She has normal size breasts, although the areolas are pale. She has little axillary hair. Pelvic examination is significant for scant pubic hair and a short, blind-ended vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 20-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Room by her college roommate who states that the patient vomited all night. The patient complains of a sore throat and says she has not eaten for the last two days. She admits to a "sugar problem" and quit taking her medication because she has not been eating. Examination reveals an ill-appearing woman. Her temperature is 37.9 C (100.2 F), blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg, pulse is 160/min, and respirations are 30/min. The patient's lips and mucous membranes are dry. There is a fruity odor noted to the patient's breath. The lung and cardiac examination are unremarkable except for mild tachypnea and tachycardia. Laboratory analysis shows: Sodium 130 mEq/L, Potassium 6.1 mEq/L, Chloride 100 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 8 mEq/L, Urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL, Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL, Glucose 680 mg/dL, pH 7.15, pCO2: 30 mm Hg, pO2: 85 mm Hg, Urinalysis is positive for ketones. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A 20-year-old G1 at 38 weeks gestation presents with regular painful contractions every 3 to 4 minutes lasting 60 seconds. On pelvic examination, she is 3 cm dilated and 90% effaced; an amniotomy is performed and clear fluid is noted. The patient receives epidural analgesia for pain management. The fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. One hour later on repeat examination, her cervix is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?

A 20-year-old G1 at 41 weeks has been pushing for 21/2 hours. The fetal head is at the introitus and beginning to crown. It is necessary to cut an episiotomy. The tear extends through the sphincter of the rectum, but the rectal mucosa is intact. How should you classify this type of episiotomy?

A 20-year-old G1P0 at 30 weeks gestation with a known placenta previa is delivered by cesarean section under general anesthesia for vaginal bleeding and nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. The baby is easily delivered, but the placenta is adherent to the uterus and cannot be completely removed, and heavy uterine bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 20-year-old G1P0 presents to your clinic for follow-up for a suction dilation and curettage for an incomplete abortion. She is asymptomatic without any vaginal bleeding, fever, or chills. Her examination is normal. The pathology report reveals trophoblastic proliferation and hydropic degeneration with the absence of vasculature; no fetal tissue is identified. A chest x-ray is negative for any evidence of metastatic disease. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?

A 20-year-old G1P1 is postpartum day 2 after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a 6-lb 10-oz baby boy. She is trying to decide whether to have you perform a circumcision on her newborn. The boy is in the wellbaby nursery and is doing very well. In counseling this patient, you tell her which of the following recommendations from the American Pediatric Association?

A 20-year-old woman complains of skin problems and is noted to have erythematous papules on her face with blackheads (open comedones) and whiteheads (closed comedones). She has also had cystic lesions. She is prescribed topical tretinoin, but without a totally acceptable result. You are considering oral antibiotics, but the patient requests oral isotretinoin, which several of her college classmates have used with benefit. Which of the following statements is correct?

A 20-year-old woman has developed low-grade fever, a malar rash, and arthralgias of the hands over several months. High titers of anti-DNA antibodies are noted, and complement levels are low. The patient’s white blood cell count is 3000/μL, and platelet count is 90,000/μL. The patient is on no medications and has no signs of active infection. Which of the following statements is correct?

A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of vaginal discharge and vulvar pruritus. She has no other medical problems. Physical examination reveals a thin, malodorous vaginal discharge and erythema of the vulva and vaginal mucosa. No other exam abnormalities are noted. Wet-mount preparation of the discharge shows motile pear-shaped organisms. Which of the following management options is most appropriate?

A 20-year-old woman with a family history of von Willebrand disease is found to have an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 78 (normal = 32) on routine testing prior to cholecystectomy. Further investigation reveals a prothrombin time (PT) of 13 (normal = 12), a platelet count of 350,000/mm3, and an abnormal bleeding time. Which of the following should be administered in the perioperative period?

A 20-year-old, gravida 1, para 0, at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of moderate vaginal bleeding. She has a colicky suprapubic pain radiating to the back and denies the passage of tissue through her introitus. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. She has no history of trauma or serious illness. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 100/65 mm of Hg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 17/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and the products of conception can be seen through it. Her blood type is AB Rh negative and her antibody titer is 1:2. Ultrasonogram shows a ruptured gestational sac with no fetal heart motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 21-year-old college student undergoes surgery to remove a small cyst in his palm at the base of his third digit. He receives an axillary regional block prior to die procedure but still has discomfort post-operatively. Injection of anesmetic in which of the following sites may be used to treat his pain?

A 21-year-old female military recruit presented to the physician's office because of pain in her right foot. The pain started a few weeks ago and initially only occurred with activity, but now the pain is present even at rest. She has no history of obvious trauma. Examination shows swelling and warmth in the foot and point tenderness over the second metatarsal. Plain films of the foot show a hairline fracture of the shaft of the second metatarsal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 21-year-old female presents with an annular pruritic rash on her neck. She explains that the rash has been present for the past 3 weeks and that her roommate had a similar rash not long ago. Physical examination is remarkable for a 20-mm scaling, erythematous plaque with a serpiginous border. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this condition?

A 21-year-old female, G1P0, who recently emigrated from Zimbabwe presents for prenatal counselling in her 34th week of pregnancy. She received no prenatal care. Ultrasound evaluation reveals lower-than-normal fetal length and markedly reduced fetal head size. Which of the following could have prevented this condition?

A 21-year-old G2P1 at 25 weeks gestation presents to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath. She reports a history of asthma and states her peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) with good control is usually around 400. During speaking the patient has to stop to catch her breath between words; her PEFR is 210. An arterial blood gas is drawn and oxygen therapy is initiated. She is afebrile and on physical examination expiratory wheezes are heard in all lung fields. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A 21-year-old G2P2 calls her physician 7 days postpartum because she is concerned that she is still bleeding from the vagina. She describes the bleeding as light pink to bright red and less heavy than the first few days postdelivery. She denies fever or any cramping pain. On examination she is afebrile and has an appropriately sized, nontender uterus. The vagina contains about 10 cc of old, dark blood. The cervix is closed. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A 21-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit after attempting to commit suicide by overdosing on some pills he found in the medicine cabinet at home. A psychiatry consult is ordered. While interviewing the patient, the psychiatrist observes that the patient has a "blank" expression on his face and is minimally responsive. He refuses to make eye contact and speaks in monosyllables. An attempt is made to obtain a more detailed history from the patient's father. He describes his son as very aloof, having avoided the other children in the neighborhood and participated in few activities as a child. His son dropped out of school in ninth grade and has not been able to maintain jobs throughout the years because of his social difficulties. He adds that his son has been increasingly isolated this past year and that he has complained his deceased mother frequently asks him to "join her in heaven." Which of the following medications would provide the greatest benefit to this patient?

A 21-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. His temperature is 36.0°C (97.0°F), pulse is 110/min, blood pressure is 102/60 mmHg, and respirations are 26/min. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Abdomen is soft, non-tender and non-distended. Chemistry panel shows: Sodium 130 mEq/L, Potassium 5.2 mEq/L, Chloride 90 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 10 mEq/L, Blood glucose 450 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 21-year-old previously healthy man presents to your office for a routine check-up. He has no current complaints. He does not smoke or consume alcohol. His family history is significant for cystic fibrosis in his older brother. He is sexually active with one partner and uses condoms regularly. He visits a dentist twice per year. His temperature is 36.6°C (97.9°F), pulse is 78/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg. Physical examination reveals several non-tender, rubbery cervical lymph nodes, each measuring approximately 1 cm in diameter. There is no hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

A 21-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with painful contractions every three minutes. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. Examination shows her cervix to be 3 centimeters dilated and 90% effaced. The fetal heart rate tracing is in the 150s and reactive. 5 hours later cervical examination reveals that the patient is 9 centimeters dilated and at -1 station. The fetal heart rate tracing shows moderate variable decelerations with each contraction and decreased variability. Fetal scalp sampling is performed that yields fetal scalp pH of 7.04, 7.05, and 7.06. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 21-year-old woman asks you to evaluate a small painless lump in the midline of her neck that moves with swallowing. You make the clinical diagnosis of thyroglossal duct cyst. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A 21-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation is admitted for delivery. She has severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows 3+ pitting edema of the legs and brisk deep tendon reflexes. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show elevated BUN, serum creatinine and serum transaminases. Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria. Intravenous hydralazine and magnesium sulfate was initiated on admission. After stabilization, intravenous oxytocin and artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) was administered for induction of labor. Two hours later, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 78/min and respirations are 9/min. Repeat examination shows hyporeflexia and a completely effaced cervix that is 5 cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of "bumps" on her vulva that she has just recently noticed. These bumps do not cause her symptoms, but she wants to know what they are and wants them removed. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and has no allergies to medications. She smokes one-half pack of cigarettes per day. She is sexually active with 3 partners. Examination shows 3 cauliflower-like lesions on the right labia majora. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 21-year-old woman complains of progressive weakness and loss of energy. She nearly collapsed yesterday while performing one of her routine 3 hour workouts. Additionally, she has been performing badly in college despite persistent attempts to improve her grades. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 102/58 mmHg, heart rate of 113/min, fine hair covering her face, and normal heart and lungs. Laboratory studies show the following findings: Sodium 140 mEq/L, Potassium 24 mEq/L, Calcium 10.1 mg/dL, Chloride 90 mEq/L, Bicarbonate 40 mEq/L, Urine chloride 14 mEq/L. Which of the following is most likely to correct the laboratory abnormalities in this patient?

A 21-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 22 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of a malodorous vaginal discharge. She states that she first noticed the discharge 2 days ago and since then it has become more profuse and malodorous. Her prenatal course has been unremarkable during this pregnancy. Her prior pregnancy was complicated by preterm labor and delivery at 31 weeks' gestation. Examination shows a grayish vaginal discharge. A strong amine odor is released when KOH is applied to a sample of the discharge. Examination of a normal saline ("wet") preparation reveals numerous "clue" cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A 21-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of spotting after intercourse and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her prenatal course has, up to now, been uncomplicated, and she has no medical problems. Speculum examination shows inflammation of the cervix with a mucopurulent cervical discharge. A gonorrhea and Chlamydia test is performed which comes back positive for chlamydia. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A 22-year-old Caucasian male is evaluated for an episode of syncope that occurred while playing soccer. It lasted only 2 minutes without any post-syncopal confusion, sleepiness or weakness. He had prior episodes of dizziness while playing active sports as well as vague chest discomfort. His uncle died suddenly at a young age. Auscultation of his precordium reveals a III/IV systolic murmur along the left sternal border. The patient is most likely to benefit from which of the following medications?

A 22-year-old college student calls his psychiatrist because for the past week, after cramming hard for finals, his thoughts have been racing and he is irritable. The psychiatrist notes that the patient’s speech is pressured as well. The patient has been stable for the past 6 months on 500 mg of valproate twice a day. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in the management of this patient’s symptoms?

A 22-year-old convenience store clerk is shot once with a .38 caliber revolver. The entry wound is in the left midclavicular line, 2 inches below the nipple. There is no exit wound. He is hemodynamically stable. A chest x-ray film shows a small pneumothorax on the left, and demonstrates the bullet to be lodged in the left paraspinal muscles. In addition to the appropriate treatment for the pneumothorax, which of the following will this patient most likely need?

A 22-year-old female comes to the physician complaining of pain during sexual activity. She is unable to have intercourse because her vagina becomes tense, resulting in intense pain upon penetration. She is living with her boyfriend and this is her first sexual relationship. She now avoids intercourse because of her fear of the pain. She has no history of serious illness. Speculum examination is not possible due to tense perineal musculature. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 22-year-old female presents with complaints of heat intolerance, sweating and palpitations. She also reports menstrual irregularities, increased appetite and diarrhea. Her pulse is 102/min and regular, blood pressure is 116/80 mmHg, temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination reveals a diffusely enlarged, nontender thyroid gland. TSH level is 0.05 mU/L. Free T4 and T3 levels are elevated. Radioactive iodine uptake at 24 hours is 50 percent. Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins are present. She is started on propylthiouracil 300 mg daily in three divided doses. After two weeks, she returns and complains of a sore throat. Her pulse is 98/min and regular, temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 115/76 mmHg, and respirations are 15/min. The soft palate, pharynx, and tonsils are red and swollen. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 22-year-old G1P1 who is postpartum day 2 and is bottle-feeding complains that her breasts are very engorged and tender. She wants you to give her something to make the engorgement go away. Which of the following is recommended to relieve her symptoms?

A 22-year-old G3P0030 obese female comes to your office for a routine gynecologic examination. She is single, but is currently sexually active. She has a history of five sexual partners in the past, and became sexually active at age 15. She has had three first-trimester voluntary pregnancy terminations. She uses Depo-Provera for birth control, and reports occasionally using condoms as well. She has a history of genital warts, but denies any prior history of abnormal Pap smears. The patient denies use of any illicit drugs, but admits to smoking about one pack of cigarettes a day. Her physical examination is normal. However, 3 weeks later you receive the results of her Pap smear, which shows a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL). Which of the following factors in this patient’s history does not increase her risk for cervical dysplasia?

A 22-year-old male, recently incarcerated and now homeless, has received one week of clarithromycin for low-grade fever and left upper-lobe pneumonia. He has not improved on antibiotics, with persistent cough productive of purulent sputum and flecks of blood. Repeat chest x-ray suggests a small cavity in the left upper lobe. Which of the following statements is correct?

A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling from a motorbike. He has right wrist pain. His temperature is 37.1C (98.6F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 17/min. He is well oriented and cooperative. His pupils are bilaterally reactive. Physical examination shows no signs of trauma except for marked tenderness in the right anatomical snuff box. An x-ray film of the wrist joint shows a radiolucent line across the waist of the right scaphoid bone. Which of the following is the most next step management?

A 22-year-old man is examined following a motor vehicle accident. He has a right knee dislocation which is reduced in the emergency room. He has palpable pedal pulses and is neurologically intact. Which of the following is an appropriate next step in his workup and management?

A 22-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest with a 5-cm-long knife blade. On arrival at the emergency department, he is wide awake and alert. He is speaking with a normal tone of voice but complaining of shortness of breath. The right hemithorax is hyperresonant to percussion and has no breath sounds; the rest of the initial survey is negative. His blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and venous pressure is 3cm H2O. Pulse oximetry shows a saturation of 85%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient care?

A 22-year-old man presents to the ED complaining of dysuria for 3 days. He states that he has never had this feeling before. He is currently sexually active and uses a condom most of the time. He denies hematuria but notes a yellowish discharge from his urethra. His BP is 120/75 mm Hg, HR is 60 beats per minute, and temperature is 98.9°F. You send a clean catch urinalysis to the laboratory that returns positive for leukocyte esterase and 15 white blood cells per high power field (WBCs/hpf). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 22-year-old man undergoes an exploratory laparotomy after a gunshot wound to the abdomen. The patient has multiple injuries, including a significant liver laceration, multiple small-bowel and colon injuries, and an injury to the infrahepatic vena cava. The patient receives 35 units of packed RBCs, 15 L of crystalloid, 12 units of fresh-frozen plasma (FFP), and 12 packs of platelets. The patient’s abdomen is packed closed and he is taken to the intensive care unit for further resuscitation. Which of the following warrants a decompressive laparotomy?

A 22-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the physician with lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She is unable to keep anything down. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills. The patient's last menstrual period was 15 days ago. Her temperature is 39C (102.2F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes, soft and symmetrical abdomen, and diffuse tenderness over the lower quadrants. External genitalia show no abnormalities; speculum examination shows purulent discharge from the cervical os. The uterus is normal in size but is tender to palpation and motion. The adnexae are markedly tender but no palpable mass is noted. Cervical cultures are pending. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

A 22-year-old primagravida woman develops hypertension at 28 weeks. She is asymptomatic and the examination is normal except for 1+ pedal edema. Her complete blood count, liver enzymes, and electrolytes are normal. The urinalysis is positive for proteinuria. Which of the following is true for this type of hypertension?

A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 8 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. She has had some nausea but no other complaints. She has had no bleeding per vagina or abdominal pain. She had an ovarian cystectomy at age 18 but no other medical or surgical problems. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. Examination is unremarkable except for an 8-week-sized non-tender uterus. The patient wants information on vitamin supplementation during pregnancy. Which of the following represents the correct amount of vitamin A supplementation this patient should take daily?

A 22-year-old primigravid woman at term comes to the labor and delivery ward because of painful contractions every 2 minutes. She has had no gush of fluid and no bleeding from the vagina. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination shows that her cervix is 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced; the fetus is at 0 station. The fetal heart rate has a baseline in the 150s and is reactive. The patient desires an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should be given orally shortly before the epidural is placed?

A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 6 weeks gestation. She has no complaints except mild nausea. She quit tobacco and alcohol use after she learned that she was pregnant. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The screening VDRL test returns positive, as does the confirmatory FTA-ABS test. The patient has a history of an allergic reaction to penicillin. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes to the labor and delivery ward at term with regular, painful contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. She has a past medical history significant for mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation demonstrated on echocardiography. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination shows that her cervix is 4 centimeters dilated and the fetus is in vertex presentation. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A 22-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks gestational age. She voices concern because she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest, and arms. She is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins and wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?

A 22-year-old primiparous woman is in premature labor at 30 weeks’ gestation. Despite administration of tocolytic agents, it seems she will deliver soon. Pulmonary maturity might be enhanced by the administration of which of the following drugs?

A 22-year-old professional basketball player falls on his outstretched hand during a scrimmage game. He has mild swelling at the wrist and tenderness to palpation in the anatomic snuffbox. No fracture is visible on multiple radiographs of the wrist and hand. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

A 22-year-old university student complains of fatigue and malaise for the past 2 weeks. She also reports feeling feverish, and recently had a sore throat. Physical examination reveals enlarged tonsils and palpable cervical lymph nodes. There is also tenderness in the right upper quadrant on deep palpation, and minimal splenomegaly. Laboratory data show hemoglobin 13 g/dL; hematocrit 40%; platelets 340,000/mL; WBC 9400/mL, with 35% segmented neutrophils, 1% eosinophils, and 64% lymphocytes, of which 36% were atypical. A heterophil antibody (sheep cell agglutination) test is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this condition?

A 22-year-old white female is brought to your office by her mother because of the recurrent syncopal episodes. The first episode occurred about one year ago when her roommate committed suicide and then several similar episodes occurred usually provoked by a strong emotion. The episodes are preceded by light-headedness, weakness, and blurred vision and last about three minutes with rapid recovery of consciousness. Past medical history is insignificant. She is not taking any medications and denies drug abuse. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg while supine and 108/70 mmHg while standing. Physical findings are within normal limits. EKG performed one month ago was normal. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 22-year-old white male presented to the emergency room (ER) with the sudden onset of acute right upper quadrant pain. The ultrasound showed cholelithiasis. Initial evaluation revealed hemoglobin of 9 gm/dl with an MCV of 90 fl and a total reticulocyte count of 1000 cells per microliter. Peripheral smear revealed polychromatophilia and spherocytes. Liver function tests revealed an elevated indirect bilirubin and normal hepatic enzyme levels. Physical examination is consistent with pallor. The patient's parents were killed in an accident when he was 8-year-old, and the patient does not know anything about the family history. Which of the following is the most correct statement about this patient's condition?