Pharmaco Prof Dararith 2
Pharmaco Prof Dararith Quiz
Welcome to the Pharmaco Prof Dararith Quiz, designed to test your knowledge in pharmacology, with a special focus on fibrinolytics, antiplatelets, and anticoagulants. This quiz consists of 66 multiple-choice questions that will challenge your understanding and retain your expertise in cardiovascular pharmacotherapy.
Engage with our content and enhance your learning experience:
- Deepen your pharmacological understanding.
- Prepare for exams or certifications.
- Test your knowledge against peers.
52. What is the MOA of fibrinolytic drugs
A. Direct clot dissolution
B. Anti caproic acid
C. anti-fibrin formation
D. Plasmin formation
53. What fibrinolytic drugs are specific to fibrin in thrombus?
A. alteplase
B. duteplase
C. streptokinase
D. urokinase
E. a + b
F. c + d
54. What fibrinolytic drugs are non-specific
A. alteplase
B. duteplase
C. streptokinase
D. urokinase
E. a + b
F. c + d
55. What fibrinolytic drug does not need endogenous plasminogen
A. alteplase
B. duteplase
C. streptokinase
D. anistreplase
56. Fibrinolytic drug becomes effective in how many minutes after administration?
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 90 min
D. 120 min
57. Fibrinolytic drug must be administered within how many hours of MI?
A. 3h
B. 6h
C. 12h
D. 24h
58. What is the MOA of aspirin?
A. Cox Inhibitor
B. Lox Inhibitor
C. PLA Inhibitor
D. PDE Inhibitor
59. What is the MOA of clopidogrel?
A. Anti ADP R
B. anti GPiib/iiia
C. PDE I
D. Cox I
60. What is the MOA of abciximab?
A. Anti ADP R
B. anti GPiib/iiia
C. PDE I
D. Cox I
61. What is the MOA of dipyridamol?
A. Anti ADP R
B. anti GPiib/iiia
C. PDE I
D. Cox I
62. What antiplatelet gives rise to orthostatic HT as side effect?
A. aspirin
B. clopidogrel
C. abciximab
D. dipyridamol
63. What antiplatelet gives rise to bronchospasm as side effect?
A. aspirin
B. clopidogrel
C. abciximab
D. dipyridamol
64. Interaction of clopidogrel with what drug → its effect ↑ result in bleeding?
A. erythromycine
B. ketoconazol
C. omeprazol
D. rifampicine
65. Interaction of Aspirin with what drug → its effect ↑ result in bleeding?
A. cidofovir
B. ketorolac
C. omeprazol
D. probenecid
66. What is the MOA of Warfarin?
A. anti-cyclooxygenase
B. anti-oxydase
C. Anti phosphodiesterase
D. Anti reductase
67. What is the MOA of LWH?
A. anti-factor II
B. anti-factor VI
C. anti-factor VII
D. anti-factor X
68. What is the MOA of Unfractionated Heparin?
A. anti-factor II
B. anti-factor VI
C. anti-factor VII
D. anti-factor X
69. Use of warfarin in what disease?
A. Deep venous thrombosis
B. Peripheral arteritis
C. ST+
D. stroke
70. Use of warfarin in what disease?
A. ST+
B. stroke
C. Peripheral arteritis
D. Atrial fibrillation
71. Interaction of warfarin with what drugs →↑free form of warfarin = bleeding
A. ketoconazole
B. omeprazole
C. rifampicin
D. sulfonamide
72. Interaction of warfarin with what drugs →↑metabolism of warfarin = its effects ↓
A. ketoconazole
B. omeprazole
C. rifampicin
D. sulfonamide
73. What is the side effect of heparin?
A. thrombocytopenia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. leukemia
D. teratogenic
74. MOA of Nitroglycerine?
A. activating β2 receptor → cAMP↑
B. inhibiting PDE → cAMP↑
C. releasing NO → cGMP↑
D. opening K+ channel → inactivate Ca2+ channel
75. Effect of Nitroglycerine in angina?
A. ↓preload + afterload ↓ + ↑O2 supply
B. ↓ contraction + ↓ heart rate + ↑O2 supply
C. ↓preload + afterload ↓ + ↓ heart rate
D. ↓ contraction + afterload ↓+ ↑O2 supply
76. Which drug should be avoid to combine with nitroglycerine?
A. ACEi
B. CCB
C. Dipyridamole
D. Sildenafil
77. Effect of β blocker in angina?
A. ↓preload + afterload ↓ + ↑O2 supply
B. ↓ contraction + ↓ heart rate + ↓ afterload
C. ↓preload + afterload ↓ + ↓ heart rate
D. ↓ contraction + afterload ↓+ ↑O2 supply
78. Which drug you choose to use when β blocker is overdosing?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Dopamine
D. Ephedrine
79. Effect of CCB in angina?
A. ↓preload + afterload ↓ + ↑O2 supply
B. ↓ contraction + ↓ heart rate + ↓ afterload
C. afterload ↓ + ↓ heart rate + ↓ contraction + ↑O2 supply
D. ↓ contraction + afterload ↓+ ↑O2 supply
80. What are the side effects of verapamil?
A. AV block + constipation + flush
B. AV block + asthma + bradycardia
C. Constipation + Nausea + QT long
D. Flush + Hypotension + Tachycardia
81. What is the mechanism of action of Ranolazine?
A. Block fast inward Na+ current in phase 0 of AP?
B. Block late inward Na+ current in phase 2 of AP?
C. Block inward Ca2+ current in phase 2 of AP?
D. Block outward K+ current in phase 3 of AP?
83. What are the side effects of Ranolazine?
A. AV block + constipation + flush
B. AV block + asthma + bradycardia
C. Constipation + Nausea + QT long
D. Flush + Hypotension + Tachycardia
84. What is the mechanism of action of Ivabradine?
A. Inhibition of fast sodium channels
B. Inhibition of funny channels
C. Inhibition of late sodium channels
D. Inhibition of potassium channels
86. What is the mechanism of β blocker as antiarrhythmic?
A. activate PDE → cAMP↓
B. block β1 receptor → cAMP↓
C. block Na-K ATPase pump
D. block L-voltage calcium channel
87. What is the effect of β blocker useful as antiarrhythmic in ischemic condition?
A. Reduced pace maker automaticity
B. increased ERP
C. Decreased conduction of impulse
D. Decreased calcium overload
88. What is the effect of β blocker useful to stop arrhythmia due to delayed after depolarization?
A. Reduced pace maker automaticity
B. increased ERP
C. Decreased conduction of impulse
D. Decreased calcium overload
89. What is the effect of β blocker used in supraventricular tachyarrhythmia?
A. Reduced pace maker automaticity
B. increased ERP
C. decreased AV conduction
D. Decreased calcium overload
90. What is the mechanism of action of antiarrhythmic Class III?
A. Block phase 0 → conduction↓
B. Block phase 1 → notch ↑
C. Block phase 2 → QT↓
D. Block phase 3 → QT↑
91. What are the main effect of class III as antiarrhythmic?
A. Reduced pace maker automaticity
B. increased Effective Refractory Period (ERP )
C. decreased AV conduction
D. Decreased calcium overload
92. Explain how class III used to treat reentry tachycardia?
A. Decreased calcium overload block after depolarization
B. Effective Refractory Period > conduction time in abnormal circuit
C. make QT short block after depolarization
D. Reduced pace maker current → slow rate of spontaneous depolarization
93. Why class III have no effect in MI tissues?
A. IKr expression↓ + hyperkalemia
B. IKr expression ↑ + hypokalemia
C. Hyperpolarization in resting membrane potential
D. Partial depolarization in resting membrane potential
94. What condition favor action of class Ib in MI?
A. IKr expression↓ + hyperkalemia
B. IKr expression ↑ + hypokalemia
C. Hyperpolarization in resting membrane potential
D. Partial depolarization in resting membrane potential
95. What are the side effects of amiodarone?
A. constipation + flush + bradycardia
B. Cardiac depression + pulmonary fibrosis + renal fibrosis
C. dysthyroidism + photodematitis + corneal microdeposits
D. Diarrhea + nausea + vomiting
96. Use of amiodarone?
A. Chronic reentry tachycardia both in atrial and ventricular
B. Tachycardia by increased automaticity
C. Tachycardia by early after depolarization
D. Tachycardia by delayed after depolarization
97. What is the mechanism of action of class IV as antiarrhythmic?
A. block L-calcium voltage channel in SA and AV node
B. block L-calcium voltage channel in phase 2 of AP
C. Block late sodium channel in phase 2 of AP
D. Block fast voltage sodium channel in phase 0 of AP
98. Use of Verapamil as antiarrhythmic?
A. Atrial fibrillation with heart failure
B. AVN reentry tachycardia
C. Torsade de pointe by prolonged QT
D. Ventricular tachycardia in myocardial infarction
99. Use of digoxin as antiarrhythmic?
A. Atrial fibrillation with heart failure
B. AVN reentry tachycardia
C. Torsade de pointe by prolonged QT
D. Ventricular tachycardia in myocardial infarction
100. Use of adenosine as antiarrhythmic?
A. Atrial fibrillation with heart failure
B. AVN reentry tachycardia
C. Torsade de pointe by prolonged QT
D. Ventricular tachycardia in myocardial infarction
101. Concerning ECG what are the effects of class Ia antiarrhythmic?
A. QRS wide + prolong QT
B. QRS normal + short QT
C. QRS very large + QT normal
D. QRS normal + QT normal
102. Concerning ECG what are the effects of class Ib antiarrhythmic?
A. QRS wide + prolong QT
B. QRS normal + short QT
C. QRS very large + QT normal
D. QRS normal + QT normal
103. Concerning ECG what are the effects of class Ic antiarrhythmic?
A. QRS wide + prolong QT
B. QRS normal + short QT
C. QRS very large + QT normal
D. QRS normal + QT normal
104. What channels class Ia antiarrhythmic blocks?
A. Na+ voltage channel + delayed K+ channel
B. Na+ voltage channel + late Na+ channel
C. Na+ channel only
D. K+ channel only
105. What channels class Ib antiarrhythmic blocks?
A. Na+ voltage channel + delayed K+ channel
B. Na+ voltage channel + late Na+ channel
C. Na+ channel only
D. K+ channel only
106. What channels class Ic antiarrhythmic blocks?
A. Na+ voltage channel + delayed K+ channel
B. Na+ voltage channel + late Na+ channel
C. Na+ channel only
D. K+ channel only
107. Ib bind to Na channel in what state?
A. open > close inactive
B. open > close active
C. Close inactive > open
D. Close active > open
108. Ia bind to Na channel in what state?
A. open > close inactive
B. open > close active
C. Close inactive > open
D. Close active > open
109. Ic bind to Na channel in what state?
A. open > close inactive
B. open > close active
C. Close inactive > open
D. Close active > open
110. What is the dynamic of class Ib in binding Na+ channel?
A. Very fast < 0,1 second
B. fast < 1 second
C. Slow in seconds
D. Very slow > 10 seconds
111. What is the dynamic of class Ic in binding Na+ channel?
A. Very fast < 0,1 second
B. fast < 1 second
C. Slow in seconds
D. Very slow > 10 seconds
112. What is the dynamic of class Ia in binding Na+ channel?
A. Very fast < 0,1 second
B. fast < 1 second
C. Slow in seconds
D. Very slow > 10 seconds
113. What is the effect of class I used in blocking reentry?
A. Decreased calcium overload block after depolarization
B. Effective Refractory Period > conduction time in abnormal circuit
C. make QT short block after depolarization
D. Reduced pace maker current → slow rate of spontaneous depolarization
114. Use of class Ib?
A. AVN reentry tachycardia
B. Atrial reentry tachycardia
C. Ventricular reentry by ischemia
D. Atrial and Ventricular tachycardia
115. Use of class Ic?
A. AVN reentry tachycardia
B. Atrial reentry tachycardia
C. Ventricular reentry by ischemia
D. Atrial and Ventricular tachycardia
116. Use of class Ia?
A. AVN reentry tachycardia
B. Atrial reentry tachycardia
C. Ventricular reentry by ischemia
D. Atrial and Ventricular tachycardia
117. What is the side effect of class Ia as pro-arrhythmia agent?
A. Delayed after-depolarization
B. Early- after-depolarization
C. Reentry
D. Increased automaticity
118. What is the side effect of class I as pro-arrhythmia agent in ischemic tissue?
A. Delayed after-depolarization
B. Early- after-depolarization
C. Reentry
D. Increased automaticity
119. Why class Ib is not used in Atrial reentry tachycardia?
A. Long duration of action potential
B. Poor expression of Na+ voltage channels
C. Short duration of AP
D. Susceptible to ischemia
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