DES 2016. Final (Part 39)
261) A 17-year-old female comes to the physician because she has not yet had a menstrual period. She also complains of a lack of breast development. Past medical history is significant for anosmia and color blindness. Past surgical history is significant for a cleft palate that was repaired in childhood. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination is significant for absent breast development, and a hypoestrogenic vulva and vagina. Urine hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Anorexia nervosa
. Kallmann syndrome
. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
. Pregnancy
. Testicular feminization syndrome
262) A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of burning with urination. She states that the burning started about 2 days ago and has been growing worse since. She has no frequency or urgency. She had one episode of pyelonephritis in the past but no other medical problems. On examination there is no costovertebral angle or abdominal tenderness. The examination is significant for a thick, white vaginal discharge with erythema and excoriations of the labia. Urinalysis is negative. KOH/Normal saline smear demonstrates pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Candida vaginitis
. Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst
. Pelvic inflammatory disease
. Pyelonephritis
. Urinary tract infection
263) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician to discuss birth control options. She and her partner have tried to use condoms; however, they find it difficult to use them consistently and she would like to try another form of contraception. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and has no family history of cancer. Her examination is within normal limits. After a discussion with the physician, she chooses to take the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She stays on the pill for the next three years. She now has most significantly decreased her risk of developing which of the following malignancies?
. Bone cancer
. Breast cancer
. Cervical cancer
Endometrial cancer
. Liver cancer
264) A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pain and burning with urination. She states that the symptoms started two days ago and have worsened since. She has no fever or chills and has never had these symptoms before. She has hypothyroidism for which she takes thyroid hormone replacement. Otherwise she has no medical problems. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F). Examination is unremarkable including a normal pelvic examination. A KOH and normal saline "wet prep" is performed on her vaginal discharge and is negative. Urinalysis reveals numerous white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
. Escherichia coli
. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
. Pseudomonas species
. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
. Trichomonas vaginalis
1) A 25-year-old woman being evaluated for infertility is found to have an abnormal ridge of red, moist granules located in the upper third of her vagina. Pertinent medical history is that her mother was treated with diethylstilbestrol (DES) during her pregnancy. A biopsy from the abnormal vaginal ridge reveals the presence of benign glands underneath stratified squamous epithelium. Which of the following is the most serious long-term complication of this abnormality?
. Clear cell carcinoma
. Condyloma acuminatum
. Extramammary Paget disease
. Multiple papillary hidradenomas
. Verrucous carcinoma
2) A couple presents to your office to discuss sterilization. They are very happy with their four children and do not want any more. You discuss with them the pros and cons of both female and male sterilization. The 34-yearold male undergoes a vasectomy. Which of the following is the most frequent immediate complication of this procedure?
. Infection
. Impotence
. Hematoma
. Spontaneous reanastomosis
. Sperm granulomas
3) A 20-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of swelling in her hands and ankles. She has no headache, visual disturbances or epigastric pain. She has no previous medical problems. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. Her previous prenatal check-up at 28-weeks gestation was normal. Her medical records show no preexisting hypertension or proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 156/100 mmHg, and after 15 minutes of lateral rest, a repeat reading is 154/98mmHg. Physical examination shows 2+ pitting edema in both legs and hands. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. FetaI heart tones are audible by Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 13.0 g/dl; Hct: 50%; Platelets: 300,000/mm3; Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl; Urinalysis shows 1+ proteinuria, which is new. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Mild preeclampsia
. Severe preeclampsia
. Chronic hypertension
. Transient hypertension of pregnancy
. Eclampsia
4) A 28-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is rushed to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She was sleeping when she first noticed the bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 14th week of gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 11 6/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows cold extremities and bright red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Emergency transvaginal ultrasonogram
. Obtain blood for PT/INR and PTI
. Obtain venous access with two large bore needles
. Immediate vaginal examination
. Immediate cesarean section
5) A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has not felt her baby's movements for the past two weeks. Fetal heart tones are not heard by Doppler. Ultrasonogram shows absence of fetal cardiac activity. Fetal demise is diagnosed. Laboratory studies show:Serum fibrinogen level: 250 mg/dl (normal is 150 - 450 mg/dl ), Platelets: 130,000/mm3, Prothrombin time: 15 sec, Partial thromboplastin time: 33sec. There are no signs of active bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
. Platelet transfusion and fibrinogen replacement
. Immediate induction of labor
. Emergency cesarean section
. Weekly fibrinogen monitoring and expect spontaneous delivery
6) A 37-year-old G4 P3 woman delivered a 4,100gram (9.02lbs) infant by spontaneous vaginal delivery one hour ago. This pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes for which she is being treated with insulin. The patient is currently on magnesium sulfate for elevated blood pressures and proteinuria. You are called to evaluate her because she began to have very heavy vaginal bleeding and is feeling lightheaded. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg and pulse is 98/min. On physical examination you see heavy vaginal bleeding and numerous blood clots. Her cervix is closed and the uterus can be palpated 3cm above the umbilicus. The uterus feels boggy. The next best step in management is?
. Dilatation and curettage
. Oxytocin infusion
. Packing of the uterine cavity
. Cesarean hysterectomy
. Immediate uterine artery embolization
7) A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and her vital signs are: blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, temperature 36.38C, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. She has not had a miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. Her cervix is closed on examination. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?
. Septic abortion
. Recurrent abortion
. Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
. Future infertility
. Ectopic pregnancies
8) A 24-year-old presents at 30 weeks with a fundal height of 50 cm. Which of the following statements concerning polyhydramnios is true?
. Acute polyhydramnios rarely leads to labor prior to 28 weeks.
. The incidence of associated malformations is approximately 3%.
. Maternal edema, especially of the lower extremities and vulva, is rare.
. Esophageal atresia is accompanied by polyhydramnios in nearly 10% of cases.
. Complications include placental abruption, uterine dysfunction, and postpartum haemorrhage
9) A 20-year-old G1 at 32 weeks presents for her routine obstetric (OB) visit. She has no medical problems. She is noted to have a blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg, and her urine dip shows 1+ protein. She complains of a constant headache and vision changes that are not relieved with rest or a pain reliever. The patient is sent to the hospital for further management. At the hospital, her blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg and she is noted to have tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following is indicated in the management of this patient?
. Low-dose aspirin
. Dilantin (phenytoin)
. Antihypertensive therapy
. Magnesium sulfate
. Cesarean delivery
10) A 21-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation is admitted for delivery. She has severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows 3+ pitting edema of the legs and brisk deep tendon reflexes. Fundoscopic examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show elevated BUN, serum creatinine and serum transaminases. Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria. Intravenous hydralazine and magnesium sulfate was initiated on admission. After stabilization, intravenous oxytocin and artificial rupture of membranes (AROM) was administered for induction of labor. Two hours later, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 78/min and respirations are 9/min. Repeat examination shows hyporeflexia and a completely effaced cervix that is 5cm dilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Stop hydralazine and do an emergency caesarian section
. Stop magnesium sulfate and give calcium gluconate
. Stop hydralazine and monitor serum cyanide level
. Stop intravenous oxytocin and intubate the patient
. Continue current treatment and proceed with delivery
11) An 18-year-old G1 at 8 weeks gestation complains of nausea and vomiting over the past week occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are a common symptom in early pregnancy. Which of the following signs or symptoms would indicate a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
. Hypothyroidism
. Hypokalemia
. Weight gain
. Proteinuria
. Diarrhea
12) A 26-year-old G1 at 37 weeks presents to the hospital in active labor. She has no medical problems and has a normal prenatal course except for fetal growth restriction. She undergoes an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a female infant weighing 1950 g. The infant is at risk for which of the following complications?
. Hyperglycemia
. Fever
. Hypertension
. Anemia
. Hypoxia
13) A 20-year-old G1 at 36 weeks is being monitored for preeclampsia; she rings the bell for the nurse because she is developing a headache and feels funny. As you and the nurse enter the room, you witness the patient undergoing tonic-clonic seizure. You secure the patient’s airway, and within a few minutes the seizure is over. The patient’s blood pressure monitor indicates a pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. Which of the following medications is recommended for the prevention of a recurrent eclamptic seizure?
. Hydralazine
. Magnesium sulfate
. Labetalol
. Pitocin
. Nifedipine
14) You are doing postpartum rounds on a 22-year-old G1P1, who vaginally delivered an infant male at 36 weeks after an induction for severe preeclampsia. During her labor she required hydralazine to control her blood pressures. She is on magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 154/98 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.3C. She has adequate urine output at greater than 40 cc/h. On examination, she is oriented to time and place, but she is somnolent and her speech is slurred. She has good movement and strength of her extremities, but her deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
. Adverse reaction to hydralazine
. Hypertensive stroke
. Magnesium toxicity
. Sinus venous thrombosis
Transient ischemic attack
15) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3 at 38 weeks' gestation, comes to the labor and delivery ward because of contractions. Her prenatal course was significant for low maternal weight gain. She had a normal 18-week ultrasound survey of the fetus and normal 36-week ultrasound to check fetal presentation. Her blood type is O positive, and she is rubella immune. Three years ago, she had a multiple myomectomy. She takes prenatal vitamins and has no known drug allergies. She smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur?
Amniotic fluid embolism
Anencephaly
Macrosomia
Rh isoimmunization
Uterine rupture
16) A 25-year-old G1 PO woman at 39 weeks gestation by last menstrual period confirmed by first trimester ultrasound presents to the hospital with complaints of vulvar pain and a "bump" on her vulva. On examination you see clear vesicles and inguinal adenopathy. No cervical or vaginal lesions are present. She is 2 cm dilated, 50% effaced and at -2 station. Fetal heart rate and contraction monitoring is started. She is contracting regularly. No abnormalities are seen. Which of the following is the most effective intervention to reduce neonatal morbidity in this patient?
. Immediate cesarean section
. Expectant management
. Augmentation of labor with oxytocin
. Tocolysis with nifedipine
. Antiviral treatment with acyclov
17) A 25-year-old female presents to the office for a prenatal visit. She is gravida 3, para 0, ab 2. Her first abortion was an elective abortion at 18 weeks gestation. Her second abortion was a spontaneous abortion at 17 weeks gestation. She has had a cervical loop electrosurgical excision(LEEP) procedure, 8 months ago, for severe cervical dysplasia. Her LMP was 16 weeks ago. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She has had an uneventful pregnancy thus far and denies any concerns at this visit. Her temperature is 98.6 F (37 C), blood pressure is 100/64, heart rate is 72/minute and respirations are 17/minute. Her uterine fundus measures 14.5 cm and is consistent with a 15-16 weeks gestation. The fetal heart rate is 140/minute. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
. Abruption placentae
. Cervical insufficiency
. Uterine rupture
. Polyhydramnios
. Small for gestational age fetus
18) A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the labor and delivery ward because of contractions. Her prenatal course was significant for a positive Group B Streptococcus (GBS) perineal culture at 35 weeks’ gestation. She has no medical problems. She had a cholecystectomy at the age of 17. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. She is found to be 5 cm dilated with contractions every 2 minutes. She is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor and penicillin is started for GBS prophylaxis. Shortly after admission to labor and delivery the patient complains of warmth and tingling of her face. She notes feeling like her lips and tongue are swollen. Physical examination demonstrates normal vital signs but with generalized urticaria and angioedema. Her abdomen is gravid and there is scant bloody mucous around her genital area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Eclampsia
. Penicillin allergy
. Placental abruption
. Preeclampsia
. Thyroid storm
19) A 33-year-old woman comes to your office for a blood pressure check. She has had chronic hypertension for the past 4 years, for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide. Her blood pressure has been reasonably well controlled with this medication. She also uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (i.e., the pill containing an estrogen and a progestin). She has no other medical problems and has never had surgery. She is allergic to penicillin. Her physical examination is normal. This patient should be counseled that patients with chronic hypertension who are also using the combined oral contraceptive pill might be at increased risk of which of the following?
. Elevated blood pressure and smoking
. Endometrial cancer and ovarian cancer
. Endometrial cancer and stroke
. Myocardial infarction and ovarian cancer
. Myocardial infarction and stroke
20) A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward with a gush of fluid and regular contractions. Examination shows that she is grossly ruptured, contracting every 2 minutes, and that her cervix is dilated to 4 cm. The fetal heart rate tracing is in the 140s and reactive. She is admitted to labor and delivery, and over the following 4 hours she progresses to 9 cm dilation. Over the past hour, the fetal heart rate has increased from a baseline of 140 to a baseline of 160. Furthermore, moderate to severe variable decelerations are seen with each contraction. The fetal heart rate does not respond to scalp stimulation. The decision is made to proceed with cesarean delivery. Which of the following is the reason for the cesarean delivery and the preoperative diagnosis?
. Fetal acidemia
. Fetal distress
. Fetal hypoxic encephalopathy
. Low neonatal APGAR scores
. Non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
21) A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She had intense abdominal pain and became agitated and restless in the ambulance. She has mild vaginal bleeding and diffuse abdominal pain. She is on continuous fetal heart monitoring. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her blood pressure is 90/60mmHg, pulse is 120/min and respirations are 32/min. Physical examination shows hyperventilation, cold extremities and a distended abdomen with irregular contours. Fetal heart monitoring shows repetitive late decelerations and a long-term variability of 2 cycles/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Abruptio placenta
. Placenta previa
. Vasa previa
. Uterine rupture
. Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
22) A 27-year-old G1P0 at 34 weeks gestation presents to your office complaining of a 2-day history of nausea and emesis. On physical examination, you notice that she is icteric sclera and skin. Her vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.2C (99F), pulse of 102 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg. She is sent to labor and delivery for additional evaluation. In labor and delivery, the fetal heart rate is in the 160s with good variability, but nonreactive. Blood is drawn and the following results are obtained: WBC = 22,000, Hct = 40.0, platelets = 72,000, SGOT/PT = 334/386, glucose = 58, creatinine = 2.2, fibrinogen = 209, PT/PTT = 16/50 s, serum ammonia level = 65 mmol/L (nl = 11-35). Urinalysis is positive for 3+ protein and large ketones. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for this patient?
. Immediate delivery
. Cholecystectomy
. Intravenous diphenhydramine
. MgSO4 therapy
. Bed rest and supportive measures since this condition is self-limited
23) A 38-year-old G6P4 is brought to the hospital by ambulance for vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks. She undergoes an emergency cesarean delivery for fetal bradycardia under general anesthesia. In the recovery room 4 hours after her surgery, the patient develops respiratory distress and tachycardia. Lung examination reveals rhonchi and rales in the right lower lobe. Oxygen therapy is initiated and chest x-ray is ordered. Which of the following is most likely to have contributed to her condition?
. Fasting during labor
. Antacid medications prior to anesthesia
. Endotracheal intubation
Extubation with the patient in the lateral recumbent position with her head lowered
. Extubation with the patient in the semierect position (semi-Fowler position)
24) A 32-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks gestation presented to the hospital with ruptured membranes and 4 cm dilated. She has a history of two prior vaginal deliveries, with her largest child weighing 3800 g at birth. Over the next 2 hours she progresses to 7 cm dilated. Two hours later, she remains 7 cm dilated. The estimated fetal weight by ultrasound is 3200 g. Which of the following labor abnormalities best describes this patient?
. Prolonged latent phase
. Protracted active-phase dilation
. Hypertonic dysfunction
. Secondary arrest of dilation
. Primary dysfunction
25) A 25-year-old G1P0 patient at 41 weeks presents to labor and delivery complaining of gross rupture of membranes and painful uterine contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. On digital examination, her cervix is 3 cm dilated and completely effaced with fetal feet palpable through the cervix. The estimated weight of the fetus is about 6 lb, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Which of the following is the best method to achieve delivery?
. Deliver the fetus vaginally by breech extraction
. Deliver the baby vaginally after external cephalic version
. Perform an emergent cesarean section
. Perform an internal podalic version
. Perform a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
26) A 22-year-old G1P0 has just undergone a spontaneous vaginal delivery. As the placenta is being delivered, a red fleshy mass is noted to be protruding out from behind the placenta. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
. Begin intravenous oxytocin infusion
. Call for immediate assistance from other medical personnel
. Continue to remove the placenta manually
. Have the anesthesiologist administer magnesium sulfate
. Shove the placenta back into the uterus
27) Following a vaginal delivery, a woman develops a fever, lower abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness. She is alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. Large gram-positive rods suggestive of clostridia are seen in a smear of the cervix. Which of the following is most closely tied to a decision to proceed with hysterectomy?
. Close observation for renal failure or hemolysis
. Immediate radiographic examination for hydrosalpinx
. High-dose antibiotic therapy
. Fever of 103F
. Gas gangrene
28) A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 16 weeks' gestation undergoes amniocentesis for evaluation of Down syndrome. She has no past medical history. Immediately after the procedure she becomes breathless, cyanotic and loses consciousness. Minutes later, she experiences a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A generalized purpuric rash is noted. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 26/min. Oxygen saturation is 75% on 100% facemask. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Low molecular w eight heparin
. Intravenous fluids
. Immediate induction of labor
. Intubation and mechanical ventilation
. Administer intravenous diazepam
29) A 28-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of 2 days of a near absence of fetal movements. This is only her second prenatal visit because she has skipped many appointments. She has a medical history significant for chronic hepatitis C infection and a MRSA skin abscess that was drained. She smokes cigarettes and uses heroin, cocaine and alcohol. She says that she is trying hard to be sober. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7F), blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows a fundal height of 26cm (10.2in). Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Nonstress test (NST) shows no accelerations. After vibroacoustic stimulation, NST is still not reactive so a biophysical profile is ordered and shows a score of 2. Her lab work showed the following: Complete blood count: Hemoglobin: 8.0 g/L, MCV: 105fl, Platelets: 120,000/mm3, Leukocyte count: 3,500/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat non-stress test, twice weekly
. Perform contraction stress test
. Administer corticosteroids and repeat biophysical profile in 24 hours
. Assess for fetal lung maturity and deliver if it is achieved
. Deliver the baby immediately
30) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has had no uterine contractions or abdominal pain. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/70 mm of Hg, pulse is 98/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows continuous bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows complete placenta previa. Fetal heart tracing shows repetitive late decelerations. The patient's vital signs are stabilized, but the bleeding continues. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate induction of labor
. Emergency cesarean section
. Administer corticosteroids and perform elective surgery
. Forceps delivery
. Continue expectant management until the bleeding stops
31) A 22-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of heavy vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Her prenatal course was unremarkable, including a normal 20- week ultrasound. Physical examination demonstrates a contracted uterus with hypertonus. A large "gush" of blood occurs during the cervical examination, which demonstrates a long and closed cervix. The fetal heart rate tracing shows severe late decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Expectant management
Magnesium sulfate
Oxytocin
Terbutaline
Cesarean section
32) A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that this morning she passed 2 quarter-sized clots of blood from her vagina. Otherwise, she states that she is feeling well. The baby has been moving normally and she has had no contractions or gush of fluid from the vagina. Her obstetrical history is significant for 2 low-transverse cesarean deliveries for non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracings. An ultrasound is performed that demonstrates a complete placenta previa. For which of the following conditions is this patient at highest risk?
. Dystocia
. Intrauterine fetal demise (IUFD)
. Placenta accreta
. Preeclampsia
. Uterine rupture
33) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of acute onset severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated. She has a history of cocaine addiction. Ultrasonogram performed at the 16th week showed no abnormalities and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 90/min and respirations are 15/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness, hyperactivity, and increased uterine tone. Fetal heart tracing shows 140/min with good long-term and beat-to-beat variability. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. Abruptio placentae
. Placenta previa
. Vasa previa
. Uterine rupture
. Normal labor
34) 28-year-old, G2 P1 woman presented to the hospital at 34-weeks gestation because of midepigastric and right upper quadrant pain associated with nausea and vomiting. She has been closely followed for mild hypertension and mild proteinuria (300 mg/24hr) on an outpatient basis since the 28th week of gestation. Her previous pregnancy was without incident. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 160/94 mmHg and pulse is 80/min. Physical examination shows epigastric and right upper quadrant tenderness; her bowel sounds are slightly reduced. The extremities have 2+ edema. Fetal heart sounds are audible on Doppler. Laboratory studies show: Hb: 8.2g/dl, Platelets: 96,000/mm3, Prothrombin time: 12.4 sec, Partial thromboplastin time: 23.6 sec, Serum creatinine: 1.1 mg/dl, Total bilirubin: 2.6 mg/dl, Direct bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dl, Alkaline phosphatase: 120 U/L, Aspartate aminotransferase: 308 U/L, Alanine aminotransferase: 265 U/L, Lipase: 53 U/L. Peripheral blood smear shows numerous red blood cell fragments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
. HELLP syndrome
. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
. Viral hepatitis
. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
35) A 21-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit at 26 weeks gestation. She has no complaints. She has no significant past medical history. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. She takes prenatal vitamins regularly, and has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a uterine size appropriate for gestational age, and fetal heart tones are heard. One hour 50gram oral glucose tolerance test shows a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dl. Urine culture grew 105 colony forming units/mL of E coli. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
. Chorioamnionitis
. Endometritis
. Difficult labor due to fetal macrosomia
. Acute pyelonephritis
. Postpartum hemorrhage
1) A healthy 25-year-old G1P0 at 40 weeks gestational age comes to your office to see you for a routine obstetric (OB) visit. The patient complains to you that on several occasions she has experienced dizziness, light-headedness, and feeling as if she is going to pass out when she lies down on her back to take a nap. What is the most appropriate plan of management for this patient?
. Monitor her for 24 hours with a Holter monitor to rule out an arrhythmia
. Do an ECG
. Do an arterial blood gas analysis
. Refer her immediately to a neurologist
. Reassure her that nothing is wrong with her and encourage her not to lie flat on her back
2) A 22-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks gestational age. She voices concern because she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest, and arms. She is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins and wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
. Tell her that this is a condition which requires evaluation by a vascular surgeon
Tell her that you are concerned that she may have serious liver disease and order liver function tests
. Refer her to a dermatologist for further workup and evaluation
. Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy
. Recommend that she wear an abdominal support
3) A 32-year-old G2P1001 at 20 weeks gestational age presents to the emergency room complaining of constipation and abdominal pain for the past 24 hours. The patient also admits to bouts of nausea and emesis since eating a very spicy meal at a new Thai restaurant the evening before. She denies a history of any medical problems. During her last pregnancy, the patient underwent an elective cesarean section at term to deliver a fetus in the breech presentation. The emergency room doctor who examines her pages you and reports that the patient has a low-grade fever of 37.7C (100F), with a normal pulse and blood pressure. She is minimally tender to deep palpation with hypoactive bowel sounds. She has no rebound tenderness. The patient has a WBC of 13,000, and electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. The history and physical examination are consistent with constipation, which is commonly associated with pregnancy; the patient should be discharged with reassurance and instructions to give herself a soapsuds enema and follow a high-fiber diet with laxative use as needed
. The patient should be prepped for the operating room immediately to have an emergent appendectomy
. The patient should be reassured that her symptoms are a result of the spicy meal consumed the evening before and should be given Pepto-Bismol to alleviate the symptoms
. The patient should be sent to radiology for an upright abdominal x-ray
. Intravenous antiemetics should be ordered to treat the patient’s hyperemesis gravidarum
4) A healthy 34-year-old G1P0 patient comes to see you in your office for a routine OB visit at 12 weeks gestational age. She tells you that she has stopped taking her prenatal vitamins with iron supplements because they make her sick and she has trouble remembering to take a pill every day. A review of her prenatal labs reveals that her hematocrit is 39%. Which of the following statements is the best way to counsel this patient?
. Tell the patient that she does not need to take her iron supplements because her prenatal labs indicate that she is not anemic and therefore she will not absorb the iron supplied in prenatal vitamins
. Tell the patient that if she consumes a diet rich in iron, she does not need to take any iron supplements
. Tell the patient that if she fails to take her iron supplements, her fetus will be anemic
. Tell the patient that she needs to take the iron supplements even though she is not anemic in order to meet the demands of pregnancy
. Tell the patient that she needs to start retaking her iron supplements when her hemoglobin falls below 11g/dL
5) A 14-year-old G1P0 girl who is 29 weeks’ pregnant with twins presents to the emergency department following a seizure. She was watching television and stood up to go to the bathroom when she “fell down and started shaking.” The patient has no history of seizures and is otherwise healthy. She missed her last obstetrician’s appointment, and her aunt states that her niece has had a lot of headaches and swelling over the past 2 days. On examination the patient is somnolent and difficult to arouse, and has edema of her hands and face. Her blood pressure is 205/120 mm Hg, pulse is 80/ min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. The fetal heart rate is 130/min. Which of the following is the most correct advice for the patient’s aunt?
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, but this can be managed with anti-seizure medications until the baby can be delivered at term”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
6) A 19-year-old woman at 32 weeks’ gestation was the driver in a front-end motor vehicle crash. The air bags did not inflate, and the patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen. The patient is taken to a nearby emergency department in stable condition, where she notes a small amount of bright red blood on her underwear. Maternal vital signs are significant for a heart rate of 110/min and blood pressure of 110/55 mm Hg. What is most appropriate next step in management?
Administration of Rh0(D) immune globulin
Disseminated intravascular coagulation panel
External fetal heart rate and uterine monitoring
Immediate cesarean delivery
Immediate vaginal delivery
7) A 19-year-old G1P0 woman presents to the emergency department in active labor and delivers a full-term male infant. The infant appears healthy with the exception of jaundice (bilirubin 10 mg/dL [>95th percentile]). The mother does not speak English, but a cousin who does states that he has seen the mother taking pills prescribed by her doctor, although he does not know the reason she was taking medication. Based on the newborn’s jaundice, which drug was the mother most likely taking?
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Lithium
Phenytoin
Tretinoin
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
8) A 30-year-old obese G3P2 woman is in active labor at 41 weeks’ gestation. She has no significant past medical history, and had an uncomplicated pregnancy with appropriate prenatal evaluation. The patient ruptured membranes spontaneously 30 minutes ago. Contractions occur regularly every 2–3 minutes. Early decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate monitor with each of the past five contractions. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
Change the maternal position
No further management is required
Place a fetal scalp probe
Prepare for emergent cesarean delivery
Start an amnioinfusion of saline
9) A 25-year-old G2P1 woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to her obstetrician complaining of restlessness and weakness for the past month. She says her boyfriend recently left her and their 2-year-old son, and she feels overwhelmed with this pregnancy. She denies feeling depressed but does report that she has trouble sleeping. She had an upper respiratory infection last month, “caught from my son,” and states she still has a sore throat. Laboratory tests show: WBC count: 8000/mm3; Hemoglobin: 11.0 g/dL; Hematocrit: 40%, Platelet count: 250,000/mm3; Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 0.5μU/mL; Free thyroxine: 4.0 ng/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Measure postpartum thyroid hormone levels
Perform partial thyroidectomy
Start levothyroxine therapy
Start propylthiouracil therapy
Start radioiodine therapy
10) A 36-year-old G1P0 woman pregnant with twins presents to her obstetrician for her routine 32-week appointment. She has gained 5.4kg (12-lb) in the past 2 weeks. When questioned about her weight gain, she states she has had headaches and some blurred vision for the past 2 weeks, which she thinks is secondary to dehydration. To circumvent this, she has been drinking a lot of water, which she claims “is making me swell, even my hands.” She also has had some epigastric pain for the past 2 weeks, which she attributes to “all the water I’ve been drinking.” Her blood pressure is 142/90 mm Hg, pulse is 105/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Urinalysis reveals 1+ glycosuria and 4+ proteinuria. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Administer magnesium sulfate only
Administer oral antihypertensive therapy
Expectant management
Induce labor
Platelet transfusion
11) A 23-year-old woman develops painful vulvar vesicles that contain intranuclear inclusions on cytologic examination. She is 22 weeks’ pregnant. Which of the following statements about genital herpes is correct?
Acyclovir should be prescribed from 36 gestational weeks until after delivery in women with primary herpes anytime during pregnancy
Herpes cultures from the cervix should be obtained weekly beginning at 36 weeks’ gestation
An active genital herpetic lesion any time after 20 weeks’ gestation requires a cesarean section
Intrauterine infection with herpes is common after 20 weeks in women with primary herpes
Pitocin induction of labor should be started within 4 hours after ruptured amniotic membranes in a woman at term with active genital herpes
12) A 63-year-old woman has a 3-cm pruritic lesion on her right labia majora that she has noted for approximately 9 months. She has been treated with various topical creams and ointments for vulvar candidiasis without resolution of her symptoms or lesion. When you examine this woman, the lesion is still present. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear of the lesion
Colposcopy of the lesion
Biopsy of the lesion
Wide local excision of the lesion
Vulvectomy
13) A 35-year-old G3P3 woman has been experiencing bilateral breast pain for the past year. Breast examination and mammography are normal. Conservative measures have failed. Which of the following medications is most likely to bring relief?
Clomiphene
Tamoxifen
Danazol
Hydrochlorothiazide
Medroxyprogesterone
14) In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and β-hCG assays. The β-hCG test is positive, and the prolactin level is 100 ng/mL (normal is <25 ng/mL in nonpregnant women in this assay). This patient requires which of the following?
Routine obstetric care
. Computed tomography (CT) scan of her sella turcica to rule out pituitary adenoma
. Repeat measurements of serum prolactin to ensure that values do not increase more than 300ng/mL
. Bromocriptine to suppress prolactin
. Evaluation for possible hypothyroidism
15) A 23-year-old married woman consults you because she and her husband have never consummated their marriage because she has severe pain with attempts at vaginal penetration. Her pelvic examination is normal except for involuntary tightening of her vaginal muscles when you attempt to insert a speculum. Which of the following conditions would best be treated with the use of vaginal dilators?
Primary dysmenorrhea
Vaginismus
Deep-thrust dyspareunia
Anorgasmia
Vulvar vestibulitis
16) A 32-year-old Hispanic woman presents to the emergency department complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 18/min. Her abdomen is soft, non-tender and non-distended. Her pelvic examination reveals approximately 200 mL of clotted blood in the vagina, an open cervical os with tissue protruding from it, and a 10-week-sized, non-tender uterus. Leukocyte count is 9000/mm3, hematocrit is 22%, and platelet count is 275,000/mm3. Quantitative hCG is 100,000mIU/L (normal: 5-200,000mIU/L). Pelvic ultrasound shows echogenic material within the uterine cavity consistent with blood or tissue, no adnexal masses, and no free fluid. No viable pregnancy is seen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discharge to home
Culdocentesis
Dilation and evacuation
Laparoscopy
Laparotomy
17) A 25-year-old Caucasian woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 26 weeks' gestational age presents to her physician's office complaining of spotting from the vagina. She has no contractions and reports normal fetal movement. She denies any history of a bleeding disorder. Her temperature is 37.3 C (99.1 F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 14/min. Her abdomen is gravid and benign, with a fundal height of 26 cm. A placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound examination. Pelvic examination reveals some scant blood in the vagina, a closed os, and no uterine tenderness. Leukocyte count is 12,000/mm3, hematocrit is 33%, and platelet count is 140,000/mm3. Her blood type is A, Rh negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Antibiotics
Blood transfusion
Magnesium sulfate
Platelet transfusion
RhoGAM™
18) A 29-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to the labor and delivery ward with strong contractions every 2 minutes and cervical change from 3 to 4 cm. Over the next 5 hours she progresses to full dilation. After 3 hours of pushing, the physician cuts a mediolateral episiotomy, and the woman delivers a 3770-g (8-lb, 4-oz) boy. Which of the following is the main advantage of a mediolateral episiotomy over a median (midline) episiotomy?
Easier surgical repair of the episiotomy
Improved healing of the episiotomy
Less blood loss
Less likely to cause a fourth-degree extension
Less pain
19) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 38 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery ward complaining of headache. She has no contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable until she noted the onset of swelling in her face, hands, and feet this week. Her obstetric history is significant for two normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries. She has no significant past medical or surgical history. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 160/92 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. Examination reveals 3+ patellar reflexes bilaterally. A cervical examination reveals that her cervix is 3 cm dilated and 50% effaced and soft, and that the fetus is at 0 station and vertex. The fetal heart rate has a baseline of 140/min and is reactive. The results from a 24-hour urine collection show 5200 mg of protein (normal <300 mg/24 hours). The patient is given magnesium sulfate intravenously for seizure prophylaxis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Expectant management
Intramuscular glucocorticoids
IV oxytocin
Subcutaneous terbutaline
Cesarean section
20) You have just performed diagnostic laparoscopy on a patient with chronic pelvic pain and dyspareunia. The patient had multiple implants of endometriosis on the uterosacral ligaments and ovaries and several on the rectosigmoid colon. At the time of the procedure, you ablated all of the visible lesions on the peritoneal surfaces with the CO2 laser. But because of the extent of the patient’s disease, you recommend postoperative medical treatment. Which of the following medications is the best option for the treatment of this patient’s endometriosis?
. Continuous unopposed oral estrogen
. Dexamethasone
. Danazol
. Gonadotropins
. Parlodel
21) You are treating a 31-year-old woman with danazol for endometriosis. You should warn the patient of potential side effects of prolonged treatment with the medication. When used in the treatment of endometriosis, which of the following changes should the patient expect?
. Occasional pelvic pain, since danazol commonly causes ovarian enlargement
. Lighter or absent menstruation, since danazol causes endometrial atrophy
Heavier or prolonged periods, since danazol causes endometrial hyperplasia
. More frequent Pap smear screening, since danazol exposure is a risk factor for cervical dysplasia
. Postcoital bleeding caused by the inflammatory effect of danazol on the endocervical and endometrial glands
22) A 30-year-old woman with a genetic disorder characterized by a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase is planning a first pregnancy. Her physician explains the increased risk of mental retardation, as well congenital heart disease, in the infant. Which of the following should also be recommended?
Low phenylalanine diet should be initiated before conception
Dietary supplementation with glycine is recommended
Dietary supplementation with L-carnitine is recommended
There is no need for diet control if phenylalanine levels are mildly elevated
Vitamin B6 should be administered to the neonate on delivery
23) A 22-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit She had a previous full-term, normal vaginal delivery 2 years ago. She has no medical problems and has never had surgery. She takes no medications and has no known drug allergies. Pelvic examination reveals a mucopurulent cervical discharge, no cervical motion tenderness, and an 8-week-sized, non-tender uterus. A cervical swab is performed. Two days later, the laboratory calls to notify the physician that the patient is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Ceftriaxone
Erythromycin
Metronidazole
Penicillin
Tetracycline
24) A 39-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of a persistent vaginal itch, vaginal discharge, and dysuria. She has had these same symptoms several times over the past 2 years and each time has been diagnosed with Candida vulvovaginitis. On physical examination, she has a thick, white vaginal discharge and significant vulvar and vaginal erythema. A potassium hydroxide (KOH) smear shows pseudohyphae; the normal saline smear is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Refer to psychiatry
Screen for cocaine abuse
Screen for diabetes
Screen for thalassemia
Treat with metronidazole
25) A 22-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the physician with lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She is unable to keep anything down. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptive pills. The patient's last menstrual period was 15 days ago. Her temperature is 39C (102.2F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes, soft and symmetrical abdomen, and diffuse tenderness over the lower quadrants. External genitalia show no abnormalities; speculum examination shows purulent discharge from the cervical os. The uterus is normal in size but is tender to palpation and motion. The adnexae are markedly tender but no palpable mass is noted. Cervical cultures are pending. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Admit the patient and wait for culture results
. Inpatient treatment with cefotetan and doxycycline
. Outpatient treatment with ceftriaxone and doxycycline
. Outpatient treatment with metronidazole and ampicillin
. Outpatient treatment with oral amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
26) A 25-year-old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. She has been followed for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. She is currently having intermittent bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows placental abruption and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Placenta previa is ruled out. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 99/min and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity, increased uterine tone and vaginal bleeding. Her cervix is 1cm dilated and 10% effaced at the time of admission. Fetal heart tracing shows a rate of 110/min, a long-term variability of 4 cycles/min and a beat-to-beat variability of 20/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Induction of labor
. Emergency cesarean section
. Scheduled cesarean section within next 48 hours
. Tocolysis to prevent the abruption from evolving
. Conservative management in hospital
27) A healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual physical examination. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Menses occur every 28 days and last 4-5 days. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She became sexually active at age 18 and has had 3 sexual partners since then. The patient is in a relationship with her boyfriend of one year and uses oral contraceptives. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs and general physical examination are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows no cervical motion tenderness, adnexal masses, or cervical discharge. Pap smear is performed in the office. The results show adequate cellularity with transformation zone present and atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Colposcopy
. Human papillomavirus DNA test
. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
. Pap smear in 3 years
. Repeat Pap smear in 3 months
28) A 28-year-old G2, P1 woman in her 26th week of gestation comes to the office due to intermittent episodes of abdominal pain. She has been having these episodes for the past 4 days, and thinks that her fetus may be in distress. She points to her right flank when asked about the location of the pain, and says that it occasionally radiates to the groin area. She cannot identify any exacerbating or relieving factors. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far. Her past medical history is significant for pelvic inflammatory disease. Her temperature is 37.5 C (99.5 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. She is in considerable pain at the moment. Deep palpation of the right flank reveals tenderness. There is no CVA tenderness. Urinalysis shows: Specific gravity: 1.020; Blood: ++; Glucose: negative; Ketones: negative; Protein: negative; Leukocyte esterase: negative; Nitrites: negative. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Cervical cultures
. Shockwave lithotripsy
. Intravenous pyelogram
. Ultrasound of the abdomen
. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
29) A 36-year-old woman comes to your office complaining of a 12-month history of inter-menstrual bleeding and heavy menses. She has had type-2 diabetes for the past 4-years, managed with glipizide and metformin. She has no family history of gynecological malignancies. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), and blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg. Her BMI is 30 Kg/m2. Physical examination shows pale mucus membranes. Pelvic examination is within normal limits; no vaginal lesions are noted. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Her hemoglobin is 10.8 g/dl and platelet count is 223,000/mm3. Coagulation studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Prescribe combined oral contraceptive pills
. Conjugated estrogens for 3-months
. Cyclic progestins
. Endometrial ablation
. Endometrial biopsy
30) A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 32 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. Prenatal ultrasound at the 12th week showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Her temperature is 37.0C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 90/70 mm of Hg, pulse is 98/min and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows continuous bright red vaginal bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows complete placenta previa. Fetal heart tracing shows repetitive late decelerations. The patient's vital signs are stabilized with fluids, but the bleeding continues. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate induction of labor
. Emergency cesarean section
. Administer corticosteroids and perform elective surgery later
. Forceps delivery
. Continue expectant management until the bleeding stops
31) A 32-year-old multiparous African-American woman comes for her initial prenatal visit at 14 weeks' gestation. She complains of the recent appearance of facial hair and acne. The beta-HCG level is consistent with gestational age. Examination shows hirsutism. Ultrasonogram shows an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and bilateral solid nodular masses in both ovaries. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Suction evacuation of uterus
. Exploratory laparotomy
. Ultrasound guided aspiration of the mass
. Diagnostic laparoscopy
. Reassurance and follow-up with ultrasonogram
32) A 93-year-old woman is sent to your office from the nursing home for evaluation of vaginal bleeding. She is a poor historian and history is provided by her caregiver. Per her caregiver, she has a history of cerebrovascular accident with residual weakness, myocardial infarction, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic renal insufficiency. She has been wheelchair-bound and living in the nursing home since her stroke five years ago. She takes multiple medications. Her temperature is 37.2C (98.9F), blood pressure is 176/76mmHg, pulse is 74/min and respirations are 14/min. She is awake, alert, and oriented to person, place and time. Physical examination reveals a friable, bleeding vaginal mass 3 cm in size, and a malodorous vaginal discharge. The remainder of the examination reveals left-sided spasticity and weakness. Biopsy of the mass reveals squamous cell carcinoma of the vagina, that does not extend to the pelvic wall. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows no evidence of metastasis. You call the patient's daughter, who is the power of attorney, and she requests that you do the best you can. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Surgical resection
. Radiation therapy
. Combination chemotherapy
. Biologic agent therapy
. Send her to hospice
33) A 16-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with her mother complaining of primary amenorrhea. Her past medical history is not significant. Her family history is significant for hypothyroidism in her mother. Her vital signs are normal. Examination reveals absent breasts, as well as pubic and axillary hair. The uterus and gonads are visualized on ultrasound, and the FSH level is increased. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Determine serum estrogen level
. GnRH stimulation test
. Determine Prolactin and TSH levels
. Gonadal biopsy
. Karyotype
34) A 59-year-old patient with a 2-year history of metastatic breast cancer presents with the acute onset of severe low back pain. She underwent a radical mastectomy and lymphadenectomy 3 years ago. Four of seven nodes were positive at the time of her original diagnosis. One year ago she developed an asymptomatic metastasis to her right femur. On physical examination, she is in severe discomfort and finds movement extremely difficult. She has exquisite tenderness in the lumbar vertebral area, and any motion of her legs or lower back produces extreme pain. An emergent MRI reveals large lytic lesions in L3 and L4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discuss her wishes regarding cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Refer her to a pain management consultant
Prescribe bed rest with high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Schedule her for radiation therapy to the lumbar spine
Schedule her for an emergency nuclear bone scan
35) A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician with her husband because of vaginal irritation and a malodorous vaginal discharge. Her symptoms started 4 days ago. She also notes pain with intercourse and dysuria. Pelvic examination reveals vaginal and cervical erythema and a copious greenish, frothy discharge. The pH of this discharge is 6.0. A wet preparation is done with normal saline, which shows numerous flagellated organisms that are slightly larger than the surrounding white blood cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Do not treat the patient or her partner
Treat only the patient with metronidazole
Treat the patient and her partner with metronidazole
Treat only die patient with penicillin
Treat the patient and her partner with penicillin
36) A 24-year-old woman asks her physician about the possibility of genetic screening for BRCA1 mutations. Her mother died of breast carcinoma at age 44, and a sister had a diagnosis of in situ ductal carcinoma at age 38. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give this woman?
Explain that BRCA1 mutations are not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer
Recommend screening only if she is of Ashkenazi Jewish descent
Recommend counselling before genetic screening is undertaken
Suggest prophylactic bilateral mastectomy instead of screening
Not recommend counselling before genetic screening is undertaken
37) A 29-year-old woman presents for a routine prenatal visit. She is 24 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period and ultrasound. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. She works as a financial advisor in a local firm. She and her husband have been monogamous since getting married 5 years ago. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. At the end of the visit she tells you that her newborn niece recently had a group B streptococcal infection and she is afraid that her child might develop the same. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
. Your niece would not have developed the infection if the obstetrician had followed the standard of care
. You do not have any risk factors of harboring or transmitting that infection to your child
. Only a small percentage of unfortunate children develop this infection. Most children will be fine
. I understand your concern. Let me take vaginal and rectal swabs for culture now
. I understand your concern. I will test for the infection two weeks prior to the expected date of delivery
38) A 19-year-old woman presents to the physician's office for routine physical examination and Pap smear. She has no complaints. She has had 2 sexual partners in the past six months and takes oral contraceptive pills. She has no significant past medical history and takes no other medications. She has no known drug allergies. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F) and blood pressure is 120/72mm Hg. Complete physical exam including pelvic examination is unremarkable. Cervical swab is sent for nucleic acid amplification of Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. One week later, the nucleic acid amplification test returns positive for Chlamydia infection. The patient is still asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate next step in the management?
. Repeat the test for confirmation
. Reassurance and no treatment at this time
. One dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone
. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
. Single dose azithromycin
39) A 25-year-old woman delivered a baby boy at 38 weeks gestation. The newborn has a small body size with microcephaly, hypoplasia of the distal phalanges of the fingers and toes, excess hair and a cleft palate. He weighs 2.5kg (5.5lb). Further history or evaluation of the mother would most likely reveal which of the following?
. Untreated syphilis
. Phenytoin use
. Alcohol abuse
. Cocaine abuse
. Azithromycin use
40) A 30-year-old obese white female comes to the physician with a six months history of oligomenorrhea. She never had this problem before. She has no galactorrhea. She has gained significant weight over the past two years despite a regular exercise program. She has also experienced hair loss during this time. She has had regular Pap smears since the age of 20; pap smears have shown no abnormalities. She takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Her mother has a history of endometrial carcinoma and her grandmother had a history of ovarian carcinoma. Physical examination shows male pattern baldness. Abdominal and pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Serum prolactin level and thyroid function tests are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Screening mammogram
. Oral glucose tolerance test
. CA-125 levels, annually
. Diagnostic laparoscopy
. Iron studies
41) A 36-year-old woman presents to your office for contraception. She has had three vaginal deliveries without complications. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, well-controlled with a diuretic, and a seizure disorder. Her last seizure was 12 years ago. Currently she does not take any antiepileptic medications. She also complains of stress-related headaches that are relieved with an over-the-counter pain medication. She denies any history of surgeries. She is divorced, smokes one pack of cigarettes per day, and has three to four alcoholic drinks per week. On examination, her vital signs include weight 90 kg, blood pressure 126/80 mmHg, pulse 68 beats per minute, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute, and temperature 36.4C (97.6F). Her examination is normal except for some lower extremity nontender varicosities. She has taken birth control pills in the past and wants to restart them because they help with her cramps. Which of the following would contradict the use of combination oral contraceptive pills in this patient?
. Varicose veins
. Tension headache
. Seizure disorders
. Smoking in a woman over 35 years of age
. Mild essential hypertension
42) A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 12 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date, and her past medical history is unremarkable. Her medications include a multivitamin with iron and a folate supplement daily. She has no known drug allergies. Examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 12 weeks gestation. Clean-catch urine culture grows >100,000 colony-forming units/ml of Escherichia coli Sensitivity testing on the bacteria is pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
. Amoxicillin
. Ciprofloxacin
. Doxycycline
. No antibiotic therapy
. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
43) A 23-year-old primigravid woman comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. She is working as an aerobics instructor and is concerned about the effect her exercise schedule might have on the pregnancy. She teaches 30 minutes daily in the morning and does not feel fatigued. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?
. "You need to reduce the duration of exercise time to 15 minutes per day"
. "You need to reduce the intensity of exercise"
. "You should continue your current aerobic exercise schedule"
. "You may have prolonged labor during delivery"
. "You can even intensify your training efforts if you want"
44) A 25-year-old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of severe uterine contractions and moderate vaginal bleeding. She has been followed for pre-eclampsia since her 32nd week of gestation. She is currently having intermittent bleeding. Ultrasonogram in the emergency department shows placental abruption and an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates. Placenta previa is ruled out. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 99/min and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows uterine tenderness and hyperactivity, increased uterine tone and vaginal bleeding. Her cervix is 1em dilated and 10% effaced at the time of admission. Fetal heart tracing shows a rate of 110/min, a long-term variability of 4 cycles/min and a beat-to-beat variability of 20/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management
. Induction of labor
. Emergency cesarean section
. Scheduled cesarean section within next 48 hours
. Tocolysis to prevent the abruption from evolving
. Conservative management in hospital
45) A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding. She has colicky pain in the suprapubic region radiating to the back. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.7F), blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg, pulse is 84/min and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a dilated cervix and products of conception are seen through it. Blood for grouping and typing is sent. The patient is treated appropriately, and all products of conception are evacuated. She is stabilized and transferred to the ward. Laboratory studies there show: Hematocrit: 33%; WBC: 6,000/mm3; Blood type: AB; Rh negative; Antibody titer: 1:4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Monitor coagulation profile
. Administer RhoGAM
. Obtain karyotyping of the mother
. Screening for TORCH infections
. Order anti-nuclear antibodies
46) A 7-year-old girl is seen in your office after her mother began to notice significant changes in her physical appearance. The mother says that she first noticed the development of her daughter's breasts, and she became more worried when her daughter developed both axillary and pubic hair. The patient's grandmother told the mother not to worry because two of the patient's aunts entered puberty at an early age. The patient has not had any behavioral changes or a decline in her school performance, and she denies headaches, visual changes, or vomiting. Physical examination reveals the presence of axillary hair, pubic hair at Tanner stage 3, and breast development at Tanner stage 4. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. GnRH stimulation test results in an increase of LH. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
. Reassurance
. Cyproterone acetate
. Danazol therapy
. GnRH agonist therapy
. Medroxyprogesterone acetate therapy
47) A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of intermenstrual bleeding and heavy menses. Her other medical problems include hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. Her blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. Her BMI is 40 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no obvious abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy shows "complex hyperplasia without atypia." She has three young healthy children and does not want more children in the future. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Hysterectomy
. Cyclic progestins
. Low dose oral contraceptives
. Estrogen replacement
. Endometrial ablation
48) A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 34 weeks' gestation comes for a routine prenatal visit. Her dates were confirmed by first trimester ultrasonogram. She has no painful uterine contractions. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and ended with a normal vaginal delivery. Her vitals are stable and fetal heart tones are reassuring. Physical examination shows a closed cervix, vertex is palpable at the fundus, and the presenting part is not engaged. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in management?
. Routine follow-up
. Attempt external cephalic version
. Attempt internal cephalic version
. Discuss cesarean section with the patient
. Admit the patient and monitor closely
49) A 24-year-old African American female presents in the 35th week of an uncomplicated pregnancy with numbness and burning in her right palm. She says the sensation is so uncomfortable that it frequently makes it difficult to sleep Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
. Indomethacin
. Oral corticosteroids
. Local corticosteroid injection
. Wrist splinting
. Decompression surgery
50) A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She takes one multivitamin and one iron tablet daily. She has no known drug allergies. Physical examination shows a uterus consistent in size with 34 weeks gestational age. Routine clean-catch urine culture grows greater than 100,000 colonies/ml of Escherichia coli Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
. Amoxicillin
. Ciprofloxacin
. Clindamycin
. Doxycycline
. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
51) A 28-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician for her first prenatal visit. She is at 8 weeks gestation as determined by her last menstrual period. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. She does not smoke cigarettes and stopped drinking alcohol when she decided to become pregnant. She has no history of illicit drug use and has never been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband for the past one year. Her family history is unremarkable. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2. Her physical examination, including vital signs, is within normal limits. Which of the following preventive measures is warranted at this visit?
. Influenza vaccine
. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
. Hepatitis C antibody testing
. Chlamydia PCR
. Fasting blood sugar
52) A 16-year-old girl presents for evaluation of acne, which has been getting progressively worse over the past 2 weeks. Her medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for which she has been taking prednisone for a recent exacerbation. Hydroxychloroquine is her only other medicine. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs and her menstrual cycle is regular. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg and her pulse is 72/min. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2. Distributed over the face, arms and trunk are monomorphous erythematous papules. There are no open or closed comedones. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her acne?
. Adolescent acne
. Androgen abuse
. Polycystic ovarian disease
. Medication side effect
. Systemic lupus erythematosus
53) You are asked to consult on a 23-year-old woman who is 18hours status-post cesarean delivery. She presented 20 hours ago, at 32 weeks’ gestation, with vaginal bleeding and contractions and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She was rushed to the operating room for an emergent cesarean delivery. The placenta had a large retroplacental clot. The infant is in the neonatal intensive care unit. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.7C (99.9 F), blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, pulse of 124/min, and respirations of 14/min. The patient has bleeding from her abdominal incision and her intravenous sites. Laboratory studies show: Hematocrit: 18%; Leuckocytes: 16,000/mm3; Platelets: 62,000/mm3; Prothrombin time: 60sec; Partial thromboplastin time: 100sec. Appropriate management includes which of the following?
. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
. Heparin
. Magnesium sulfate
. Penicillin
. Terbutaline
54) A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 0 (termination of pregnancy ´ 3) comes to your office for an annual examination. Over the past year she has been in good health except for recurrent upper respiratory tract infections. She smokes ½ pack of cigarettes per day. She has tried to stop smoking three times but is not ready to try again to stop now. She takes a combined oral contraceptive pill (OCP) with 35μg of estrogen in it. She takes no other medications and has no known drug allergies. Physical examination, including breast and pelvic exams, is significant for intermittent wheezes on chest auscultation. Regarding her birth control choice, which of the following is the most appropriate counseling?
. Change to a combined OCP with 50-μg estrogen
. Continue on the present OCP
. Stop the OCP immediately
. Stop the OCP over the next 2 years
. Take a daily baby aspirin with the OCP
55) A 20-year-old female comes to the physician because she has never had a period. She has no medical problems, has never had surgery, and takes no medications. Examination shows that she is a tall female with long extremities. She has normal size breasts, although the areolas are pale. She has little axillary hair. Pelvic examination is significant for scant pubic hair and a short, blind-ended vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. No intervention is necessary
. Bilateral gonadectomy
. Unilateral gonadectomy
. Bilateral mastectomy
. Unilateral mastectomy
56) A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has been sexually active since the age of 15 and has not had regular Pap smears or examinations. She is currently sexually active with multiple partners and intermittently uses condoms. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. Her examination is unremarkable. Her Pap smear is described as satisfactory but limited by the absence of endocervical cells. It is otherwise within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat the Pap smear in 1 year
. Repeat the endocervical portion of the Pap test as soon as possible
. Perform colposcopy with colposcopically directed biopsies
. Perform laparoscopy with laparoscopically directed biopsies
. Perform exploratory laparotomy
57) A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat pelvic examination in 1 year
. Repeat pelvic ultrasound in 6 weeks
. Prescribe the oral contraceptive pill
. Perform hysteroscopy
. Perform laparotomy
58) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 22 weeks' gestation comes to the physician with complaints of burning with urination and frequent urination. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated except for a urinary tract infection (UTI) with E. Coli at 12 weeks' gestation, which was treated at that time. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urine culture demonstrates greater than 100,000 colony-forming units per milliliter of E. coli. After treating this patient for her current infection, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. No further treatment or diagnostic study is necessary
. Prophylactic antibiotics for the remainder of the pregnancy
. Intravenous antibiotics for the remainder of the pregnancy
. Intravenous pyelogram
. Abdominal CT Scan
59) A 22-year-old woman in labor progresses to 7 cm dilation, and then has no further progress. She therefore undergoes a primary cesarean section. Examination 2 days after the section shows a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 90/min, and respirations of 14/min. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is moderately tender. The incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no evidence of erythema. Pelvic examination demonstrates uterine tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
. Ampicillin
. Ampicillin-gentamicin
. Clindamycin-gentamicin
. Clindamycin-metronidazole
. Metronidazole
60) A 64-year-old woman undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine prolapse. On postoperative day 1, a complete blood count shows the following: Leukocytes: 5500/mm3; Hematocrit: 36%; Platelets: 245,000/mm3. By postoperative day 2, the patient is alert and able to ambulate without difficulty. She has no complaints. She has not taken in nutrition orally but is receiving IV fluids. She is voiding without difficulty and has passed flatus. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 124/72 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows her abdomen to be soft, nontender, and non distended. The incision is clean, dry, and intact. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is a reason for keeping this patient hospitalized for a longer period of time?
. Absent oral intake
. Evidence of infection
. Hematocrit
. Urinary tract function
. Vital signs
61) A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 40 weeks' gestation comes to the labor and delivery ward after a gush of fluid with regular, painful contractions every two minutes. She is found to have rupture of the membranes and to have a cervix that is 5 centimeters dilated, a fetus in vertex presentation, and a reassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She is admitted to the labor and delivery ward. Two hours later she states that she feels hot and sweaty. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F). She has mild uterine tenderness. Her cervix is now 8 centimeters dilated and the fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Administer antibiotics to the mother after vaginal delivery
. Administer antibiotics to the mother now and allow vaginal delivery
. Perform cesarean delivery
. Perform cesarean delivery and then administer antibiotics to the mother
. Perform intra-amniotic injection of antibiotics
{"name":"DES 2016. Final (Part 39)", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"261) A 17-year-old female comes to the physician because she has not yet had a menstrual period. She also complains of a lack of breast development. Past medical history is significant for anosmia and color blindness. Past surgical history is significant for a cleft palate that was repaired in childhood. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination is significant for absent breast development, and a hypoestrogenic vulva and vagina. Urine hCG is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?, 262) A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of burning with urination. She states that the burning started about 2 days ago and has been growing worse since. She has no frequency or urgency. She had one episode of pyelonephritis in the past but no other medical problems. On examination there is no costovertebral angle or abdominal tenderness. The examination is significant for a thick, white vaginal discharge with erythema and excoriations of the labia. Urinalysis is negative. KOH\/Normal saline smear demonstrates pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?, 263) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician to discuss birth control options. She and her partner have tried to use condoms; however, they find it difficult to use them consistently and she would like to try another form of contraception. She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and has no family history of cancer. Her examination is within normal limits. After a discussion with the physician, she chooses to take the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She stays on the pill for the next three years. She now has most significantly decreased her risk of developing which of the following malignancies?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}