PP6001-Repiratory Physiotherapy, Semester 1 MCQ

What temperature is room air typically?
37 degrees Celsius
20 degrees Celsius
28 degrees Celsius
40 degrees Celsius
Which of the following is not a function of the bony thorax?
Provide muscle attachment sites
allow greater trunk rotation and movement coordination
allow thoracic expansion to allow the lungs to inflate
Provide nutrients to the respiratory system
Protect the heart, lungs, and abdominal tissue
The bony thorax is made up of the thoracic vertebrae, ribs, and sternum.
True
False
Select each component of the upper respiratory tract
Trachea
Esophagus
Nose
Mouth
Primary Bronchi
Alveoli
Larynx
pharynx
Which of the following is not a function of the upper respiratory tract (URT)?
Warm air
Speech production
Filter inhaled air
Smell/olfactory sense
Humidify air
Allow airflow during inhalation and exhalation
All of the above are functions of the URT
Alveolar air is 37 degrees Celsius
True
False
Which of the following accurately describes the humidification difference between room and alveolar air?
Room air is 2x as humid as alveolar air
Room air has 100% humidity and alveolar air has 50% humidity
Room air has 50% humidity and alveolar air has 100% humidity
Room air and alveolar air have equal humidity percentages
Alveolar air is 5x as humid as room air
Which of the following are true with respect to the natural heating and humidification of inhaled air?
This process begins in the nose
By warming air, it improves its ability to become saturated with water
Warming and humidification does not begin until air reaches the terminal bronchioles
The humidification process occurs before the warming process
What type of cells are the respiratory epithelium
Ciliated, pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Unciliated, pseudostratified cuboidal epithelium
Unciliated, simple squamous epithelium
Ciliated, stratified squamous epithelium
The function of the respiratory epithelium is to moisten and protect the upper airways, and act as a barrier to pathogens.
True
False
Which of the following structures plays the largest role in producing a cough.
Glottis
Esophagus
Trachea
Epiglottis
Vocal cords
Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?
Alveoli
Bronchi
Trachea
Diaphragm
Bronchioles
Which of the following are a primary function of the lower respiratory tract?
Facilitate respiration
Provide structure and support
Gas exchange
Immunodefence
The trachea bifurcates into the left and right main/primary bronchi at the carina
True
False
Select the correct order of structures in descending order (superior to inferior)
alveoli, main bronchi, tertiary bronchi, secondary bronchi, terminal bronchioles
main bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, alveoli, terminal bronchioles
alveoli, terminal bronchioles, tertiary bronchi, secondary bronchi, main bronchi
main bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, terminal bronchioles, alveoli
main bronchi, secondary bronchi, terminal bronchioles, tertiary bronchi, alveoli
On average, how many alveoli do adults have?
3
3 hundred
3 thousand
3 million
3 hundred million
3 billion
Upper alveoli are more easily ventilated, but lower alveoli are larger
True
False
Match the following collateral channels with the structures they connect
Pores of Khon
Alveoli to alveoli
Channels of Lambert
Bronchiole to alveoli
Channels of Martin
Bronchiole to bronchiole
Which of the following describes alveolar interdependence?
In response to a collapsed alveoli, adjacent alveoli recoil, pulling open the collapsed alveoli
Alveoli cannot expand unless superior airways expand first
Alveoli that have blocked primary airways can receive ventilation through accessory channels on other alveoli
A cluster of alveoli cannot expand individually. They will only expand if the entire bundle expands
The right lung has only 2 lobes and one fissure because the heart occupies space in the same area.
True
False
Which of the following structures are found in the hilum of the lungs?
Muscle tendons
Main bronchi
Lymphatic vessels
Pulmonary blood vessels
Terminal bronchioles
Nerve fibres
Match the following locations with their pressures.
Atmospheric pressure
760mmHg
Intrapulmonary pressure
760mmHg
Intrapleural pressure
756mmHg
Pleural effusion is the abnormal build up of excess fluid within the lungs
True
False
Which of the following conditions occurs in the intrapleural space?
Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
Intrapleural empyema
Sputum production
Pulmonary edema
Pleural effusion
Which of the following statements about neural control of breathing are true?
There is no motor control of breathing
The pons is responsible for maintaining a smooth transition between inspiration and expiration
Voluntary breathing is controlled by the motor and pre-motor cortex
Voluntary breathing is controlled by the medulla oblongatta
The medulla oblongatta is responsible for the majority of involuntary breathing control
The pons controls forced inspiration and expiration, but not tidal breathing
Emotional and psychological factors can influence respiration
True
False
Which two muscles are responsible for tidal breathing?
Diaphragm and internal intercostals
Internal and external intercostals
Rectus abdominus and diaphragm
Transverse abdominus and rectus abdominus
External intercostals and diaphragm
Which of the following is not an accessory expiration muscle?
Serratus anterior
Quadratus lumborum
Rectus abdominus
External obliques
Internal obliques
Match the following muscles with their role during respiration
Rectus femoris
Tidal respiration
Diaphragm
Accessory inspiration
Internal intercostals
No role in respiration
Scalenes
Accessory expiration
During forced inspiration the diaphragm contracts and moves superiorly to facilitate in thoracic expansion
True
False
Match the respiratory movements with their description
Pump handle
Sternum moves anteriorly and superiorly
Bucket handle
The ribs move superolaterally
What structures or mechanisms are responsible for tidal expiration?
Relaxation of trunk flexors and contraction of the diaphragm
Relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals
Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostals
Relaxation of the internal intercostals and internal oblique muscles
Contraction of the rectus abdominus, transverse abdominus, internal intercostals, and oblique muscles
Boyle's law refers to the mechanism by which too much forced pressure in the airways will cause the airways to collapse
True
False
Which of the following is the correct definition of lung compliance?
The capacity of the lungs to stretch and deform from their resting state
The capacity of the lungs to rebound and return to their resting state once stretched
The ability of the lungs maintain constant surface tension via surfactant production
The ability of the lungs to maintain a pressure differential between the intrapleural space and the intrapulmonary space
Elasticity refers to the lungs ability to return to its original shape after undergoing deformation. Which two of the following contribute to this characteristic?
The presence of a small amount of fluid in the alveoli
The high elastin content in lung tissue
The muscle attachments surrounding the bony thorax
The production of surfactant that lines lung tissue
Which of the following statements is false?
Inspired air contains roughly 21% oxygen
Expired air contains roughly 13-15% carbon dioxide
Inspired air contains roughly 79% nitrogen
Expired air contain roughly 16-18% oxygen
During gas exchange, CO2 moves from the alveoli into the blood for removal
True
False
Which of the following statements is correct?
The location with the best V/Q matching is the apex of the lungs
Perfusion is best at the distal alveoli
V/Q ratio is high at the apex of the lungs
V/Q ratio is lowest at the base of the lungs
Physiological dead space occurs when there is adequate blood flow but the surrounding alveoli are poorly ventilated, resulting in a V/Q mismatch
True
False
Match the surface marking with its corresponding lung landmark
8th intercostal space
Anterior origin of the oblique fissure
T3-T4 intervertebral space
Inferior border of the lung at mid-axilla
5th intercostal space
Inferior border of lungs posteriorly
T10
Posterior origin of the oblique fissure
6th costal cartilage
Mid-axillary location for both the horizontal and oblique fissure
4th costal cartilage
Anterior origin of the horizontal fissure
Which of the following are true with respect to auscultation?
Always compare lungs bilaterally
To target the right middle lobe, you should auscultate posteriorly
Normal lung sounds will have an inspiration to expiration ratio of 1:2
To auscultate posteriorly, have the patient sit up straight and retract their shoulders
Which of the following are correct definitions of each step of the ABCDE respiratory assessment?
A=Airways
B=Bronchi
C=Circulation
D=Disability
E=Exacerbation
What is the correct scale for the National Early Warning Scale (NEWS)
0-10
1-10
0-5
-1 - +1
3 - 0 - 3
10 - 0 - 10
Of the four ABG drawing locations, which is the most commonly used?
Brachial artery
Radial artery
Ulnar artery
Femoral artery
Match the following ABG measurements to their normal values
SaO2
94-100
PaCO2
11-14
HCO3
4.5-6.0
BE
(-2) - (+2)
Ph
22-26
PaO2
7.35-7.45
Match the following oxygen measurements to their definitions
FiO2
Percentage of hemoglobin saturated with O2 in arterial blood
SpO2
Fraction of inspired O2
SaO2
Partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood
PaO2
Percentage of arterial blood in the peripheries saturated with O2
Base excess (BE) refers to the amount of H+ ions required to return pH to a normal level if PaCO2 is normal
True
False
There are three mechanisms that the body uses to restore acid/base imbalance. Select the three.
Metabolic mechanism
Muscle pump mechanism
Buffer mechanism
Gastrointestinal mechanism
Cardiopulmonary mechanism
Respiratory mechanism
What is the correct difference between type 1 and 2 respiratory failure
Type 1 is only hypercapnic and type 2 is only hypoxemic
Type 1 is only hypoxemic and type 2 is both hypoxemic and hypercapnic
Type 1 is both hypoxemic and hypercapnic and type 2 is only hypercapnic
Type 1 is hypoxic and type 2 is hypoxemic
Hypoxemia is said to have 5 causes. Which of the following is not one?
Shunt
V/Q mismatch
Alveolar hypoventilation
Alveolar hyperventilation
Reduced O2 in inspired air
Which of the following conditions is typically due to kidney malfunction?
Respiratory acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
In a patient with metabolic alkalosis we could expect to see a base excess (BE) value of 8 or higher
True
False
With respect to COPD, which value is typically impaired and used to diagnose the disease?
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
Forced inspiratory volume in 1 second (FIV1)
Vital capacity (VC)
Tidal volume (TV)
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Which 2 underlying conditions must a patient have before being diagnosed with COPD?
Atelectasis
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
Cystic fibrosis
Which protein deficiency is responsible for genetic cases of COPD?
Beta-2-Adenosine triphosphate deficiency
Alpha-Glycerophosphorylcholine deficiency
Alpha-1-Antitrypsin deficiency
Alpha-1-Adrenergic deficiency
Interpret the following ABG: pH: 7.27 PaO2: 7.9 PaCO2: 8.90 BE 2 HCO3: 25
T1RF respiratory acidosis
T1RF respiratory alkalosis
T2RF respiratory acidosis
T2RF respiratory alkalosis
A patient presents to you with an FEV1 of 61, has had no exacerbations in the last year, and scores a 2 on the mMRC scale. According to the GOLD guidelines, what classification would you give this patient?
GOLD 1, A
GOLD 2, A
GOLD 2, B
GOLD 3, E
GOLD 3, B
GOLD 4, A
A patient presents to you with a FEV1 of 35 and an mMRC score of 3. You also noticed that they have only had one exacerbation this year, but they had to be hospitalized. According to the GOLD guidelines, where would you classify this patient?
GOLD 1, B
GOLD 3, B
GOLD 4, E
GOLD 2, E
GOLD 3, E
In order to be diagnosed with COPD, a patient must have less than 0.8 on the FEV1/FVC test after taking bronchodilators
True
False
Which of the following would accurately describe an mMRC score of 2
I am breathless when hurrying or walking up a hill
I am too breathless to leave the house
I must stop after walking roughly 100m on flat ground to catch my breath
I walk slower than most people my age and need to stop on level surfaces to catch my breath
I only get breathless when performing strenuous exercise
Which 3 of the following would you expect to see on a chest Xray of a patient with COPD?
Decreased heart presentation
Hyperinflation of the lungs
Honeycomb presentation
Blunting of the costophrenic angles
Increased white areas
Bilateral size differences
A zephyr valve is placed in healthy lungs to only allow air into the lung
True
False
A COPD exacerbation is characterized by an increase in symptoms that worsen after 4 days
True
False
Select the correct definition of the Haldane effect
Air will travel from areas of higher pressure to lower pressure
An increase in expiratory pressure may cause airways to close
HCO3 is synthesized from CO2 and H2O in an effort to combat the effects of elevated CO2 and decreased pH values
If there is too much O2 present in the body, it will preferentially bond to hemoglobin causing CO2 to be dropped and retained
Bronchiectasis is the result of abnormal and irreversible airway constriction, chronic inflammation, and infection.
True
False
Select the 3 types of bronchiectasis
Saccular/cystic
Muscarinic
Cylindrical
Varicose
Chronic inflammatory
Hyper-restrictive
What could you expect to see on the chest Xray of a patient with bronchiectasis?
Widened airways and white aspects surrounding airways
Costophrenic angle blunting
Decreased lung volumes
Hyper inflation
Asthma is controlled, not cured.
True
False
The yellow stage of the asthma action plan involves:
Taking only your daily controller madication
Taking the daily controller medications plus medications indicated for this stage
Taking emergency medications and calling your doctor immediately
At what stage of the GINA guidelines for asthma would an ICS be added to the reliever medication prescription
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
You would never add an ICS to the reliever medications
What stage of the GINA guidelines would the controller medication prescriptions be a moderate to high dose of ICS and LABA
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Stage 5
Select the true statement below with regard to metered dose inhalers (MDI) and dry-powder inhalers (DPI)
MDIs release aerosolized medication and require sharp and quick inhales to use
MDIs release dry powder medication and require a long and slow inhale to use
DPIs release dry powder medication and require sharp and quick inhales to use
DPIs release dry powder medication and require a long and slow inhale to use
LAMA stands for long acting mucogenic agent
True
False
Classic MDI inhalers only deposit roughly 9-10% of their medication unless a spacer is used
True
False
A patient comes in to your clinic with a referral for a spirometry test. In their subjective assessment they noted that they recently had a root canal that is still rather painful. Why might this be an issue for you?
Pain may reduce the patients ability to produce an accurate value on the spirometry test
There is an infection risk when completing the test
There is no potential issue for spirometry
Pneumonia is an inflammatory response to infection that can be community or hospital acquired
True
False
Your patient has been diagnosed with pneumonia 5 days ago. What stage of pneumonia would you expect them to be in at this time?
Consolidation
Grey hepatization
Red hepatization
Resolution
What does the current body of research suggest with respect to physiotherapeutic intervention for patients with pneumonia?
It is most effective if implemented in the red hepatization phase
It is most effective if implemented in the grey hepatization phase
It is equal to or more effective than pharmacological intervention
Physiotherapy provides little to no improvement of outcome for patients with pneumonia
A high volume huff is a good technique to clear secretions in the lower airways
True
False
The acapella is an adjunct that combines the effects of which two other adjuncts?
Postural drainage
Flutter
Incentive spirometry
CPAP
PEP
The green acapella provides more expiratory resistance than the blue acapella
True
False
What temperature and saturation is set when heating and humidifying air?
20 degrees and 100%
37 degrees and 90%
37 degrees and 100%
30 degrees and 100%
27 degrees and 50%
Restrictive lung diseases cause what type of flow loop shift?
Left
Right
Vertical
No shift
How would a IPF patient's chest Xray present?
Honeycomb
Blunted costophrenic angles
Hyper inflation
Reduced lung volumes
Increased white lobules
What percentage of patients with sarcoidosis spontaneously recover in two years?
50%
60%
70%
80%
What is the difference between and pneumothorax and pleural effusion?
Pleural effusion is a build up of fluid in the lungs whereas a pneumothorax is air in the pleural space
Pleural effusion is fluid in the pleural space whereas a pneumothorax is blood in the pleural space
Pleural effusion is pus in the pleural space whereas a pneumothorax is fluid in the pleural space
Pleural effusion is fluid in the pleural space whereas a pneumothorax is air in the pleural space
They both refer to the same condition
The above picture is an example of:
Right sided pneumothorax
Left sided pneumothorax
Left sided pleural effusion
COPD
Bilateral sarcoidosis
This chest X-ray is an example of:
Pulmonary embolism
Pleural effusion
Diaphragm paralysis
Rib fracture
Pneumothorax
This chest X-ray is an example of:
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Pulmonary embolism
Diaphragmatic palsy
Hemothorax
Select all of the following RESTRICTIVE lung diseases
Cystic fibrosis
COPD
Pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
Asthma
Sarcoidosis
Bronchiectasis
Select all of the following OBSTRUCTIVE lung diseases
Pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
COPD
Cystic fibrosis
Asthma
Sarcoidosis
Bronchiectasis
Select all of the following statements about cystic fibrosis (CF) that are TRUE
Diagnosis is done once the patient turns 10 years old
There are over 1500 known mutations that cause CF
CF affects ion channels resulting is retained chloride and absorption of salt ions (Na+)
One common symptom of CF is the inability to digest carbohydrates, so patients must take a dietary enzyme every time they eat
If you have a defective CFTR gene mutation, you will get CF
The preferred angle for chest X-rays is posteroanterior
True
False
X-rays should be taken at the end of maximum inspiration, however, maximum expiration can be used if you are looking to examine trapped air
True
False
As a respiratory physiotherapist, if you suspect a patient may require more oxygen, you can increase the dose
True
False
Which of the following statements is correct?
97-98% of oxygen is carried in the blood combined with hemoglobin
Pulse oximetry is best measured using the index finger
Pulse oximetry uses ultraviolet light to measure oxygen saturations
5-10% of oxygen is transported dissolved in the plasma
Myoglobin picks up oxygen at the alveoli and transports it into target tissues
Match the following PaO2 values with the associated symptom that occurs when the PaO2 first reaches that level
Below 6 KPa
Confusion
Below 11 KPa
Loss of consciousness
Below 8 KPa
Hypoxemia
Below 4.3 KPa
Tachypnea
Match the following steps of oxygen transport in the correct order
Step 6
O2 diffuses across the alveolar membrane into the blood
Step 7
O2 is bonded to myoglobin and transported to the mitochondria to be used in cellular metabolism
Step 4
O2 bonds with Hb and travels to its target tissue
Step 5
O2 leaves the cell as a waste product (CO2)
Step 3
O2 dissociates from Hb and travels across the cell target cell membrane
Step 2
O2 travels to the alveoli
Step 1
O2 is inhaled
Select all of the following conditions that would contribute to a right shift on the oxygen dissociation curve
Increased Ph
Increased temperature
Decreased temperature
Increased CO2 levels
Decreased CO2 levels
Decreased concentrations of organic phosphates
Select all of the following conditions that would contribute to a left shift on the oxygen dissociation curve
Decreased Ph
Increased Ph
Decreased temperature
Increased concentrations of organic phosphates
Reduced levels of CO2
The Bohr effect refers to the right shift on the oxygen dissociation curve as oxygen and Hb decrease their bonding affinity
True
False
Select all of the following correct statements with respect to the oxygen dissociation curve
As the curve shifts left there is increased affinity between oxygen and hemoglobin
Increased temperatures cause denaturing of the bonds between oxygen and hemoglobin resulting in a right shift
Exercise is an example of a stimulus that would shift the dissociation curve to the right
Exercise is an example of a stimulus that would shift the dissociation curve to the left
Alkalosis would contribute to a right shift
Organic phosphates preferentially bond to oxygen attachment sites on hemoglobin, preventing oxygen from bonding. this contributes to a right shift on the curve
Which of the following statements in UNTRUE with respect to home oxygen therapy
To be referred to an O2 assessment clinic a patient must consistently saturate at less than 92% and have a respiratory condition for 8 or more weeks
Following the initial assessment 6MWT, a follow up 6MWT must be performed 3 weeks later
At discharge from hospital, only patients who are hypoxic, dyspneic, and unable to manage without O2 can be prescribed LTOT on the spot
LTOT is defined as O2 used for more than 20hrs/day
O2 therapy may be contraindicated if the patient is severely hypercapnic or acidotic
A patient presents to you for prescription of LTOT. After performing an ABG you noticed their PaO2 is 7.8. Do you prescribe this patient LTOT?
Yes
No
Yes, if they have evidence of peripheral edema, pulmonary hypertension, or polycythemia
Patients that smoke can be refused O2 prescription
True
False
Match the 4 types of hypoxia with their correct definitions
Systotoxic hypoxia
Hypoxia cause by an inadequate ability to carry O2 on Hb in arterial blood
Circulatory hypoxia
Inability to deliver sufficient volume of O2 to tissue causing hypoxia
Hypoxic hypoxia
Impaired ability of tissues to metabolize delivered O2
Hypoxemic hypoxia
Low arterial tension causing hypoxia
A patient presents to the hospital with reported systotoxic hypoxia. What could have potentially caused this diagnosis?
Sepsis
Impaired cardiac output
Hemoglobinopathy
Blood vessel impairment or damage
Restrictive lung disease
At what volume of O2 does relative humidity begin to decline, requiring heating and humidification of the O2 therapy
2L/min
3L/min
4L/min
5L/min
6L+/min
Select the two acute dyspnea managements strategies from the list below
Improve nutrition
Pursed lips breathing
Positions of ease
Postural drainage
ACBT
Undrained pneumothorax ;)
What is the primary difference between spinal anesthesia and epidural anesthesia?
Spinal is local, epidural is systemic
Spinal is injected only at L4 and epidural is only injected at T12
Epidural injections are used for surgeries from the umbilicus and up, whereas spinal injections are for surgeries from the umbilicus down
Spinal anesthesia is injected into the CSF whereas epidural anesthesia is injected into the epidural space
A patient is going in for a surgery. You cannot remember what surgery they said they were getting but you know it ended in -plasty. What will happen in their surgery?
Surgical removal
Surgical repair
Visual examination
Surgical creation of an opening
Which of the following surgery types is the least invasive?
Thoracotomy
Sternotomy
VATS
Laparotomy
What does bubbling from the underwater seal drain during expiration indicate?
Moderate air leak
Large, emergency air leak
Small air leak
Nothing, this is a normal occurrence
Which of the following is not one of the 4 key items to look for in a patient's underwater seal drain?
Drainage
Suction
Swinging
Bubbling
Color change
Bubbling of an underwater seal drain typically resolves on its own if it is small to moderate
True
False
You friend told you they are going to the hospital next week for a lung surgery. They do not remember the name of the surgery but they tell you they are getting a hyperinflated, damaged section of their lung removed. Their doctor told them that it should help with their emphysema and exercise capability. What type of surgery are they getting?
Pneumonectomy
Lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS)
Sleeve lobotomy
Wedge resection
Lobectomy
You enter a patients room for the first time. What should you look for when approaching the bed to ensure patient safety?
Wound drains
IV lines
Central lines
Chest drains
Arterial lines
Snacks
What percentage range of patients will die within 30 days post surgery if they develop a PPC?
2-5%
5-10%
15%
14-30%
22-37%
31-43%
Which of the following would be considered a PPC
Atelectasis
Pleural effusion
Death
Lower limb muscle weakness
Respiratory infection
Surgical site infection
Your team is trying to determine if a patient you are working with has developed a PPC. They are presenting with abnormal breath sounds, a temperature of 39 degrees Celsius, and yellow sputum production. They have also received a chest Xray but you are waiting on radiology to pass on the results. According to the Melbourne classification of PPCs, does your patient have a PPC?
Yes
No
Yes, if the chest Xray comes back and shows consolidation or collapse
Yes, if the chest Xray shows nothing of concern
Which of the following 4 symptoms are associated with increased PPC risk due to general anesthesia?
Atelectasis
Reduced respiratory muscle tone
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumothorax
Reduced mucociliary clearance
Depressed respiratory drive
Smoking cessation pre-op will reduce PPC likelihood by:
50% if quit 4 weeks pre-op
23% if quit 4 weeks pre-op
23% if quit 8 weeks pre-op
47% if quit 4 weeks pre-op
100% if quit 10 weeks pre-op
PPC likelihood is increased if a patient is anesthetized for longer than
30 minutes
60 minutes
180 minutes
200 minutes
The evidence suggests that pre-op physiotherapy can help improve outcomes and reduce PPCs
True
False
A patient with a respiratory rate of 22 BPM is said to be
Tachypneic
Bradypneic
Tachycardic
Bradycardic
Hypertensive
A patient presents to you with a BP of 120/80 and a HR of 42, this patient is:
Hypertensive/bradycardic
Hypotensive/normal HR
Normal BP/tachycardic
Hypertensive/bradycardic
Normal BP/bradycardic
Hypotensive/normal
There are 4 components of pulmonary rehab (PR). Which of the following are not one of those 4?
Recommendation for home-based exercise
Comprehensive assessment and outcome measuring
Chest X-ray referral
Patient education and behavioral program
ABG analysis
Structured, unsupervised exercise programs
Which 2 of the following statements is true with respect to the evidence surrounding PR?
There is strong evidence to support the use of PR to improve dyspnea, emotional function and sense of control is COPD patients
In patients with bronchiectasis, results are only seen after a 6 month follow up
For patients with asthma, PR primarily improves sputum clearance and hypercapnic symptoms
In IPF patients, the largest improvement is seen in QOL scores
For patients with COPD, there is little evidence to support the effectiveness of PR, except with respect to lower limb strength
Which of the following is not a pulmonary rehab core component?
Facilitate smoking cessation
Detect and manage exacerbations
Promote mental health
Fit and educate patients around walking aids
Exercise rehabilitation
Advanced care planning
Select the 3 exclusion criterion from the list below
Significant cognitive impairment
Unstable heart condition
Pre-operative patients
Stable pulmonary hypertension
mMRC of 2 or more
Terminal phase of the disease
What is the main difference between the incremental shuttle walk test (ISWT) and the 6 minute walk test (6MWT)?
ISWT is done with more advanced patients, the 6MWT is used for healthier patients
ISWT involves shuffling between cones, the 6MWT involves running between cones
ISWT is a maximal test, 6MWT is sub-maximal
They are different names for the same test
ISWT is a sub-maximal test, 6MWT is a maximal test
An improvement of 2 repetitions on the one minute sit to stand test is indicative of improved physical outcomes
True
False
Usual gait speed is a reliable predictor of adverse outcomes in advanced or elderly patients
True
False
The education component of pulmonary rehab typically occurs before the exercise class
True
False
You are working as a member of the pulmonary rehab exercise team. Your patient can maintain a 3-4 on the Borg dyspnea scale for roughly 4 minutes before he deteriorates rapidly to an 8. To combat this issue, how would you structure his exercise program to ensure you can work at an adequate intensity?
Use interval style training
Use continuous style training
Increase the volume of resistance training and decrease the volume of aerobic training
Increase the volume of aerobic training and decrease the volume of resistance training
Neuromuscular electrical stimulation is most effective in which patient group?
COPD patients
Patients with fractures
Patients who are unable to generate a manual contraction of the muscle
Huge 110Kg bodybuilders at 4% body fat (Ronan Monahan)
Patients with low exercise capacity
Match the following collateral ventilation structures with the stage at which they develop.
Channels of Martin
1-2 years old
Channels of Lambert
4-6 years old
Pores of Khon
Only develop if there is pathology present during development
Halving the airway diameter decreases the flow rate by 16 times
True
False
Select all of the following true statements with respect to pediatric respiratory features
Infants breathe entirely through their nose and cannot mouth breath until they are 6 months old
The bucket handle mechanism of thoracic expansion does not occur until the child turns roughly two years old
An infants diaphragm flatter than an adults, making it much more inefficient
Infants have a very high FRC due to high compliancy of their lungs
Children have poorer V/Q matching in side lying than adults
An infants heart will take up 1/3 of the thoracic space on a chest Xray
Infants lose positive expiratory end pressure (PEEP) during REM sleep due to a decrease in laryngeal muscle tone
True
False
As an infant ages, what trends do we see with respect to HR, BP and RR?
HR decreases
HR increases
BP decreases
BP increases
RR decreases
RR increases
Infants should not be suctioned for longer than 10 seconds
True
False
Which of the following are signs of respiratory distress in pediatric patients?
Head bobbing
Decreased respiratory rate
Increased crying
Tracheal tug
Nasal flaring
Grunting
Primary cilia dyskinesia patients experience situs invertus in 40-50% of cases
True
False
Match the stages of lung development with the correct age range
Pseudo glandular
0-6 weeks
Canalicular
6-17 weeks
Embryonic
24 weeks up to 4 years old
Alveolar sac development
17-24 weeks
Match the stages of lung development with the associated structures that develop within each phase
Canalicular
Bronchi and bronchioles
Pseudo glandular
Respiratory bronchioles
Alveolar sac development
lveolar ducts and sacs
Embryonic
Bronchioles and terminal bronchioles
An incomplete spinal injury means there is no function of any structure below the injury
True
False
Match the following types of multiple sclerosis to their correct definition
Primary progressive
Gradual degeneration with no improvement
Progressive relapsing
Exacerbations followed by asymptomatic or improving periods
Relapsing-remitting
Rapid deterioration with no improvements
Secondary progressive
Rapid deterioration with periods of recovery\
Respiratory function is the best predictor of prognosis in NMDs
True
False
Which of the following is not a symptom of respiratory impairment in a patient with NMD
Dyspnea
Poor memory
Chest tightness
Nightmares
Recurrent chest infections
Which sniff nasal inspiratory pressure (SNIP) test value would indicate impairment?
40cm
50cm
60cm
70cm
Which of the following conditions would be considered inclusion criteria for the prescription of NIV in a NMD patient?
PaCO2 of 6.5 or higher when tested in the morning
HCO3 of less than 20
A BORG score of 2 at rest
Appetite loss
FVC of less than 80
If a patient is contraindicated for a SNIP test, a BORG score of 3 or greater when at rest and seated can suffice.
True
False
Your friend has a peak cough flow of 455. You tell them not to worry, this is perfectly normal. Is this true or false?
True
False
When performing assisted inspiration by using breath stacking, you should perform three inhalations with the patients and squeeze the entire insufflation bag each time
True
False
Why is Hyasine not used for sialorrhea management?
Hyasine does not effect salivary glands, only mucosal glands
Hyasine will cause over production of saliva
Hyasine is the preferred drug for treatment of sialorrhea
Hyasine will dry out saliva, but also dry secretions making them difficult to mobilize
0
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