Eksamen del 3 (102-149)
102. The tactile receptors:
A. Perceive pressure (the deep ones)
B. Are located in the dermis
C. Are located in the epidermis
D. Are more numerous in the areas of the skin covered with hair
E. Are more numerous in the areas of the skin without hair
103. Vater-Pacini corpuscles:
A. Are rapidly adapting
B. Detect vibration
C. Were also considered receptors of cold
D. Perceive touch
E. Are located in the upper part of the dermis
104. Thermal receptors:
A. Perceive touch
B. Are free nerve endings small in diameter
C. Are myelinated free nerve endings
D. Are unmyelinated free nerve endings
E. Belong to the category of mechanoreceptors
105. The following are considered warmth receptors:
A. Pacini corpuscles
B. Krause corpuscles
C. Merkel discs
D. Golgi-Mazzoni corpuscles
E. Ruffini corpuscles
106. Pain receptors:
A. Decrease the intensity of the sensation if the stimulus persists
B. Are stimulated by mechanical factors
C. Are stimulated by thermal factors
D. Adapt very little or not at all in the presence of stimuli
E. Are mainly free nerve endings
107. The neurotendinous Golgi corpuscles are:
A. Located among the smooth muscle fibres
B. Located among the skeletal muscle fibres
C. Located at the muscle-tendon junction
D. Identical to those located in the skin
E. Located in the periosteum
108. The neuromuscular spindle is:
A. A network of bagged autonomic nerve fibres
B. Made up of 5-10 intrafusal fibres
C. Disseminated among smooth muscle fibres
D. Disseminated among striated muscle fibres
E. Disseminated among tendinous muscle fibres
109. The olfactory receptors are located:
A. In a special area of the buccal mucosa
B. In the posterosuperior part of the nasal fossae
C. In a special area of the labial mucosa
D. In the inferior nasal conchae
E. In the posteroinferior part of the nasal fossae
110. The four fundamental tastes are perceived as follows:
A. Sweetness – on the margins of the tongue
B. Saltiness – on the anterior part of the tongue
C. Sourness – on the tip of the tongue
D. Bitterness – on the tip of the tongue
E. Bitterness – on the back of the tongue
111. The taste buds:
A. Have an ovoid shape
B. Are located in the fungiform papillae in the mucous membrane of the tongue
C. Are located in the filiform papillae
D. Are chemically stimulated
E. Contain olfactory cells in their structure
112. The external coat of the eyeball is made up of:
A. The choroid
B. The cornea
C. The lens
D. The retina
E. The sclera
113. The cornea:
A. Is transparent
B. Does not have blood vessels fibres
C. Is part of the tunica media
D. Is opaque
E. Contains several nerve
114. The tunica media of the eyeball is made up of:
A. The sclera
B. The choroid
C. The cornea
D. Ciliary body
E. The iris
115. The ciliary body:
A. Has an aperture in its middle called pupil
B. Is located immediately before the ora serrata
C. Is a part of the external layer of the eyeball
D. Is a part of the internal layer of the eyeball
E. Is a diaphragm on the anterior face of the lens
116. The iris:
A. Contains the ciliary muscle in its structure
B. Is a part of the tunica media
C. Acts like a diaphragm
D. Has an aperture in its middle called pupil
E. Regulates the quantity of light that reaches the cornea
117. The macula lutea:
A. Is located alongside the visual axis
B. Is located anterior to ora serrata
C. Does not have photosensitive elements
D. Has more cone cells than rods
E. Has a concave area in its centre called fovea centralis
118. The rods of the retina:
A. Contain 3 types of visual pigments
B. Their number is around 6-7 million
C. Are adapted for nocturnal vision
D. Their number is about 125 million
E. Are responsible for perceiving the colour of objects
119. The cone cells of the retina:
A. Are absent in the fovea centralis
B. Their number is around 6-7 million
C. Are adapted for nocturnal vision
D. Contain 3 types of visual pigments
E. Are more numerous towards the periphery of the retina
120. Refringence transmission media are represented by:
A. The lens
B The choroid
C. The cornea
D. The aqueous humour
E. The vitreous humour
121. The anterior chamber of the eyeball is located between: .
A. The lens and the macula
B. The lens and the ciliary body
C the lens and the retina
D. The sclera and the choroid
E. The iris and the cornea
122. The lens:
A. Has a biconvex shape
B. Is opaque
C. Is located between the iris and the vitreous body
D. Contains blood vessels
E. Is located in a vitreous chamber
123. The acoustic analyzer perceives:
A. Sound waves repeated in a certain sequence
B. Sounds
C. Noises
D. Information about the position of the body
E. Information about the spatial movement of the body
124. The vestibular analyzer:
A. Provides information about noise
B. Provides information about the position of the body
C. Provides information about the spatial movement of the body
D. Triggers postural reflexes
E. Triggers gesture reflexes
125. The external ear contains:
A. The internal auditory meatus
B. The external auditory meatus
C. The membranous labyrinth
D. The bony labyrinth
E. The auricula
126. The Eustachian tube:
A. Links the external ear to the tympanic cavity
B. Links the tympanic cavity to the nasopharynx
C. Opens on the anterior wall of the tympanic cavity
D. Opens on the posterior wall of the tympanic cavity
E. Equalizes the pressure on both faces of the eardrum
127. The organ of Corti lies on the following membrane:
A. Basal
B. Basilar
C. Reticular
D. Tectorial
E. Tympanic
128. The endolymph is:
A. Contained in the tympanic and vestibular cavity walls
B. Contained in the cochlear canal
C. Contained in the membranous labyrinth
D. A fluid secreted by the choroid plexuses
E. A fluid whose pressure variations determine the basilar membrane to vibrate
129. The auditory cells:
A. Are located beneath the support cells
B. Are located above the support cells
C. Their basal pole has auditory cilia
D. Their apical pole has auditory cilia
E. Are located in the membranous semicircular canals
130. The acoustic receptors are located in:
A. The internal ear
B. The utricula
C. Corti’s organ
D. The bony semicircular canals
E. The saccule æå
131. The glands of internal secretion:
A. Are made up of secretory epithelia
B. Produce active substances called hormones
C. Discharge secretion products directly into the blood
D. Produce chemical substances which act at the place of synthesis
E. All the above
132. Hormones:
A. Are produced by the endocrine glands
B. Are unspecific chemical substances
C. Affect targets that are far from the place of synthesis
D. Produce particular effects
E. Are released into the bloodstream
133. The endocrine function of the kidney is to secrete:
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Adrenalinee
C. Erythropoietin
D. Urine
E. Insulin
134. What is the main role of endocrine glands?
A. To coordinate the activity of different organs using nervous pathways
B. To ensure the growth and development of the human body only after puberty has set in
C. To ensure the locomotion of the body
D. To determine the appearance of sexual characteristics before puberty
E. To regulate cell metabolism
135. The adenohypophysis is made up of:
A. The anterior lobe
B. The intermediate lobe
C. The posterior lobe
D. The neurohypophysis
E. The epiphysis
136. The hypophyseal portal system ensures the following connections: E
A. Nervous – between the anterior hypothalamus and neurohypophysis
B. Vascular – between the median hypothalamus and the posterior lobe of the hypophysis
C. Vascular – between the median hypothalamus and adenohypophysis
D. Vascular – between the posterior hypothalamus and neurohypophysis
. None of the above
137. Which of the glandular tropic hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis?
A. ACTH
B. TSH
C. FSH
D. LH
E. Oxytocin
138. TSH stimulates:
A. The growth and development of muscles
B. The growth and development of the viscera
C. The growth and development of the brain
D. Chondrogenesis at the level of diaphysis – epiphysis growth cartilage
E. Long bone growth
139. Prolactin stimulates:
A. The production of milk by the mammary gland
B. The contraction of the smooth muscle of the pregnant uterus
C. The increase of the force and rate of cardiac contractions
D. Pigmentogenesis
E. Protein catabolism
140. Vasopressin:
A. Increases the optional absorption of water in the kidney glomeruli
B. Induces the decrease of the urine output
C. Induces urine concentration
D. Decreases the secretion of all endocrine glands
E. In large quantities, determines vasoconstriction
141. Oxytocin :
A. Is secreted by the neurohypophysis
B. Is being circulated by the anterior hypothalamus
C. Stimulates the contraction of the smooth muscle in the non-pregnant uterus
D. Stimulates the contraction of myoepithelial cells that surround the mammary gland alveolae
E. None of the above
142. Glucocorticoids are represented by:
A. Aldosterone
B. Cortisone
C. Cortisol
D. Corticotropin
E. Sexo-steroids
143. Cortisol triggers the following effect(s):
A. Glycogenesis in the liver
B. Gluconeogenesis in the adipose tissue
C. Muscular glycogenesis
D. Increase in the intestinal glucose uptake
E. None of the above
144. Lipolysis is enhanced by the following hormones:
A. Prolactin
B. Cortisol
C. Adrenalinee
D. Glucagon
E. Insulin
145. The main cardiovascular effects of noradrenalinee are, vasoconstriction and hypertension
: A. Bradycardia
B. Bradycardia, vasodilation and hypertension
C. Tachycardia, vasodilation and hypotension
D. Tachycardia, vasodilation and hypertension
E. Tachycardia, vasoconstriction and hypertension
146. The metabolic effects of the medulla-suprarenal hormones include:
A. Production of glycogenolysis
B. Pupil dilation
C. Mobilisation of fat reserves
D. Catabolism of fatty acids
E. Contraction of striated fibres of the hair erector muscles
147. The thyroid is located:
A. In the anterior neck
B. In the posterior neck
C. Behind the trachea
D. In the thorax
E. In the abdomen
148. The hormones secreted by the thyroid follicles include:
A. Calcitonin
B. Thyroxine
C. Triiodothyronine
D. Thyroglobulin
E. PTH
149. Thyroid hormones have the following effect(s) on the nervous system structure:
A. Stimulate neuron differentiation
B. Stimulate the ascending reticular activating system
C. Stimulate the normal development of synapses and myelination
D. Induce EEG alterations
E. Trigger cortical alert, anxiety and fear
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