Micro exam 2023 part 2
Micro Exam 2023: Part 2 Quiz
Test your knowledge on microbiology with our comprehensive quiz designed for students and healthcare professionals alike. This quiz covers a variety of topics including bacterial infections, viral diseases, and diagnostic methods, allowing you to assess your understanding of key concepts in microbiology.
Take the challenge and learn from the following:
- 30 carefully curated questions
- Detailed classifications of pathogens
- Latest treatment guidelines
- In-depth insights into human microbiota
Choose correct combination of etiological agent and disease/condition:
Haemophilus influenzae – urethritis in men
Streptococcus pyogenes –Pontiac fever
Propionibacterium acnes – whitlow (paronychia)
Mobiluncus – bacterial vaginosis
Coxiella burnetti – trachoma
Choose cell-wall deficient bacterium, resistant to beta-lactams:
E.coli
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycoplasma hominis
Candida albicans
Neisseria meningitidis
Choose correct combination of drugs of choice recommended to treat bacterial meningitis:
1 month– 5-year-old children – ampicillin and gentamicin
Adults– ampicillin and metronidazole
Newborns – ampicillin and cefotaxime
10-18-year-old – gentamicin and cefazolin
Isoniazid for meningococcal prophylaxis of high-risk groups
Diagnosis: renal tuberculosis. Which of the laboratory test is the most appropriate to confirm the etiology?
Sputum sample culture
CSF culture
Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen detection in urine sample
Urine sample culture
Blood serological assay
Which of the following bacteria are associated with pyelonephritis and kidney stone formation?
Ureaplasma urealyticum, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumanii
Acinetobacter baumanii, Kingella kingae
Proteus mirabilis, Klebsiella pneumoniae
Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Chlamydia trachomatis
Choose bacterium most commonly associated with periodontitis in adults:
Bacteroides fragilis
Streptococcus sanguinis
Eikenella corrodens
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Pasteurella multocida
Which of the following viruses binds to CR2 (CD21) receptor of complement C3d component:
HHV-1 - shingles
CMV - Burkitt lymphoma
B19 parvovirus – erythema infectiosum
HHV-6 – Kaposi sarcoma
Rhinovirus – aseptic meningitis
RSV:
Causes localized infection of the respiratory tract
Causes viremia and systemic spread
Natural infection prevents reinfection
Cytopathic effect includes syncytia formation
Maternal antibody does not prevent infant from infection
Choose the most common etiological agents of atypical pneumonia in school-age children (5-15 years old):
RSV, Haemophilus influenzae
Adenoviruses, Streptococcus pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis, Pneumocystis jiroveci
Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Influenza virus
Quantitative-qualitative evaluation of microorganisms plays an essential role in culturing of:
Blood sample
Stool sample
CSF
Urine
BAL
Invasive aspergillosis:
Indicates patients with complement deficiencies
Is associated with neutropenia and impaired function of phagocytic cells
Voriconazole and amphotericin B are recommended for treatment
Is most commonly caused by Aspergillus fumigatus
Respiratory tract is the main and most important gate of entry
Legionnaires’ disease treatment options include:
Amoxicillin
Meropenem
Azithromycin
Levofloxacin
Gentamicin
Roxithromycin:
Is an option used to treat infections caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Is bacteriostatic
Due to its spectrum is the first-line drug used to treat UTI
Inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis
Is active against I.a. Gram-positive cocci
Bacterial resistance to quinolones stems from:
Modification of bacterial DNA gyrase
Alternative metabolic pathway
Modified target site of PBP's
AmpC beta-lactamase production
Drug acetylation
Routine diagnostic of Rotavirus infection includes the analysis of:
Cervical swab
Stool sample
CSF
Blood sample
Conjunctival swab
Choose the correct statement regarding human microbiota:
Core microbiome are microbial species that contribute to the unique diversity of individuals at specific body sites
Probiotics are food ingredients that support the growth of one or more members of the microbiota
Secondary microbiome is represented by a limited number of species, which comprise the largest proportion of the microbial population
Of the approximately 200 unique species of bacteria that colonize the gut, most are members of Actinobacteria, Bacteroidetes, and Firmicutes
Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics doesn't lead to the disruption of the microbiome and loss of essential functions
Choose the drug used to treat otitis media in small children:
Doxycycline
Colistin
Amoxicillin
Ciprofloxacin
Cloxacillin
Choose the correct combination:
Strictly anaerobic, Gram-negative rods – Chlamydia
Strictly anaerobic, Gram-negative rods – Bacteroides
Facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative cocci – Enterococcus
Strictly anaerobic, Gram-positive spore-forming rods – Actinomyces
Strictly aerobic, Gram-negative rods – Helicobacter
Choose assays, which due to low sensitivity are not useful in the diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections:
PCR
Microscopic examination of Gram-stained smears
Immunoenzymatic assay
Culturing of bacteria on artificial media
Rapid antigen tests
Choose virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis:
Fimbriae – mediate attachment to human cells
Opa protein– membrane proteins that mediate binding to epithelial cells
Leukocidin – leukocyte damage
IgA1 protease– destroys immunoglobulin A1
Polypeptide capsule – antiphagocytic properties
Choose agent/s used in HIV therapy:
Azidothymidine–nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Saquinavir – transcriptase inhibitor
Zanamivir– CCR5 co-receptor antagonist
Nevirapine – protease inhibitor
Enfuvirtide– protein synthesis inhibitor
Foodborne disease associated with Yersinia enterocolitica may follow the ingestion of:
Unpasteurized milk products
Rabbit meat
Fruits
Crustacean (shellfish)
Poultry
The following are examples of drug synergism except:
Vancomycin and gentamicin – Enterococcus infections
Ceftazidime I gentamicin – P. Aeruginosa infections
Trimethoprim and vancomycin – E. Coli infections
Amphotericin B and flucytosine – cryptococcal meningitis
Ampicillin and gentamicin – Listeria meningitis
Choose incorrect statement regarding the diagnostic of viral infections:
Syncytia are formed in cells infected with RSV
Seroconversion is at least a fourfold increase of IgG titer in patient serum
Clinical specimen is transported at room temperature, collected on special artificial media
SARS-CoV2 genetic material is detected in nasopharyngeal swabs using Real-Time PCR
Real-Time PCR is used for the quantitative determination of HIV in patient serum
Choose bacterial agents primarily responsible for ostitis:
Campylobacter jeikeum
Treponema pallidum, Staphylococcus hominis
Haemophilus parainfluenzae, Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Prevotella melaninogenica, Mycoplasma spp
Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Poliomyelitis is caused by:
Potentially non-oncogenic DNA virus
Potentially non-oncogenic RNA virus
Potentially oncogenic RNA virus
Potentially oncogenic DNA virus
RNA defective virus
Choose bacterial indicator disease of AIDS:
Disseminated histoplasmosis
Vaginal candidiasis
Pneumocystis pneumonia
Mycobacterial disease
Cytomegalovirus disease
Choose the correct statement regarding viruses:
The envelope is composed of lipids, proteins, and glycoproteins
Naked capsid is non-infective after drying
Are obligate extracellular parasites
Enveloped viruses are resistant to detergents and heat
Can make energy and proteins independently of a host cell
A 16-year-old male patient has had a sore throat, swollen cervical lymph nodes, fever, increasing fatigue, and hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory examination of blood samples revealed the presence of atypical lymphocytes and heterophile antibodies. After ampicillin was introduced into the treatment, a skin rash has appeared. The clinical picture described most probably indicates an infection caused by:
Streptococcus pyogenes
EBV
CMV
Adenovirus
HSV
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