Quiz 2 chapter 13 -8
A chance to be a forensic scientist RFLP analysis has been requested by the prosecuting attorney in a murder case. DNA samples have been isolated from a blood sample at the crime scene (C), a hair follicle from the victim's hairbrush (V), and a mouth swab of the accused (A). The results of the test are shown. What would you tell the attorney?(رسمه )
The results indicate the accused is guilty.
The results are inconclusive.
The results indicate the accused is innocent.
A transcriptome is
Three-dimensional mRNA structure.
An mRNA-based vector.
A collection of all the genes being transcribed in a given cell or tissue at a given time
The mRNA transcribed to produce a fusion protein.
A proteome is
A protein-based vector.
An improperly digested protein responsible for certain diseases such as "mad cow" disease.
A collection of all the proteins produced in a given cell or tissue.
A three-dimensional protein structure.
Which of the following proteins has been successfully produced through genetic recombination?
Insulin
Human growth hormone
Erythropoietin
Tissue plasminogen activator
All of the above proteins have been produced successfully.
Which of the following conditions is an example of how genetic engineering is currently used to increase food production?
Genetically modified plants have been developed that are resistant to herbicides.
Genetically modified plants have been developed which contain a gene that confers a natural resistance to certain insects.
Hormones are given to cows to increase milk production.
All of these are examples of genetic engineering in agriculture.
In gene therapy
restriction enzymes are introduced into cells to cleave specific genes.
New origins of replication are added to cells to promote cell division.
Traits are altered so that descendents of those treated will inherit those new traits
Cells of specific tissues are altered in a way that alleviates the effects of a disease.
A multiple clonic site is also known as:
A polylinker
An origin of replication
A restriction enzyme site
A selectable marker
Restriction enzymes are especially useful for genetic recombination work for all of the following reasons, except:
They cut DNA in the middle of specific sequences.
They often generate single stranded tails or "sticky ends".
They cut DNA independent of the source of the DNA.
All of these traits make restriction enzymes useful.
Which of the following statements concerning restriction endonucleases is true?
They attack RNA, not DNA.
They attack single-stranded sequences only.
They can produce "sticky ends".
They do not display sequence specificity in their site of attack.
Which of the following are methods used to determine where the DNA bands are located on an electrophoresis gel?
Fluorescence
Radioactivity
Dyes which bind to DNA
All of these can visualize the DNA
The "natural" function of restriction endonucleases is to
help bacteriophages infect cells.
Regulate gene expression from specific promoters.
Remove chromatin from histones.
Protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses (bacteriophages).
A palindrome is
A DNA sequence that contains only one kind of base
A sequence that reads the same from left to right or from right to left
A DNA sequence that contains only two kinds of bases
None of the above
Which of the following is not required in order for a plasmid to be used in genetic recombination?
An "ori" site.
A gene to allow for easy screening an isolation of cells which contain the plasmid.
At least one site for a restriction enzyme to cut.
All of these are essential in a plasmid for DNA recombination.
A highly useful method for determining(visualizing) the presence of hydrolyzed fragments of DNA separated by electrophoresis is
Autoradiography.
X-ray crystallography.
Analytical ultracentrifugation.
All of the above
How does an expression vector differ from a regular cloning vector?
An expression vector does not have an origin of replication.
An expression vector is always a linear molecule, while a cloning vector may be circular.
An expression vector has the ability to have the inserted DNA be transcribed.
An expression vector must be of viral origin, so that it can infect a cell naturally.
Which of the following is not a potential benefit of creating a fusion protein in genetic engineering?
If a signal peptide is included, the protein may be excreted from the cell, making it easier to isolate.
If certain sequences are produced (for example, a histidine oligopeptide), the protein may be isolated by affinity chromatography.
The protein is less likely to be antigenic.
Both signal peptides and histidine oligomers are useful.
All of these reasons are benefits to the protein product.
The following steps are all involved in genetic recombination: 1. Screening for cells that contain the recombined gene. 2. Cutting the vector with restriction enzyme. 3. Mixing the gene of interest with the vector. 4. Isolating the gene of interest from its original source. 5. Ligating the gene of interest and the vector together.
The following sequence of these five steps would be typical:
1®2®3®4®5
2®3®5®1®4
4®2®3®5®1
2®3®5®4®1
Enzymes that seal nicks in DNA are called
Restriction enzymes.
Exonucleases.
Bacteriophages.
ligases.
A plasmid is
a virus that infects bacteria.
An artificially created cytoplasm.
A small circular DNA that is not part of a bacterial chromosome.
A piece of DNA derived from two or more sources.
The difference between active transport and passive transport is that
Concentration gradients are involved in one and not in the other.
Glycolipids play a role in one and not in the other.
One requires expenditure of energy by the cell and the other does not.
Ions are transported into and out of the cell by one process and not by the other.
Which of the following statements concerning active transport is true?
It takes place in the same direction as a concentration gradient.
It requires no expenditure of energy by the cell.
It can be compared to water running downhill.
A membrane-associate protein must be involved.
Which of the following four fatty acids has the highest melting point?
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH 2CH2COOH
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
CH3CH=CHCH2CH2COOH
Which of the following four fatty acids has the lowest melting point?
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH 2CH2COOH
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH
CH3CH=CHCH2CH2COOH
The presence of bacterial or viral clones is detected experimentally by
Analytical ultracentrifugation.
The presence of colonies or plaques on a suitably prepared Petri dish.
Gel electrophoresis.
X-ray crystallography.
Which of the following is not required in order for a plasmid to be used in genetic recombination?
An "ori" site.
A gene to allow for easy screening an isolation of cells which contain the plasmid.
At least one site for a restriction enzyme to cut.
A poly-cloning site or multi-cloning site for gene insertion.
All of these are essential in a plasmid for DNA recombination.
How does cholesterol affect membrane fluidity?
It tends to increase the fluidity.
It tends to decrease the fluidity.
It doesn't have any specific effect on fluidity.
Which of the following is not true?
Plant oils are favored in the diet because they generally contain more unsaturated fats than found in animal fats.
Unsaturated fatty acids lead to higher levels of LDL than saturated fatty acids do
Unsaturated fatty acids are healthier for humans than saturated ones
Heart disease can be correlated with diets high in saturated fatty acids
In electrophoresis experiments
The separation must be carried out in bright light
The sample can be badly degraded as a result of the separation
The polarity of substances to be separated is more important than their charge or size
An electric field must be applied to the mixture to be separated
Liposomes are
Single-layered membranes.
Artificial membrane-bounded structures used to deliver medications.
Mixed micelles involved in cholesterol transport among cells.
Bilayers with the hydrophobic regions on the outside.
Exhibit 8A Exhibit 61. Refer to Exhibit 8A. Which protein would likely be involved in a channel?
1
2
3
4
You cannot tell from the diagram.
Refer to Exhibit 8A. Which protein might help to identify the cell type?
1
2
3
4
More than one could help identify the cell type.
Refer to Exhibit 8A. Protein #2 would most likely function as a:
Carrier
Cell identity
You cannot tell from the diagram.
Receptor
Channel
Glycolipids are characterized by containing the following non-lipid component:
Sugars
Glycerol
Phosphate
Sphingosine
More than one of these characterize glycolipids.
Unsaturated fatty acids usually have ____ double bonds.
Cis
Trans
Which of the following is true?
All fatty acids have an even number of carbons
Most fatty acids have an odd number of carbons
Fatty acids with an odd number of carbons are more rare than those with an even number
Fatty acids are equally likely to have an even number of carbons as they are an odd number
The usefulness of blotting techniques in molecular biology is that
Spills of hazardous chemicals are minimized
It directly gives rise to a genetic map
Only the substance of interest is transferred to a nitrocellulose disk
Transferred material is in the same relative position on the disk as on the original sample
Which of the following is the best phrase to describe the modern view of membrane structure?
Membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers.
Membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers with associated proteins.
Membranes are composed solely of lipids and proteins.
Membranes are a fluid mosaic of lipids and proteins.
Cells that contain a "blue/white screening" plasmid that has an added gene are recognized by the method:
Ability to grow on ampicillin.
The colonies have a blue color.
The colonies lack a blue color.
Inability to grow on ampicillin.
The majority of protein synthesis occurs in the
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Cytoplasm
The template for protein synthesis is:
The DNA coding strand
A mRNA strand
None of these
Wobble allows each codon to interact with more than one tRNA.
True
False
Which of the following is not an advantage of degeneracy in the genetic code?
More than one amino acid can bind to a tRNA.
Each tRNA can bind to more than one codon
Fewer tRNA molecules are needed.
Most codons can bind to more than one tRNA.
Wobble allows a single codon to code for more than one amino acid.
True
False
Which of the following is not a key advantage of wobble in the codon-anticodon reaction?
It allows for fewer tRNAs in the cell.
It allows for making more than one protein from the same coding sequence.
It allows for a certain amount of mutation in the mRNA without affecting the protein sequence.
Transfer RNAs contain an anti-codon loop meant to match (base pair) with a codon on an mRNA.
True
False
Exceptions to the universality of the genetic code have been observed in
Viruses
Mitochondria and 16 other organisms, including some algae and fungae
Prokaryotes
Which amino acids have unique codons?
Met, gly
Trp, met
Tyr, met
The process of amino acid activation
Involves the formation of a peptide bond between the amino acid and tRNA
Involves the formation of an ester bond between the amino acid and tRNA
None of these
An aminoacyl-adenylate contains
An amide bond
An acid anhydride bond
Degradation of proteins
Happens randomly
Always requires ubiquitinylation of proteins to be degraded
Frequently makes use of proteasomes
What does amphipathic mean?
Having both positive and negative char
Having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
Having both acid and base properties
Which of the following groups is not present in a cerebroside?
Sphingosine
Fatty acid
Sugar
All of these can be components of cerebrosides.
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