Immunologia 2023 EP (PUM)

A visually engaging and informative illustration representing immunology concepts, including immune cells, vaccination protocols, and antibody responses, in a scientific and academic style.

Immunology Challenge 2023

Test your knowledge of immunology with our comprehensive quiz designed for students and enthusiasts alike. Dive deep into various topics, from NK cells to autoimmune diseases, and see how well you understand the immune system's nuances.

  • 34 challenging questions
  • Covering a range of immunology topics
  • Engage with interactive content
34 Questions8 MinutesCreated by AnalyzingCell45
Choose correct about NK cells:
Cytotoxic cells to cells infected by viruses, cancerous cells and allogenic transplants
Kill with the participation of perforins and granzymes in direct cytotoxic mechanism
Kill with the ADCC mechanism with participation of CD18 receptor
Are cytotoxic cells to extracellular bacteria and parasites
For the recognition of foreign antigen they do not require MHC restriction
Choose correct about prophylactic vaccination:
BCG is a inactive vaccine and it should be given in 2 reminding doses
IPV is a inactive vaccine against polio virus
DTP is a vaccine which includes toxoids
Vaccination against measles, mumps and rubella is performed with a associated vaccine including all three viruses
Vaccination against Haemophilus influenza type B belongs to recommended vaccinnations
Black – neon green picture:
Glomeruli – antiAMB – Goodpasteure'a syndrome
Parietal cells – APCA – Addison-Biermere – syndrome
Hep – 2010 cells – antidsDNA – lupus erythmatosus
No correct answer
Lung alveoli – antiGBM – Goodpasteure'a syndrome
KIdney donor’s antigens
HLA: HLA – A*03, 06; B*07, 56; DRB1*01, 12,
Recepient’s HLA – A*07, 06; B*12, 56; DRB1*03, 12 and positive vPRA:
anti-HLA A1 (5678), A11 (12567), B2 (123), B27 (4256), Dr9 (567), DR17 (3987).

Is the transplant possible in this situation?:
No, because the recipient has positive anti-DSA under 5000 MFI and is disqualified for the cross match
Yes, because the recipient has positive anti-DSA under 5000 MFI and is qualified for the cross match
Yes, because the recipient has positive anti-DSA above 5000 MFI and is qualified for the cross match
No, because the recipient has positive anti-DSA above 5000 MFI and is disqualified for the cross match
Yes, becuase the recipeint has no anti-DSA and in case of negative cross match the transplant is possible
Defensin action mechanism:
Cuts the beta-glycosidic bonds in the cellular wall of bacteria
Digestion of the cellular wall, cause defensins act as hydrolytic enzymes
Bind to the membrane of the pathogen and induce perforation
Bind iron ions, necessary for living of bacteria
Destroying of the bacterial cellular wall

Notrelated kidney donor has HLA:
HLA – A* - 01, 03; B* - 04, 12; DR B1* - 0108
Blood group “A” Rh(+)
HIV(-), HCV(+), HBV(-), CMV(-), SARS-CoV(-)

Choose the most matching donor:

Donor 5
Donor 1
Donor 3
Donor 4
Donor 2
Based on the figure match letters (A-C) to cells/part of cells during the activation of immunological response:
A-lymphocyte Tc, B- APC cell, C- CD28
A-lymphocyte Tc, B- egg cell, C- CD28
A- lymphocyte Th, B- APC- cell, C-CTLA4
A- lymphocyte Th, B- egg cell, C- CD2
A- lymphocyte Th, B- APC-cell, C- CD28
Choose correct accroding the vaccination against tuberculosis:
Vaccination contains live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Vaccination contains live attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis
Vaccination contains inactive microorganisms
Is done in the first day of life
Is done in the 19th year of life
Choose correct according factors leading to self-tolerance defect:
To esogenous factors we include gender and age
To endogenous factors we include genetic factors
HLA-B27 is a clean allel in patients with myasthenia
Anitgen M5 Streptococcus group A can be a cause of rheumatic fever
Exposition to sun light can be related to characteristic skin lesions in lupus
Choose correct according lymphocytes B:
Characteristic receptor is BCR receptor which is coupled with CD3 molecule
IgM and IgG occur on pristine lymphocytes B
Mature in thymus
Show expression of CD80/CD86
Characteristic differntiation marker is CD15
Choose correct: hypersensitivity type – disease:
Type II – Arthus reaction
Type III – serum sickness
Type II – tuberculosis
Type I – atopic dermatitis
Type IV – hay fever
Choose correct according phagocytosis:
Phagocytosis is performed by NK cells
To main chemotactic factors we include C5a and IL-8
The main role in oxygen independent killing plays myeloperoxidase
To migration stage of neutrophils to site of inflammation includes: chemotaxis, rolling, activation, tight adhesion, diapedisis
Phagocytosis is more effective in the presence of antibodies
Choose receptors or/and antigens, which are present in trophoblasts
HLA B
CD46
HLA E
CD59
CD23
Answer acquired cell is the most important defense mechanism in the case of viral secondary infection, because onlt antibodies are able to eliminate infected cells:
Both answers are wrong
Both answers are wrong, without cause and effect relationship
First answer is wrong, second correct
Both answers are correct with cause and effect relationship
First answer is correct, second false
Choose false:
Protein antigens do not belong the MHC restriction
IFN-y is the main cytokine stimulating formation of IgE
Th2 ist the population of cells regulating acquired humoral response
IL-4 and IL-3 are main cytokines secreted by Th1
Dendritic cells show the expression of MHC I and MHC II
Choose plasma factors responsible for regulation of complement system:
CR1
CD59
Factor I
Vitonectin
DAF
Choose correct:
Antigen HLA are included in autoimmunity and are a diagnostic criteria in every autoimmune disease
Autoantibodies are diagnostic criteria in autoagression disease
Hashimoto disease is a systemic disease
Presence of autoantibodies always evidence a autoimmune disease
Skin, kidneys and joints is a common location of changes in systemic disease
Choose correct according cross-match test (CXM):
Done right before a kidney transplant
Aims if the recipient has antibodies against HLA antigenes occuring in our population
Based on the ADCC reaction
Material from recipient are lymphocytes and from donor serum
Helps in prevention of hyperacute rejection
In the course of progressive systemic sclerosis significant antibodies are:
ASMA, Ku, Sm, SS-B
ACA, NOR, Scl-70, PM-Scl70
PLAR2, GBM, SS-A
ANCA, ANA, APCA, ACA
AMA, ASMA, LKM, SLA
Choose correct connection between the most important molecules co-stimulating, showing inhibitory action:
CD28 - CD80/CD86
CTLA4 – CD80/CD86
ICOS-1 – ICOS-1L
PD-1 – PD-l1
CD2 – LFA-1
Choose correct connection: cell –> test (picture):
Neutrophil – Wright test
Lymphocyte – blastic transformation test
Neutrophil – Rosette test
Neutrophil – spontaneous NBT test
Lymphocyte – Killing test
Which from the innate immunity diseases is counted to deficiencies of antibody deficiency
Isolated IgA deficiency
CVID
Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
SCID
WAS
Choose correct according the figure:
Figure shows the process of classic complement activation and its missing element X is C5 convertase
Figure shows the process of classic compplement activation and its missing element X is C4b2a3a
Figure shows a process of lectin complement activation and its missing element X is C42a3a
Figure shows a process of alternative complement activation and its missing element X is complex attacking membranes
Figure shows a process of classic complement activation and its missing element X is convertase C3
Choose correct about immune reaction:
Graft versus host reaction is the most common complication after vascularized organs transplantation
Humoral response mechanism can be responsible for acute kidney rejection
Cellular cytotoxicity takes part in reactions of acute accelerated rejection
Negative virtual cross-match excludes reaction of acute rejection
Choose correct:
Toll-similar receptors include PAMP molecules
Alternative way of genitive activation is activated by MBL
Mastocytes are activated by genitive components C3a and C5a
C3a and C5a are chemoattractants
Phagocytotic cells do not show chemotaxis
The most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency is/are:
Vaccination
Immunosupressive medication
Viral infection
Malnutrition
Latrogenic factors
Choose correct according hypersensitivity type I:
An example is atopic reaction, which can occur in every healthy person
To preformed mediators, secreted from mast cell are prostaglandins and PAF
Anafilactoid reaction occurs already at the first contact with antigen
Desensentization is about production of antibodies blocking IgG class, which bind antigen, do not allow crosslinking of antibodies IgE
A significant role in diagnostics play radioimmunological tests RIST and RAST
Choose correct according SLE:
All answers are correct
Immunological complexes are accumulated in kidneys and skin
DsDNA antibodies play a sifnificant role in diagnostics of this disease
Predisposed people are women in age of 30-40 years
Systemic disease is related to type III hyperensitivity
Choose correct:
VDRL test belongs to tests based on precipitation
Precipitation sample reaction is a quality test
Blastic transformation test is a quantitive test
Slide agglutination reaction is a quantitive test
Radial immunodiffusion test is a quantitive test
Antigens related to diagnostics of ovary cancer:
CA 125
SCC
AFP
CEA
CA 19-9
Choose correct: name of the test – result
ELISA – quantitiy test – positive (previous infection)
WB – quantitiy test – positive (fresh infection)
WB – quality test – positive (previous infection)
IFT – quality test – negative (fresh infection)
WB – quality test – positive (fresh infection)
Which of the following diseases are related to phagocytosis deficiency:
SCID
Chronic granulomatous disease
Hiob syndrome
Wiskott-Aldrich- syndrome
Ataxia telangiectasia
Which of the mechanisms of the immunological response condition immunotolerance in pregnancy:
Modulation of NK cells
Cytotoxicity of NK cells
Activity of 2,3- dioxygenaseindolamine
Presence of fetal DNA in mothers circulation
Activity of lymphocytes Treg
The presence of hemolysis in the final stage of complement fixation test shows:
Absence of wanted antigen
Presence of wanted antigen
Absence of wanted antibodies
Presence of wanted antibodies
Absence of wanted antigenes and antibodies
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