Principles of Flight

1. A unit of measurement of pressure is
Kg/square dm
Kg/cubic metre
Newtons
Psi
2. Which of the following are the correct SI units?
Density is kilograms per cubic metre, force is newtons
Density is newtons per cubic metre, force is kilograms
Density is kilograms per newton, force is newton-metre squared
Density is kilograms per square metre, force is kilograms
3. What is the SI unit of density?
M V squared
Kg/square cm
Kg - metres
Kg/cubic metre
4. What is the SI unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s squared?
Newton
Psi
Joule
Watt
5. Which of the following expressions is correct?
A = F × M
F = M × A
M = F × A
A = M / F
6. Which of the following is the equation for power?
N/m
Nm/s
Pa/s squared
Kg/m/s squared
7. At a constant CAS when flying below sea level an aircraft will have
A higher TAS than at sea level
A lower TAS than at sea level at ISA conditions
The same TAS as at sea level
The same TAS, but an increased IAS
8. Static pressure acts:
Parallel to airflow
Parallel to dynamic pressure
In all directions
Downwards
9. TAS is:
Higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream around the aircraf
Lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream around the aircraf
Lower than IAS at ISA altitudes below sea level
Equal to IAS, multiplied by air density at sea level
10. The difference between IAS and TAS will:
Increase with decreasing temperature
Increase with increasing density
Remain constant at all times
Decrease with decreasing altitude
11. As a smooth flow of subsonic air at a velocity less than M 0.4 flows through a divergent duct: (i) static pressure (ii) velocity
(i) increases and (ii) decreases
(i) increases and (ii) increases
(i) decreases and (ii) decreases
(i) decreases and (ii) increases
12. As subsonic air flows through a convergent duct: (i) static pressure (ii) velocity
(i) increases and (ii) decreases
(i) increases and (ii) increases
(i) decreases and (ii) decreases
(i) decreases and (ii) increases
13. Bernoulli’s Theorem states:
Dynamic pressure increases and static pressure increases
Dynamic pressure increases and static pressure decreases
Dynamic pressure is maximum at stagnation point
There is zero pressure at zero dynamic pressure
14. Consider a uniform flow of air at velocity V in a streamtube. If the temperature of the air in the tube is raised:
The mass flow remains constant and velocity V decreases
The mass flow will increase and velocity V remain constant
The mass flow will decrease and velocity V will remain constant
The mass flow remains constant and the velocity V will increase
15. In a subsonic flow venturi, the relationship between the total pressure, static pressure and dynamic pressure of undisturbed air and air in the throat will be: (i) Dynamic pressure will be constant, static pressure will decrease. (ii) Total pressure will be constant, dynamic pressure will increase.
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
(i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
16. In accordance with Bernoulli’s Theorem, where PT = Total Pressure, PS = Static pressure and q = Dynamic pressure:
PT + PS = q
PT = PS - q
PT - PS = q
PS + PT = q
17. The Principle of Continuity states that in a streamtube of decreasing cross-sectional area, the speed of a subsonic and incompressible airflow will:
Remain the same
Decrease
Increase
Sonic
18. The Principle of Continuity states that in a tube of increasing cross-sectional area, the speed of a subsonic and incompressible airflow will:
Remain the same
Decrease
Sonic
Increase
19. What are the units for wing loading and dynamic pressure?
N/square metre and N/square metre
Nm and Nm
N and N/square metre
N/square metre and joules
20. When considering the Principle of Continuity for incompressible subsonic flow, what happens in a streamtube with a change in cross-sectional area?
The density at the throat will be the same as the density at the mouth
The density at the throat will be less than the density at the mouth
The density at the throat will be greater than the density at the mouth
Cannot say without knowing the change in cross-sectional area of the streamtube
21. When considering the Principle of Continuity for subsonic flow, what happens in a streamtube for a change in cross-sectional area?
RHO 1 = RHO 2
RHO 1 > RHO 2
RHO 2 > RHO 1
Cannot say without knowing the change in cross-sectional area of the streamtube
22. Which of the following creates lift?
An accelerated air mass
A retarded air mass
A change in direction of mass flow
A symmetrical aerofoil at zero angle of attack in a high speed flow
23. Which of the following statements about a venturi in a subsonic airflow is correct? (i) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal. (ii) The total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
(i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
(i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
(i) and (ii) are correct
(i) and (ii) are incorrect
24. A line from the centre of curvature of the leading edge to the trailing edge, equidistant from the top and bottom wing surface is the:
Camber line
Upper camber line
Mean chord
Aerodynamic chord
25. A symmetrical aerofoil section at CL = 0 will produce?
A negative (nose-down) pitching moment
A positive (nose-up) pitching moment
Zero pitching moment
No aerodynamic force
26. Angle of attack is the angle between:
Undisturbed airflow and chord line
Undisturbed airflow and mean camber line
Local airflow and chord line
Local airflow and mean camber line
27. How is the thickness of an aerofoil section measured?
As the ratio of wing angle
Related to camber
As the percentage of chord
In metres
28. Lift and drag respectively are normal and parallel to:
The chord line
The longitudinal axis
The horizon
The relative airflow
29. The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is:
Angle of incidence
Glide path angle
Angle of attack
Climb path angle
30. The term angle of attack is defined as:
The angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis
The angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind
The angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force
The angle between the wing and tailplane incidence
31. What is the angle of attack?
Angle of the chord line to the relative free stream flow
Angle of the chord line to the fuselage datum
Angle of the tailplane chord to the wing chord
Angle of the tailplane chord to the fuselage datum
32. When considering the coefficient of lift and angle of attack of aerofoil sections:
A symmetrical section at zero angle of attack will produce a small positive coefficient of lif
An asymmetrical section at zero angle of attack will produce zero coefficient of lif
A symmetrical section at zero angle of attack will produce zero coefficient of lif
Aerofoil section symmetry has no effect on lift coefficient
33. When considering the lift and drag forces on an aerofoil section:
They are only normal to each other at one angle of attack
They both depend on the pressure distribution on the aerofoil section
They vary linearly
Lift is proportional to drag
34. Where does the lift act on the wing?
Suction
Always forward of the CG
Centre of Gravity
Centre of Pressure
35. Which of the following creates lift?
A slightly cambered aerofoil
An aerofoil in a high speed flow
Air accelerated upwards
Air accelerated downwards
36. Which of the following is the greatest factor causing lift?
Suction above the wing
Increased pressure below the wing
Increased airflow velocity below the wing
Decreased airflow velocity above the wing
37. Which of the following statements is correct?
Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel in a rearwards direction
Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of the aircraft and lift acts perpendicular to the chord
Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right angles to lif
Drag acts in the same direction as the relative wind and lift perpendicular to the relative wind
38. If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level flight?
0,25
0,5
2,0
4,0
39. On entering ground effect:
More thrust is required
Less thrust is required
Ground effect has no effect on thrust required
Lift decreases
40. On the approach to land, ground effect will begin to be felt at:
Twice the wingspan above the ground
Half the wingspan above the ground
When the angle of attack is increased
Upon elevator deflection
41. The formula for lift is:
L = W
L = 2 rho*V squared*S*CL
L = 1/2 rho*V squared*S*CL
L = rho*V*S*CL
42. The influence of ground effect on landing distance will:
Increase landing distance
Decrease landing distance
Have no effect on landing distance
Depend on flap position
43. Two identical aircraft of the same weight fly at different altitudes. All other important factors remaining constant, assuming no compressibility and ISA conditions, what is the TAS of each aircraft?
The same
Greater in the higher aircraft
Greater in the lower aircraft
Less in the higher aircraft
44. What do ‘S’ and ‘q’ represent in the lift equation?
Static pressure and chord
Wingspan and dynamic pressure
Wing area and dynamic pressure
Wing area and static pressure
45. What effect on induced drag does entering ground effect have?
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
Induced drag will increase, but profile drag will decrease
46. What is the CL and CD ratio at normal angles of attack:
CL higher
CD higher
The same
CL much higher
47. What is the MAC of a wing?
Area of wing divided by the span
The same as the mean chord of a rectangular wing of the same span
The mean chord of the whole aeroplane
The 25% chord of a swept wing
48. When an aircraft enters ground effect:
The lift vector is inclined rearwards which increases the thrust required
The lift vector is inclined forwards which reduces the thrust required
The lift vector is unaffected, the cushion of air increases
The lift vector is inclined forward which increases the thrust required
49. When an aircraft enters ground effect:
The induced angle of attack increases
Lift decreases and drag increases
Lift increases and drag decreases
The aircraft will be partially supported on a cushion of air
50. When considering an angle of attack versus coefficient of lift graph for a cambered aerofoil, where does the lift curve intersect the vertical CL axis?
Above the origin
Below the origin
At the point of origin
To the left of the origin
51. When in level flight at 1,3VS , what is the CL as a percentage of CLMAX?
59%
77%
130%
169%
52. Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices?
Air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip
Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip
Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the left wing tip and from the top surface to the bottom surface at the right wing tip
Spanwise flow vector from the tip to the root on the bottom surface of the wing
53. Which of the following is the correct definition of aspect ratio?
Span divided by tip chord
Chord divided by span.
Span divided by mean chord
Chord divided by span, measured at the 25% chord position
54. Which of the following most accurately describes the airflow which causes wing tip vortices?
From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on the bottom surface over the wing tip
From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on the bottom surface over the trailing edge
From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on the bottom surface over the trailing edge
From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on the bottom surface over the wing tip
55. Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing which results in airflow from:
Bottom to top round the trailing edge
Top to bottom round the trailing edge
Bottom to top round wing tip
Top to bottom round wing tip
56. With flaps deployed, at a constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices:
Increases or decreases depending upon the initial angle of attack
Increases
Decreases
Remains the same
57. A high aspect ratio wing:
Increases induced drag
Decreases induced drag
Is structurally stiffer than a low aspect ratio
Has a higher stall angle than a low aspect ratio
58. An aircraft is flying straight and level; if density halves, aerodynamic drag will:
Increase by a factor of four
Increase by a factor of two
Decrease by a factor of two
Decrease by a factor of four
59. At a constant IAS, induced drag is affected by:
Aircraft weight
Changes in thrust
Angle between chord line and longitudinal axis
Wing location
60. CD induced is proportional to which of the following?
CLMAX
CL squared
The square root of the CL .
CL
61. Considering the lift to drag ratio, in straight and level flight which of the following is correct?
L/D is maximum at the speed for minimum total drag
L/D maximum decreases with increasing lif
L/D is maximum when lift equals weight
L/D is maximum when lift equals zero
62. High aspect ratio:
Reduces parasite drag
Reduces induced drag
Increases stalling speed
Increases manoeuvrability
63. How does aerodynamic drag vary when airspeed is doubled?
4
16
1
2
64. If dynamic (kinetic) pressure increases, what is the effect on total drag (if all important factors remain constant)?
Drag decreases
Drag increases
It has no effect on drag
Drag only changes with changing ground speed
65. If IAS is increased from 80 kt to 160 kt at a constant air density, TAS will double. What would be the effect on (i) CDi and (ii) Di?
(i) 2 (ii) 2
(i) 4 (ii) 2
(i) ¼ (ii) 4
(i) 1 /16 (ii) ¼
66. If pressure increases, with OAT and TAS constant, what happens to drag?
Increase
Decrease
Remain constant
67. If the frontal area of an object in an airstream is increased by a factor of three, by what factor does drag increase?
9
3
6
1,5
68. If the IAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would the drag increase?
4
8
12
16
69. In a stream tube, if density is halved, drag will be reduced by a factor of:
3
4
6
2
70. In straight and level flight, which of the following would cause induced drag to vary linearly if weight is constant?
1/V
V
1/V squared
V squared
71. In subsonic flight, which is correct for VMD?
Parasite drag greater than induced drag
CL and CD are minimum
Parasite and induced drag are equal
Induced drag is greater than parasite drag
72. Induced drag can be reduced by:
Increased taper ratio
Decreased aspect ratio
Use of a wing tip with a thinner aerofoil section
Increased aspect ratio
73. The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is:
Decreases energy
Thinner
Increased skin friction
Less tendency to separate
74. The effect of winglets is:
Elliptical pressure distribution increases
Reduction in induced drag
Decrease in stall speed
Longitudinal static stability increases
75. What does parasite drag vary with?
Square of the speed
CLMAX
Speed
Surface area
76. What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag?
Increased aspect ratio increases induced drag
Increased aspect ratio reduces induced drag
Changing aspect ratio has no effect
Induced drag will equal 1,3 × aspect ratio/chord ratio
77. What happens to total drag when accelerating from CLMAX to maximum speed?
Increases
Increases then decreases.
Decreases
Decreases then increases
78. What is interference drag?
Airflow retardation over the aircraft structure due to surface irregularities
Drag caused by high total pressure at the leading edges when compared to the lower pressure present at the trailing edge
Drag caused by the generation of lift
Drag due to the interaction of individual boundary layers at the junction of aircraft major components
79. What is the cause of induced angle of attack?
Downwash from trailing edge in the vicinity of the wing tips
Change in flow from effective angle of attack
The upward inclination of the free stream flow around the wing tips
Wing downwash altering the angle at which the airflow meets the tailplane
80. CD induced is the ratio of?
(CL ) squared to S
(CL ) squared to AR
½ rho V squared
½ rho V squared S
81. What phenomena causes induced drag?
Wing tip vortices
Wing tanks
The increased pressure at the leading edge
The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above
82. When compared to a laminar boundary layer:
A turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy
A turbulent boundary layer is thinner
Less skin friction is generated by a turbulent layer
A turbulent boundary layer is more likely to separate
83. When considering the aerodynamic forces acting on an aerofoil section:
Lift and drag increase linearly with an increase in angle of attack
Lift and drag act normal to each other only at one angle of attack
Lift and drag increase exponentially with an increase in angle of attack
Lift increases linearly and drag increases exponentially with an increase in angle of attack
84. When considering the properties of a laminar and turbulent boundary layer, which of the following statements is correct?
Friction drag is the same
Friction drag higher in laminar
Friction drag higher in turbulent
Separation point is most forward with a turbulent layer
85. When the undercarriage is lowered in flight:
Form drag will increase and the aircraft’s nose-down pitching moment will be unchanged
Induced drag will increase and the aircraft’s nose-down pitching moment will increase
Form drag will increase and the aircraft’s nose-down pitching moment will increase
Induced drag will decrease and the aircraft’s nose-down pitching moment will increase
86. Which of the following decreases induced drag?
Wing fences
Anhedral
Winglets
Low aspect ratio planform
87. Which of the following is a characteristic of laminar flow boundary layer?
Constant velocity
Constant temperature
No flow normal to the surface
No vortices
88. Which of the following is the correct formula for drag?
½ rho*V squared*CL*S
½ rho*V*(CL )squared*S
½ rho*V squared*AR*CD*S
½ rho*V squared*CD*S
89. Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?
Vortex generators diminish tip vortices
Flow on upper and lower wing surfaces is towards the tip
They both decrease at high angle of attack
On the upper surface there is a component of flow towards the root, whilst on the lower surface it is towards the tip
90. A jet aircraft flying at high altitude encounters severe turbulence without encountering high speed buffet. If the aircraft decelerates, what type of stall could occur first?
Low speed stall
Accelerated stall
Deep stall
Shock stall
91. A swept wing aircraft stalls and the wake contacts the horizontal tail. What would be the stall behaviour?
Nose down
Nose up and/or elevator ineffectiveness
Tendency to increase speed after stall
Nose up
92. An aircraft at a weight of 237402N stalls at 132 kt. At a weight of 356103N it would stall at:
88
162
108
172
93. An aircraft at low subsonic speed will never stall:
As long as the CAS is kept above the power-on stall speed
As long as the IAS is kept above the power-on stall speed
As long as the maximum angle of attack is not exceeded
As long as the pitch angle is negative
94. At high angle of attack, where does airflow separation begin?
Upper surface, towards the leading edge
Lower surface, towards the trailing edge
Upper surface, towards the trailing edge
Lower surface, towards the leading edge
95. At the point of stall:
Lift decreases, drag decreases
Lift constant, drag increases
Lift decreases, drag increases
Lift decreases, drag constant
96. During erect spin recovery the correct recovery actions are:
Control stick pulled aft
Ailerons held neutral
Control stick sideways against bank
Control stick sideways towards bank
97. Force on the tail and its effect on VS due to CG movement:
If rearward movement of the CG gives a reduced down-force on the tail, VS will be higher.
If forward movement of the CG gives a reduced down-force on the tail, VS will be higher
If rearward movement of the CG gives a reduced down-force on the tail, VS will be reduced
If rearward movement of the CG gives an increased down-force on the tail, VS will be reduced
98. How do vortex generators work?
Re-direct spanwise flow
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer
Reduce kinetic energy to delay separation
Reduce the adverse pressure gradient
99. If a jet aircraft is at 60 degrees bank angle during a constant altitude turn, the stall speed will be:
1,60 greater
1,19 greater
1,41 greater
2,00 greater
100. If the stalling speed in a 15 degree bank turn is 60 kt, what would the stall speed be in a 45 degree bank?
83
70
85
60
101. If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in a 1·5g turn?
122 kt
150 kt
81 kt
100 kt
102. If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45° bank turn VS will be:
100 kt
140 kt
80 kt
119 kt
103. In level flight at 1.4VS what is the approximate bank angle at which stall will occur?
44 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees
32 degrees
104. In recovery from a spin:
Ailerons should be kept neutral
Airspeed increases
Ailerons are used to stop the spin
Rudder and ailerons are used against the direction of spin rotation
105. Stall speed in a turn is proportional to:
Lift
Weight
The square root of the load factor
TAS squared
106. Stalling speed increases when:
Recovering from a steep dive
The aircraft is subjected to minor altitude changes, I.e. 0 to 10000 f
The aircraft weight decreases
Flaps are deployed
107. The angle of attack at the stall:
Increases with forward CG
Increases with aft CG
Decreases with decrease in weight
S not affected by changes in weight
108. The CP on a swept wing aircraft will move forward due to:
Boundary layer fences and spanwise flow
Tip stall of the wing
Flow separation at the root due to spanwise flow
Change in wing angle of incidence
109. The effect of tropical rain on drag and stall speed would be to:
Increase drag and increase stall speed
Increase drag and decrease stall speed.
Decrease drag and increase stall speed
Decrease drag and decrease stall speed
110. The IAS of a stall:
Increases with high altitude; more flaps; slats
May increase with increasing altitude, especially high altitude; forward CG and icing
Decreases with forward CG and increasing altitude
Altitude never affects stall speed IAS
111. Vortex generators:
Take energy from the laminar flow to induce boundary layer separation.
Use free stream flow to induce laminar flow
Prevent spanwise flow
Use free stream flow to increase energy in the turbulent boundary layer
112. VS is 100 kt at n = 1; what will the stall speed be at n = 2?
200 kt
119 kt
141 kt
100 kt
113. What are the effects of tropical rain on: (i) CLMAX (ii) Drag
(i) increase (ii) decrease
(i) decrease (ii) increase
(i) increase (ii) increase
(i) decrease (ii) decrease
114. What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall?
Negative camber at the root
Separated airflow at the root
Spanwise flow
Rearward movement of the CP
115. What causes deep stall in a swept-back wing?
CP moves af
CP moves forward
Root stall
Spanwise flow from tip to root on wing upper surface
116. What does a stick pusher do?
Activate at a certain angle of attack and pull the control column backwards
Activate at a certain angle of attack and push the stick forward
Activate at a certain IAS and vibrate the stick
Activate at a certain IAS and push the stick forward
117. What effect on stall speed do the following have?
Increased anhedral increases stall speed
Fitting a ‘T’ tail will reduce stall speed
Increasing sweepback decreases stall speed
Decreasing sweep angle decreases stall speed
118. What happens to the stall speed with flaps down, when compared to flaps up?
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
119. What influence does the CG being on the forward limit have on VS and the stall angle?
VS increases, stall angle remains constant
VS increases, stall angle increases
VS decreases, stall angle remains constant
VS decreases, stall angle decreases
120. What is a high speed stall?
Separation of the airflow due to shock wave formation
A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g) during a manoeuvre
A stall due to decreasing CLMAX at speeds above M 0.4
Excessive dynamic pressure causing airflow separation
121. What is load factor?
1 / Bank angle
Weight / Lift
Lift / Weight
Weight / Wing area
122. What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45° bank turn?
45%
41%
19%
10%
123. What is the standard stall recovery for a light aircraft?
Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with rudder
Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with aileron
Pitch down, stick neutral, wait for neutral tendency
Pitch down, stick neutral roll, do not correct for bank
124. What percentage increase in lift is required to maintain altitude while in a 45 degree bank turn?
19%
41%
50%
10%
125. When an aircraft wing stalls:
A swept-back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move af
A non-swept rectangular wing will stall from the root and the CP will move forwards
A non-swept rectangular wing will tend to stall from the tip and the CP will move backwards
A swept-back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move forward
126. When entering a stall, the CP of a straight rectangular wing (i) and a strongly swept wing (ii) will:
(i) move aft (ii) move forward
(i) move aft (ii) move af
(i) move aft (ii) not move
(i) not move (ii) not move
127. Which is the most critical phase regarding ice on a wing leading edge?
During the take-off run
The last part of rotation
Climb with all engines operating
All phases are equally important
128. Which kind of stall occurs at the lowest angle of attack?
Deep stall
Accelerated stall
Low speed stall
Shock stall
129. Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
€˜T’ tail
Swept forward wing
Swept-back wing
Pod mounted engines beneath the wing
130. Which of the following combination of characteristics would be most likely make an aircraft susceptible to deep stall?
Swept wing and wing mounted engines
Swept wing and ‘T’ tail
Straight wing and wing mounted engines
Straight wing and ‘T’ tail
131. Which of the following is the correct designation of stall speed in the landing configuration?
VS1g
VS1
VSO
VSL
132. Which of the following is the most important result/problem caused by ice formation?
Increased drag
Increased weight
Blockage of the controls
Reduction in CLMAX
133. Which of the following is the speed that would activate the stick shaker?
1.5 VS
1.15 VS
1.2 VS
Above VS
134. Which of the following is used to activate a stall warning device?
Movement of the CP
Movement of the CG
Movement of the stagnation point
A reduction in dynamic pressure
135. Which of the following would indicate an impending stall?
Stall strip and stick shaker
Stall strip and angle of attack indicator
Airspeed indicator and stick shaker
Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator
136. Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?
Low speed stall
High speed stall (shock stall)
Deep stall
Accelerated stall
137. With a swept wing the nose-up phenomena is caused by:
Deploying lift augmentation devices
Wing fences
Wing sweep prevents the nose-up phenomena
Tip stall
138. When flying straight and level in 1g flight, slightly below maximum all up weight, a basic stall warning system (flapper switch) activates at 75 kt IAS and the aircraft stalls at 68 kt IAS. Under the same conditions at maximum all up weight the margin between stall warning and stall will:
Increase because increasing weight increases the 1g stall speed.
Decrease because the 1g stall speed is an IAS
Decrease because increasing weight increases the 1g stall speed
Remain the same because increased weight increases the IAS that corresponds to a particular angle of attack
139. A slat on an aerofoil:
Increases the energy of the boundary layer and decreases the critical angle of attack
Increases the wing leading edge radius by rotating forward and down from its stowed position on the bottom side of the wing leading edge
Deploys automatically under the influence of increased stagnation pressure at high angles of attack / low IAS
Increases the energy of the boundary layer and increases the maximum angle of attack
140. After take-off why are the slats (if installed) always retracted later than the trailing edge flaps?
Because VMCA with slats extended is more favourable compared to the flaps extended position
Because flaps extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
Because slats extended provides a better view from the cockpit than flaps extended
Because slats extended gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
141. An aircraft has trailing edge flap positions of 0, 15, 30 and 45 degrees plus slats can be deployed. What will have the greatest negative influence on CL / CD?
Deploying slats
0 - 15 flaps
15 - 30 flaps
30 - 45 flaps
142. Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant):
The aircraft will sink suddenly
The aircraft will yaw
The aircraft will climb
The aircraft will roll
143. For an aircraft flying straight and level at constant IAS, when flaps are deployed the induced drag:
Increases
Decreases
Increases or decreases depending on the aircraf
Stays the same
144. How does a plain flap increase CL ?
Increases camber
Increases angle of attack
Changes position of CP
Decreases the Aspect Ratio
145. How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and level flight?
Pitch up
Pitch down
Depends on CG position
146. If flaps are extended in level flight:
Lift and drag increase
CLMAX increases
CL and drag increase
CL increases
147. If the angle of attack is maintained constant, what happens to the coefficient of lift when flaps are deployed?
Increased
Decreased
Changes with the square of IAS
Remains constant because angle of attack remains the same
148. In order to maintain straight and level flight when trailing edge flaps are retracted, the angle of attack must:
Be increased or decreased depending on type of flap
Be decreased
Be increased
Stay the same because the lift requirement will be the same
149. On a highly swept back wing with leading edge flaps and leading edge slats, which device would be fitted in the following possible locations?
Slats inboard, leading edge flaps outboard
Slats outboard, leading edge flaps inboard
Alternate leading edge flaps and slats along the wing leading edge
There is no preferred position for these two devices
150. On a swept-back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger flaps be fitted?
Inboard leading edge
Outboard leading edge
The leading edge
The trailing edge
151. The effects of leading edge slats:
Increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat and increase CLMAX angle of attack
Increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing, increase effective angle of attack and move CLMAX to higher angle of attack
Increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main wing section, move CLMAX to a higher angle of attack
Decrease boundary layer energy, move suction peak onto slat, move CLMAX to a lower angle of attack
152. The maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration, compared to flaps up is:
Greater
Smaller
Unchanged
Smaller or greater, depending on CG position
153. What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?
Decrease CLMAX.
Decrease the critical angle of attack
Not affect the critical angle of attack
Increase the critical angle of attack
154. What is the effect of deploying trailing edge flaps?
Increased minimum glide angle
Decreased minimum glide angle
Increased glide range
Decreased sink rate
155. What is the purpose of a slat on the leading edge?
Decelerate the air over the top surface
Thicken the laminar boundary layer over the top surface
Increase the camber of the wing
Allow greater angle of attack
156. What is true regarding deployment of slats / Krueger flaps?
Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not
Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, slats do not
Krueger flaps form a slot, Slats do not
Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
157. What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and level flight?
Increase then decrease
Remain constant
Decrease
Increase
158. What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a high mounted (‘T’ tail) tailplane?
An aircraft nose-up pitching moment
An aircraft nose-down pitching moment
The nose-up pitching moment will be balanced by the nose-down pitching moment
The resultant aircraft pitching moment will depend upon the relative position of the CP and CG
159. When trailing edge flaps are deployed:
A higher angle of attack is required for maximum lif
Glide distance is degraded
CLMAX decreases
VS1g increases
160. Which of the following increases the stall angle?
Slats
Flaps
Spoilers
Ailerons
161. A low wing jet aircraft is flaring to land. The greatest stick force will be experienced with:
Flaps up and CG at the aft limit
Flaps fully down and Cg at the aft limit
Flaps fully down and CG at the forward limit
Flaps fully up and Cg at the forward limit
162. Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to:
Roll to the right in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the left)
Roll to the left in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the left)
Roll to the left in a right turn
Roll to the right in a right turn
163. Positive static longitudinal stability means:
Nose-down pitching moment when encountering an up gust
Nose-up pitching moment with a speed change at a constant angle of attack
Nose-down pitching moment with a speed change at a constant angle of attack
Nose-up moment when encountering an up gust
164. The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point. Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct?
An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at low speed has more affect on the stick force than an increase in 10 kt from the trimmed position at high speed
Increase of speed generates pull forces
Aeroplane nose-up trim decreases the stick force stability
Stick force stability is not affected by trim
165. Too much lateral static stability is undesirable because:
Too much aileron needed in a cross-wind landing
Too much rudder needed in a cross-wind landing
Constant aileron in cruise in a cross-wind
166. What is the effect of an aft shift of the CG on (1) static longitudinal stability and (2) the required control deflection for a given pitch change?
(1) reduces (2) increases
(1) increases (2) increases
(1) increases (2) reduces
(1) reduces (2) reduces
167. Which statement is correct?
The stick force per ‘g’ increases when the CG is moved aft
The stick force per ‘g’ must have both upper and lower limits in order to assure acceptable control characteristics
If the slope of the fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for control of an aeroplane
The stick force per ‘g’ can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability augmentation) in the case of an unacceptable value
168. What is pitch angle?
The angle between the chord line and the horizontal plane
The angle between the longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane
The angle between the chord line and the longitudinal axis
The angle between the relative airflow and the longitudinal axis
169. An aircraft of 50 tonnes mass, with two engines each of 60000 N Thrust and with an L/D ratio of 12:1 is in a straight steady climb. Taking ‘g’ to be 10 m/s/s, what is the climb gradient?
12%
24%
15,7%
3,7%
170. In a straight steady descent:
Lift is less than weight, load factor is equal to one
Lift is less than weight, load factor is less than one
Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to one
Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than one
171. Two aircraft of the same weight and under identical atmospheric conditions are flying level 20 degree bank turns. Aircraft ‘A’ is at 130 kt, aircraft ‘B’ is at 200 kt:
The turn radius of ‘A’ will be greater than ‘B’
The coefficient of lift of ‘A’ will be less than ‘B’
The load factor of ‘A’ is greater than ‘B’
Rate of turn of ‘A’ is greater than ‘B’
172. VMCL can be limited by: (i) engine failure during take-off, (ii) maximum rudder deflection.
Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
(i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
173. Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is correct?
At constant TAS the Mach number decreases
At constant Mach number the IAS increases
At constant IAS the TAS decreases
At constant IAS the Mach number increases
174. The regime of flight from the critical Mach number (MCRIT) to approximately M 1.3 is called:
Transonic
Hypersonic
Subsonic
Supersonic
175. The speed range between high and low speed buffet:
Decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number
Is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO
Increases during a descent at a constant IAS
Increases during climb
176. When does the bow wave first appear?
At MCRIT
At Mach 1
Just above Mach 1
Just below Mach 1
177. What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA?
It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards
It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards
It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at to large a dynamic pressure
It will collapse if a turn is made
178. Which of the following can affect VA?
Mass and pressure altitude
Mass only
Pressure altitude only
It remains a constant IAS
179. With a vertical gust, what is the point called where the change in the vertical component of lift acts?
Neutral point
Aerodynamic Centre
Centre of Gravity
Centre of Thrust
180. A single-engine aircraft with a constant speed propeller is in a gliding descent with the engine idling, what would be the effect of decreasing the propeller pitch?
Increased L/DMAX, increased rate of descent
Decreased L/DMAX, increased rate of descent
Increased L/DMAX, decreased rate of descent
Decreased L/DMAX, decreased rate of descent
181. The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is:
Higher maximum thrust available
Higher maximum efficiency
More blade surface area available
Nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range
You are about to take off in an aircraft with a variable pitch propeller. At brake release: (i) Blade pitch and (ii) Propeller RPM lever:
(i) reduced, (ii) increase
(i) reduced, (ii) decrease
(i) increased, (ii) decrease
(i) increased, (ii) increase
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