Chemo

Which of these is a pharmacokinetic characteristic that is shared by all azoles?

Which of these antiviral drugs is present in active form both in healthy cells and in infected cells?

Specify the the true statement about interferons

A) They act by inhibiting ribosomes of infected cells

B) Interferons reduce the immune response

C) They are so called because they interfere with the budding phase of viral replication

D) They trigger the activation of multiple genes including those of antiviral resistance

E) Interferons selectively inhibit viral DNA polymerases

Floroquinolones are

Inhibitors of DNA gyrase

B) Inhibitors of dihydropteroate synthase

C) Protein synthesis inhibitors

D) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors

E) Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

Which of these statements about aminoglycosides is true?

A) They are NOT effective against Gram+ cocci and obligate anaerobes

B) They are equally effective against Gram + and Gram – bacteria

C) They are equally effective against aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

D) They are effective against all obligate anaerobes and Gram

E) They are very effective against all Gram+

The protein 2-5-OAS (oligoadenylate synthase)

A) Activates cellular ribonuclease in the presence of dsRNA

B) It is a molecular target of ribavirin, responsible for mRNA capping

C) It is used as an index of absorption of the PEG-interferon

D) It is a protein expressed by HCV, its presence in the plasma is an indication of an infection in progress

E) It is responsible for the activation of the Jak/STAT pathway

F) It's expressed from the HIV virus

The flucytosine is activated mainly:

A) Only by intestinal bacteria

B) By the liver as a first-pass effect

C) It is not converted: the flucytosine is not a prodrug

D) Within the fungal cells

E) By human cellular enzymes

An antibacterial drug is called “concentration idependent” it it takes a very long time to eradicate the infectious agent

True

False

Fluoroquinolones have generally poor activity against pneumococci, with a few exceptions:

A) Nalidixic acid (first generation fluoroquinolone)

B) Ciprofloxacin

D) Levofloxacin

C) Moxifloxacin

Which of these is a typical side effect of interferons?

Which of these drugs can cause hemolytic anemia in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency?

Which of these pharmacokinetic characteristics are shared by many macrolides?

A) Low volume distribution

B) Renal and biliary excretion in different proportions

C) Macrolides are extensively metabolized by the liver

D) Very high volume of distribution

E) Macrolides have all short half-life (30' – 90')

GSH depleant L-buthionine sulphoximine and pro-thiol amifostine are administered to:

A) To inhibit tubular secretion and increase the half life of some anticancers

B) To counteract the resistance of tumours to fludarabine

C) Increase the effectiveness of alkylating agents in tumours producing high GSH levels

D) To protect the B-lactam ring of piperacilin

E) To counteract the nephrotoxicity of Cisplatin

Boceprevir is a:

Cisplatin acts by:

A) Dihydropteroate synthetase inhibition

B) Alteration of microtubule function

C) Inhibition of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase

D) Blocking the activity of RNA polymerase by binding of DNA

E) Formation of cross-link along the DNA strand

Which of these is NOT a mechanism of action of ribavirin?

A) Inhibition of the biosynthetic pathway of GTP

C) Inhibition of mRNA capping

B) Inhibition of neuraminidase

D) Hypermutation resulting from the incorporation into RNA

E) Inhibition of RNA polymerase

DPD (di-hydro pyrimidine dehydrogenase) gene screenng is usually performed before the administration of:

Can aminoglycosides be effectively used against MRSA?

A) Only in combination with respiratory fluoroquinolone

C) Yes, only in combination with a sulfonamide

E) Yes, only in combination with bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitors

Tumours sometimes produce high amounts of GSH. This makes them more resistant to alkylating agents. What can be administered to overcome this phenomenon?

A) 5-HT3 blockers

B) N-acetyl cysteine or mesna

C) Amifostine and L-butionin sulfoximina

D) Cilastatin

Il ciclofosfamide viene metabolizzato in fosforamide e acroteina. Cosa si somministra per mitigare gli effetti collaterali dati dall'acroteina?

A) Piridossina

B) Clavulanato

C) N-acetil cisteina (NAC) e MESNA

D) Bloccanti 5-HT3

Quali sono le caratteristiche comuni a tutti I beta lattamici

A) Inibiscono le sintesi della parete cellulare

B) Sono tempo dipendenti

C) Sono attivi su MRSA

D) Sono eliminati per via renale

E) Sono attivi su enterococchi

Quali tra queste affermazioni sui beta lattamici sono vere

A) Sono metabolizzati a livello epatico

B) Sono per lo più escreti per via renale in forma immodificata

C) Hanno per lo più emivite brevi (1-2 ore)

D) Hanno volumi di distribuzioni bassi (inferiori a 11 L - 0.15 L/kg)

E) Si degradano in ambiente acido (con varie eccezioni)

L'Imipenem viene correntemente somministrato con cilastatina perchè

I sulfamidici sono

A) Inibitori della diidropterato sintetasi

B) Inibitori della diidrofolato reduttasi

C) Inibitori della sintesi della parete cellulare

E) Inibitori della sintesi proteica

Quale tra le seguenti informazioni sui sulfamidici sono vere

A) Vengono metabolizzati dal fegato

B) Sono induttori dei citocromi epatici

C) Sono concentrazione dipendenti

C) La resistenza è piuttosto rara

D) Vengono somministrati per lo più per via orale

Quali tra questi farmaci sono efficaci contro ceppi di enterococcus vancomicina resistente?

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