HESI Practice Test *Scientific Basis*
Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found?
Non-plaque induced gingival diseases of viral origin.
Non-plaque induced gingival manifestations by traumatic lesions
Plaque induced gingival diseases modified by systemic factors.
Plaque induced gingival diseases modified by medications.
A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. Which is teh most likely diagnosis of this condition?
Ankyloglossia
Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome
Macroglossia
Hemifacial hyperplasia
When is tooth eruption complete?
Root is completely covered with cementum
Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing jaw
Crown is complete and emerges from alveolar gingiva
Root formation in complete
When does mixed dentition begin?
Shedding of first primary tooth
Eruption of first primary tooth
Eruption of first permanent tooth
Shedding of last primary tooth
What is the number of successional (succedaneous) teeth in the permanent dentition?
32
12
20
8
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a molar is a transverse ridge.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are false.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?
Reduced permeability.
Regeneration.
Discoloration.
Decreased fluoride content
Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar?
Central
Buccal
Distolingual
Mesial
Which is true regarding the height of contour of a tooth?
Location is on mesial or distal surfaces.
Also considered cementoenamel junction
Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically
Involves area of least contour on tooth surface.
How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight-year-old child?
Fourteen primary, ten permanent.
Twenty primary; four permanent teeth.
Eighteen primary; six permanent teeth.
Sixteen primary; eight permanent teeth.
Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown?
Line angle
Point angle
Cementoenamel junction
Dentinoenamel junction
Which G. V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incisal edge or angle?
III.
I.
IV.
II.
Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars?
Distal marginal
Transverse
Oblique
Mesial marginal
Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint?
Zygomatic
Mandibular
Ophthalmic
Maxillary
Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve?
V.
VII.
IV.
VI.
Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block?
Mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible
Lingual foramen on lingual surface of mandible
Infraorbital foramen on anterior surface of maxilla
Mental foramen on lateral surface on mandible
Which salivary gland is unencapsulated?
Lacrimal
Submandibular
Parotid
Sublingual
Which type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial
Gomphosis
Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion?
Autonomic; parasympathetic
Autonomic; sympathetic
Somatic; parasympathetic
Somatic; sympathetic
Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva.
Both statements are false.
The first statement is false and teh second is true.
The first statement is true and the second is false.
Both statements are true.
Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions?
Acid-fast
Aerobic
Aciduric
Anaerobic
Anaerobe bacteria
Multiply in the presence or absence of oxygen.
Require oxygen for growth.
Tolerate only low levels of oxygen.
Grow only in the absence of oxygen.
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis
Cell wall
Cytoplasmic membrane
Flagellum
Capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions?
Acidophils
Psychrophils
Mesophils
Thermophils
Endotoxin is a virulence property of
Gram-negative bacteria
DNA viruses
Filamentous fungi
Yeasts
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses
Cause diseases that can be treated with antibiotics
Have one of three distinct shapes--coccoid, cylindrical rod, or spira
Enter host cells before they can multiply
Are much larger
Which is treated with Nystatin?
Candidiasis.
Dental caries.
Actinomycosis.
Tuberculosis.
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine?
HBs antigen
HBc antifgen
Anti-HBs
Anti-HBe
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves?
III.
IV.
II.
I.
Which bacterial genus contains species taht causes rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis?
Lactobacillus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Actinomyces
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Nizoral
Isoniazid
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication?
Bicuspid valve disease
Repaired congenital heart disease
Atrial septal defect
Mitral Valve Prolapse
It is noted on the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, rheumatic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition dose the patient require antibiotic premedication?
Renal dialysis shunt
Mitral Valve prolapse
Rheumatic heart disease
Stent
A patient's prescription has the abbreviate "qid". How frequently should the medication be taken?
Twice a day.
Every three days.
Four times a day.
Every day.
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states, No refills?
IV.
III.
II.
I.
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide?
Ascorbic Acid.
Riboflavin.
Niacin.
Cobalamin.
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Verapamil
Propranolol
Nifedipine
Norvasc
Which food is a good source of Vitamin K?
Strawberries
Sweet potatoes
Milk
Kale
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack?
Abuterol
Fluticasone
Budesonide
Flunsolide
Lipitor is a/an:
ACE inhibitor
Anticholinergic
Corticosteroid
Statin
Consuming foods high in retinols will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium.
Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.
The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C?
Pork chop, broccoli, rice.
Hamburger, french fries, strawberries.
Spaghetti with tomato sauce, garlic bread, cantaloupe.
Steak, brown rice, corn.
Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates?
Oxygen
Iron
Nitrogen
Carbon
Some of vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of
Sunlight.
Carotene.
Intestinal bacteria.
Calcium.
Which vitamin is associated with the deficiency beriberi?
Riboflavin
Thiamin
Niacin
Biotin
Which is primarily responsible for pharmacologic metabolism?
Stomach
Kidney
Liver
Skin
Which procedure establishes the most definitive diagnosis for oral cancer?
Chemiluminescent light test
Brush biopsy
Toluidine blue dye test
Scalpel biopsy
A 17-year-old presents for third molar evaluation. The panoramic radiograph reveals the apical third of roots #1 and #2 have fused together. Which best defines this anomaly?
Dilaceration
Anodontia
Gemination
Concrescence
A patient's intraoral examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures approximately 2 mm in diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. Which best defines the lesion?
Gumma
Papilloma
Hemangioma
Adenoma
Intraoral lesions may occur with each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Chickenpox
Kaposi sarcoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Infectious mononucleosis
Which infections disease is NOT caused by the coxsackievirus?
Hand-foot-and-mouth disease.
Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis.
Herpangina.
Verruca vulgaris.
In which region dose an early symptom of measles appear?
Soft palate
Attached gingiva
Floor of the mouth
Buccal mucosa
A pregnant woman reports a freely moveable, deep red tissue mass, which extends from the labial gingiva between maxillary right premolars. The surface of the lesion is ulcerated and bleeds easily. A histologic analysis indicates the lesion is composed of connective tissue, capillaries and inflammatory cells. Which best defines the lesion?
Irritation fibroma.
Peripheral giant cell granuloma.
Odontogenic myxoma.
Pyogenic granuloma
A patient's buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. This finding is a clinical manifestation of:
Tobacco pouch keratosis.
White sponge nevus.
Lichen planus.
Pseudomembranous candidiasis.
The parents of a 7 year-old are concerned by the development of a soft, blue, vesicle-like swelling on the gingiva where tooth #8 is expected to erupt. No significant radiographic findings exist other than the partial eruption of tooth #8. Which course of action is recommended?
Remove cystic lesion and tooth.
Excise cyst, then perform a thorough osseous curettage.
No treatment is required; the cyst will dissipate naturally.
Remove, biopsy and obtain histologic examination of cystic lesion.
Which best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris?
Viral infection
Smoking
Autoimmune response
Trauma
The most common tumor of the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on the floor of the mouth.
The first statement in true and the second is false.
The first statement is false and the second is true.
Both statements are false.
Both statements are true.
During pregnancy, when do most embryonic cleft malformations occur?
First trimester.
At birth.
Third trimester.
Second trimester.
Where is chronic atrophic candidiasis most likely found?
Tongue.
Interdental papilla.
Palate.
Buccal mucosa.
Which description best explains the phenomenon of referred pain?
Psychosomatic.
Thermoreceptor conflict with exteroceptors.
Location of pain receptors.
Convergence of sensory nerve impulses.
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