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Create a detailed illustration displaying various types of anesthesia equipment in a medical setting, featuring an anesthesiologist monitoring a patient during surgery, with charts and medical diagrams in the background.

Mastering Anesthesiology: Test Your Knowledge

Welcome to the ultimate quiz on anesthesiology! This comprehensive quiz consists of 87 carefully crafted questions designed to challenge your understanding and knowledge in the field. Whether you are a student, a professional, or just someone interested in anesthesiology, this quiz is perfect for you.

Topics covered include:

Anesthesia techniques and practices
Medical emergencies and their management
Pharmacology related to anesthesia

87 Questions22 MinutesCreated by ExaminingEagle57

1. What is anesthesiology?

 A branch of science which deals with the study of pain and loss of consciousness

σ� A branch of science which deals with the study of anesthesia

σ� A branch of science which deals with the study of pain killer

σ� A branch of science which deals with the study of loss of consciousness

σ� A branch of science which deals with the study of pain

2. Rotterstein (1864) used ethyl chloride for

σ� Lumbar anesthesia

σ� General anesthesia (by IV injection) and Local anesthesia (through topical application)

σ� Local anesthesia (through topical application)

 Local anesthesia through injection hypodermic

σ� General anesthesia (by sniffing) and Local anesthesia (through topical application)

3. What is anesthesia?

σ� Condition wherein there is loss of movement

σ� Condition wherein the patient loss of consciousness

σ� Condition wherein patient is still awake (conscious)

σ� The elimination of all sensation, accompanied by the loss of consciousness

σ� Condition wherein there is loss modalities of sensation

4. Who is introduced the “intracheal tube”?

σ� Horace Wells

σ� Colton (1863)

σ� Macerven of Scotland (1878)

σ� S. S. White Mfg. Co. (1867)

σ� Frederick Hewitt of England (1890)

5. Who is the first man demonstrated the mandibular block technique (inferior alveolar nerve block) with use of 4% cocaine solution, to anesthetize the mandibular nerve?

 Dr. Halsted

σ� Von Anrep

σ� Bier

σ� Horace Wells

σ� Potain

6. Who is the first man to introduced GA in dentistry?

σ� Dr. Halsted

σ� Dr. Alfred Einhorn

σ� Heinrich Braun

σ� Horace Wells

σ� Souberian (1831)

7. The most frequent medical emergency in the dental office is:

σ� Coma

σ� myocardial infarction

σ� syncope

σ� respiratory arrest

σ� allergic reactions

8. In an emergency, the best place to check the pulse is the:

σ� Ulnar artery

σ� carotid artery

σ� brachial artery

σ� radial artery

σ� femoral artery

9. A 17-year-old anxious female suddenly develops shortness of breath, appears cyanotic around the mouth, and is audibly wheezing. What are the most likely problem and treatment?

 syncope; lying patient flat and elevating legs

σ� allergic reaction; epinephrine subcutaneous (SQ)

σ� angina; nitroglycerin sublingually

σ� asthma; use of her inhaler

 Pneumonia

10. A conscious patient is unable to breathe or talk. When you ask if they are choking, they nod their head. You should administer:

 abdominal thrusts

σ� oxygen

σ� four back blows

σ� fifteen chest compressions

σ� X-Ray thoracic

11. Mrs. Smith, a 57-year-old diabetic, is having extensive bridgework completed during her lunch break appointment. She begins acting strangely, her pulse is rapid, and her skin is pale, cool, and clammy. What is her problem and with what you treat her?

 hyperglycemia; insulin therapy

σ� asthma; puff from her inhaler

σ� hypoglycemia; oral sugar

σ� angina; nitroglycerin

σ� stroke; oxygen

12. The medication most often used to relieve angina pain is:

σ� Antibiotics

σ� Nitroglycerin

σ� Dilantin®

σ� Epinephrine

σ� Insulin

13. A patient is administered an oral antibiotic one hour before their appointment. They now complain of difficulty breathing, with rash and itching of their skin. Their blood pressure is 80/40 and the pulse is 120. What is the most likely problem and treatment would do?

σ� asthma attack; nebulization

σ� hyperventilation syndrome; rebreathing carbon dioxide

σ� allergic / anaphylactic reaction; epinephrine subcutaneous

σ� diabetic ketoacidosis; insulin

σ� pulmonary edema; oxygen

14. An older patient becomes restless during treatment. He seems unable to move one arm and his speech is slurred. He may be having:

σ� acido-cetosis

σ� cerebrovascular accident/transient ischemia attack

σ� acute myocardial infarction

σ� angina pectoris

σ� epileptic seizure

15. During an episode of hyperventilation, the patient is losing too much:

σ� carbon dioxide

σ� oxygen

σ� nitrogen

σ� hydrogen

σ� carbon mono-oxide

16. A patient who complains of chest pain should be positioned :

 in a comfortable sitting position

σ� supine

σ� seated with legs elevated

σ� on their side

σ� on their lateral security position

17. kñúgcMeNamfñaMxageRkamenH etIfñaMNaxøHEdleKeRbIR)as;sMrab; Inhalational induction:

 Halothane and Enflurane

σ� Sevoflurane and Halothane

σ� Isoflurane, and Halothane

σ� Nitrous Oxide (N2O) and Enflurane

σ� Enflurane and Sevoflurane

18. Thiopental eKeRbIR)as;kñúgsNþM sMrab;mnusScas;kñúgkMhab; ³

 3%

σ� 2.5%

σ� 1%

σ� 3.5%

σ� 2%

19. The agonists of opioids were:

 Nalorphine, Sufentanil, Fentanil

σ� Morphine, Sufentanil, Fentanyl

σ� Fentanyl, Nalbuphine, Morphine

σ� Nalbuphine, Sufentanil, Fentanyl

σ� Nalorphine, Nalorphine, Morphine

20. 4. Ketamine CafñaMEdlman effects dUcxageRkam³

σ� Bronchoconstriction, decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure

σ� Bronchodilatation, decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure

σ� Bronchodilatation, Increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), Increase intra-cranial pressure (ICP)

σ� Bronchoconstriction, increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure

σ� Increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), bronchodilatation, decrease intra-cranial pressure

21. Concerning to pharmacodynamique of nitrous oxide:

 Can be used without oxygen

σ� Produces analgesia in central nervous system(CNS)

σ� Concentrations less than 60% may produce amnesia

σ� Heart rate and BP are usually mild changed

σ� No respiratory depressant

22. Concerning the following inhalation anesthetics which one that no effect on the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) when increasing the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?

σ� Sevoflurane

σ� Isoflurane

σ� Halothane

σ� Desflurane

σ� Enflurane

23. Which one the best intravenous anesthetics use in the severe hypotension in hypovolemic or shock patients?

σ� Etomidate

σ� Thiopental

σ� Propofol

σ� Ketamine

σ� Methohexital

24. The optimal intravenous anesthetics can be used both induction and maintenance is:

σ� Methohexital

σ� Thiopental

σ� Propofol

σ� Thiamylal

σ� Etomidate

25. The antidote of benzodiazepines is:

 Naloxone

σ� Atropine

σ� Flumazenil

σ� -blockage

σ� Calcium gluconate

26. Opium was used for thousands of years to produce:

 All of the above

σ� Euphoria

σ� Analgesia

σ� Sedation

σ� Relief from diarrhea

27. What is the pure agonist?

 All of the above are wrong

σ� It has affinity for binding plus efficacy

σ� It has affinity for binding but no efficacy

σ� It produces an agonist effect at one receptor and an antagonist effect at another

σ� It has affinity for binding but low efficacy

28. What is the Mixed Agonist-Antagonist?

 All of the above are wrong

σ� It has affinity for binding plus efficacy

σ� It has affinity for binding but no efficacy

σ� It produces an agonist effect at one receptor and an antagonist effect at another

σ� It has affinity for binding but low efficacy

29. What is the Pure Antagonist?

 All of the above are wrong

σ� It has affinity for binding plus efficacy

σ� It has affinity for binding but no efficacy

σ� It produces an agonist effect at one receptor and an antagonist effect at another

σ� It has affinity for binding but low efficacy

30. All of these opioids have short onset and duration of action are frequently used during General Anesthesia. Which are they?

σ� Pentazocine, Butorphanol

σ� Fentanyl, Sufentanil

σ� Nalorphine, Sufentanil

σ� Nalbuphine, Sufentanil

σ� Morphine, Pethidine

31. One of the following opioids can cause tachycardia which one?

σ� Alfentanil

σ� Morphine

σ� Meperidine

σ� Fentanil

σ� Sufentanil

32. One of the following opioids can cause histamine release which one?

σ� Pentazocine

σ� Fentanil

σ� Sufentanil

σ� Morphine

σ� Alfentanil

33. etI parameters NaxøHEdleKeRbIR)as;sMrab;GñkCMgWTUeTAkñúgkareFIV Extubation: (M)

σ� stable vital signs

σ� Ability to protect the airway (reflexes)

σ� All of the above

 Active spontaneous respiration

σ� Patient follows commands

34. etI techniques in managing airway obstruction NaxøHEdlRtwmRtUv?

σ� All of the above

σ� Chin tilt

σ� Extension of neck

σ� Anterior displacement of mandible

σ� Use of airway adjuncts (oral and nasal airway)

35. In what condition that require anesthetist to do general anesthesia via Face Mask?

σ� Difficult airway

σ� In children (induction)

σ� In patients at severe risk of bronchospasm

σ� Short Procedures

σ� All of the above

36. Which are the complications of general Anesthesia during Induction?

σ� Difficult ventilation

σ� Hypersensitivity reactions

σ� Depression of the CNS / respiratory / cardiovascular systems

σ� Aspiration

σ� All of the above

37. Which is not the complication of general Anesthesia during Intubation?

 Esophageal Intubation

σ� Laryngospasm

σ� Difficult intubation

σ� Stenosis of trachea

σ� Endobronchial Intubation

38. Which is not the complication of general Anesthesia during Extubation?

 Delayed Emergence

σ� Hypersecretion

σ� Laryngospasm

σ� Airway trauma

σ� Residual Neuromuscular Blockade

39. A patient is administered an oral antibiotic one hour before their appointment. They now complain of difficulty breathing, with rash and itching of their skin. Their blood pressure is 80/40 and the pulse is 120. What is the most likely problem and treatment would do?

 asthma attack; nebulization

σ� hyperventilation syndrome; rebreathing carbon dioxide

σ� allergic / anaphylactic reaction; epinephrine subcutaneous (SQ)

σ� diabetic ketoacidosis; insulin

 pulmonary edema; oxygen

40. ក្នុងចំណោមឝ្នាំឝាងក្រោមន៝ះ ឝើឝ្នាំណាឝ្លះដែលគ៝ប្រើប្រាស់សំរាប់ Inhalational induction?

 Enflurane and Sevoflurane

σ� Sevoflurane and Halothane

σ� Isoflurane, and Halothane

σ� Nitrous Oxide (N2O) and Enflurane

σ� Halothane and Enflurane

41. Thiopental គ៝ប្រើប្រាស់ក្នុងសណ្ដំ សំរាប់មនុស្សចាស់ក្នុងកំហាប់?

 3%

σ� 3.5%

σ� 1%

σ� 2.5

σ� 2%

42. Ketamine ជាឝ្នាំដែលមាន effects ដូចឝាងក្រោម ³

σ� Increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), bronchodilatation, decrease intra-cranial pressure

σ� Bronchodilatation, Increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), Increase intra-cranial pressure (ICP)

σ� Bronchoconstriction, increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure

σ� Bronchodilatation, decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure

σ� Bronchoconstriction, decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure

43. ឝើ parameters ណាឝ្លះដែលគ៝ប្រើប្រាស់សំរាប់អ្នកជំងឺទូទៅក្នុងការធ្វើ Extubation?

 stable vital signs

σ� Patient follows commands

σ� Active spontaneous respiration

σ� Ability to protect the airway (reflexes)

 All of the above

44. ឝើ techniques in managing airway obstruction ណាឝ្លះដែលឝ្រឹមឝ្រូវ?

 All of the above

σ� Chin tilt

σ� Extension of neck

σ� Anterior displacement of mandible

σ� Use of airway adjuncts (oral and nasal airway)

1. What is the meaning of the CPR (Cardiopulmonary-resuscitation)?

. . D. The revival or return to function of the heart and the lung

A. The revival or return to function of the cerebral system

B. The return to function of the cerebral and the heart system.

C. The return to function of the lung and the liver

2. The goal of the resuscitation:

Basic life support, providing temporary perfusion of vital tissues,Restoration of spontaneous cardiac and respiratory activity and establishment of circulatory self-sufficiency. Correction of the underlying disease state, while supporting and protecting all organs and assisting them in recovery to as near prearrest state as possible.

A. Basic life support, providing temporary perfusion of vital tissues

B. Restoration of spontaneous cardiac and respiratory activity and establishment of circulatory self-sufficiency.

.C. Correction of the underlying disease state, while supporting and protecting all organs and assisting them in recovery to as near prearrest state as possible

D. The A and B are corrects. E.

3. What are the meanings of the BLS (Basic life support)? Choose one of both.

D. Is the application of artificial ventilation and circulation with defibrillation to prevent brain damage.

A. Is the application of artificial ventilation without special equipment or drug to prevent brain damage.

B. Is the application of artificial ventilation and circulation without special equipment or drugs to prevent brain damage.

C. Is the application of the artificial ventilation and circulation with special equipment or drugs to prevent brain damage

4. The sequence of operations for CPR, choose the correct answer:

,E. All are corrects

A. Check for responsiveness

B. Call for help,

C. Correctly place the victim and ensure the open airway,

D. Check the present of the spontaneous respiration,

5. Combines rescues the breathing and the chest compression when:

. D. The patient has conscience.

A. The patient is no breathing,

B. The patient is no pulse,

C. The patient is no breathing and on pulse

Effective the rescues:

D. Provide the ½ to 2/3 normal blood flow,

A. Provide the ½ to ¼ normal blood flow,

B. Provide the ¼ to 1/3 normal blood flow,

C. Provide the 1/3 to ½ normal blood flow,

7. Rescues breath contain :

D. 18% oxygen, (21% in air normal),

A. 15 % oxygen (21% in air normal),

B. 16% oxygen, (21% in air normal),

C. 17% oxygen, (21% in air normal),

8. In case of unconsciousness it is necessary to estimate quickly, choose the correct answer:

D. The medication, the defibrillation, call for help,

A. Tap shoulder, the open airway, and the circulation,

B. The open airway, the respiration, the defibrillation,

C. The respiration, the open airway, the circulation, @

E. The hemodynamic, the open airway, the defibrillation.

9. Early CPR within:

A. 3 minutes after cardiac arrest.

B. 4 minutes after cardiac arrest.

C. 5 minutes after cardiac arrest.

D. 6 minutes after cardiac arrest.

10. Early advanced care including :

A. Ventilation mouth to mouth or mouth to nose and intubation.

B. Intubation and IV medication.

C. Chest compression and Intubation.

D. Ventilation mouth to mouth or mouth to nose and chest compression.

Do not attempt the resuscitation when:

D. The patient has rigor morits, dependent lividity, no breathing and no pulse.

A. The patient has the decapitation, rigor morits, evidence of tissue decomposition and dependent lividity.

B. The patient has no pulse, decapitation, no breathing and rigor morits.

C. The patient has no pulse, evidence of the tissue decomposition and rescuer arrived.

12. When can we stop the CPR?

D. Unsafe scene, no pulse, victim unconscious and cardiac arrest longer than 10mn.

A. Victim revives, trained help arrives, too exhausted to continue, cardiac arrest longer than 30 minutes and unsafe scene.

B. Trained help arrives, victim revives, no pulse or breathing, and unsafe scene.

C. Too exhausted to continue, unsafe scene, cardiac arrest longer than 30mn and their family arrived

Loss of consciousness at about:

D. 15-25 second after cardiac arrest.

A. 10-20 second after cardiac arrest.

B. 10-15 second after cardiac arrest.

C. 15-20 second after cardiac arrest.

Respiration arrest may be in:

. D. 35 second after cardiac arrest

A. 25 second after cardiac arrest

B. 20 second after cardiac arrest.

C. 30 second after cardiac arrest.

Pupil dilate fully after:

D. 70 second after cardiac arrest.

A. 40 second after cardiac arrest.

B. 50 second after cardiac arrest.

C. 60 second after cardiac arrest.

Brain damage take place within :

D. 4-7 minutes after cardiac arrest.

A. 3-5 minutes after cardiac arrest.

B. 3-6 minutes after cardiac arrest.

C. 4-6 minutes after cardiac arrest.

Irreversible cerebral cortical damage occurring within:

D. 9-11 minutes after cardiac arrest.

A. 7-9 minutes after cardiac arrest.

B. 7-10 minutes after cardiac arrest.

C. 8-10 minutes after cardiac arrest.

Complication of ECC during CPR:

D. Laceration of kidney, heart, lung and fracture of scapula, ribs and spine.

A. Fracture of ribs, sternum, scapula, and spine

B. Laceration of kidney, heart, liver and lung

. C. Fracture of ribs, sternum, spine and laceration of heart, liver and lung

Complication of CPR without endotracheal:

D. Aspiration, regurgitation and damage to mouth

A. Gastric distention, nausea, vomiting and damage to teeth.

B. Gastric distention, regurgitation and aspiration.

C. Regurgitation, aspiration, vomiting and damage to teeth.

20. Late complication of CPR:

D. Intestinal injury, brain damage, pneumonia and laceration of heart

A. Pulmonary edema, pneumonia, brain injury and recurrent of cardiopulmonary arrest. @

B. Intestinal hemorrhage, brain hemorrhage, pneumonia and cardiac tamponade.

C. Brain injury, pulmonary edema, kidney injury and liver injury.

21. The definition of monitoring :

D. Interpret available clinical data to the patient to help recognize in the past mishaps or unfavorable system condition.

C. Interpret clinical data of the patient to note the mishaps or unfavorable system condition.

B. Show the clinical or symptom of the disease to help recognize in the past mishaps or unfavorable system condition.

A. Interpret available clinical data of the patient to help recognize present or future mishaps or unfavorable system conditions

Basic monitoring:

C. Noninvasive blood pressure, heart rate, ECG, nerve stimulator and temperature.

A. Noninvasive blood pressure, heart rate, ECG, transesophageal echocardiography and nerve stimulator.

B. Invasive blood pressure, heart rate, depth of anesthesia monitor and temperature.

D. Heart rate, ECG, depth of anesthesia monitor, transesophageal echocardiography, noninvasive blood pressure.

Low technique patient monitoring

D. Look at the patient’s face, Watch respiratory pattern, Depth of Anesthesia Monitor, Transesophageal Echocardiography.

A. Manual blood pressure cuff, Finger on the pulse and forehead, Look at the patient’s face, Depth of Anesthesia Monitor.

B. Manual blood pressure cuff, Finger on the pulse and forehead, Depth of Anesthesia Monitor, Transesophageal Echocardiography.

C. Manual blood pressure cuff, Look at the patient’s face, Watch respiratory pattern, Eye on the rebreathing bag, Watch respiratory pattern.

24. High Tech Patient Monitoring

D. Transesophageal Echocardiography, Depth of Anesthesia Monitor, Evoked Potential Monitor, Invasive blood pressure

A. Transesophageal Echocardiography, Depth of Anesthesia Monitor, Evoked Potential Monitor, Manual blood pressure cuff.

B. Look at the patient’s face, Watch respiratory pattern, Depth of Anesthesia Monitor, Transesophageal Echocardiography.

C. Manual blood pressure cuff, Finger on the pulse and forehead, Depth of Anesthesia Monitor, Transesophageal Echocardiography.

Anesthesia mean:

D. Loss of mental

A. Loss of pain

B. Loss of consciousness

C. Loss of sensation.

The regional anesthesia can be:

D. Central anesthesia and general anesthesia.

A. Local anesthesia and central anesthesia.

B. Central anesthesia and peripheral anesthesia.

C. Peripheral anesthesia and local anesthesia.

The important complication of anesthesia:

D. They represent a combination of the patient, the surgeon and the anesthetist.

A. They represent a combination of the patient and the surgeon

B. They represent a combination of the family of the patient and the anesthetist.

C. They represent a combination of the anesthetist and the surgeon.

The decision to operate of the patient:

C. It is made by the anesthetist and the surgeon

A. It is made by the family of the patient and the surgeon.

B. It is made by the patient, the family of the patient and the anesthetist.

D. It is made by the relationship of the patient, the patient and the surgeon.

The important complication of general anesthesia:

D. All are corrects.

A. Nausea and vomiting, sore throat, laryngeal damage.

B. Hypotension, post-dural headache, nerve injury,

C. Cardiovascular collapse, anaphylaxis to anesthetics agents, epidural or intrathecal bleeding.

Anaphylaxis reaction:

D. Can occur to local anesthetics agents.

A. Can occur only in general anesthesia.

B. Can occur to any anesthetics agents and in all types of anesthesia.

C. Can occur to only antibiotics agents.

The symptom of anaphylaxis reaction:

C. The headache, fever, itching, hypotension, and shock.

A. The hypertension, the vomiting, the urticarial, and the rush.

B. The rush, urticarial, angioedema, bronchospasm, the hypotension, and the vomiting.

D. Dizziness, vomiting, hypotension, good pulse, and hyperthermia.

The complication of regional anesthesia:

D. Total spinal block can occur with the injection of large amounts of anesthetic agents into the CSF and it need to use vasopressor first without intubation

A. Pain is 25% of patients still experience pain despite spinal anesthesia and general anesthesia.

B. Hypotension and bradycardia through blockade of the sympathetic nervous system if blocked to high it need to intubation first.

C. Post-dural puncture headache is very common after spinal anesthesia and especially in young adults and obstetrics.

Definition of shock:

D. Inadequate tissue perfusion to meet tissue demands and usually result of high flood flow.

A. Adequate tissue perfusion to meet tissue demands and usually result of inadequate flood flow or oxygen delivery.

C. Inadequate tissue perfusion to meet tissue demands and usually result of inadequate flood flow or oxygen delivery.

B. Inadequate tissue perfusion to meet tissue demands and usually result of adequate flood flow or oxygen delivery.

34. Physiopathology of shock:

C. Oxygen demands < oxygen perfusion.

A. Oxygen demands similar to oxygen perfusion.

B. Oxygen demands > oxygen perfusion.

D. Oxygen demands and oxygen perfusion are increase

Classification of shocks:

C. Neurogenic shock, cardiogenic shock, septic shock, anaphylactic shock.

A. Hypovolemic shock, hemorrhagic shock, cardiogenic shock, septic shock.

B. Cardiogenic shock, distributive shock, hypovolemic shock, and septic shock.

D. Anaphylactic shock, hemorrhagic shock, septic shock and hypovolemic shock

Compensate shock is

D. Irreparable loss of essential organ

A. Organ perfusion is failure

B. Organ perfusion is maintained.

C. Circulatory failure with end organ dysfunction.

Uncompensated shock is

D. Irreparable loss of essential organ.

A. Organ perfusion is failure.

B. Organ perfusion is maintained.

C. Circulatory failure with end organ dysfunction.

Irreversible shock is

D. Irreparable loss of essential organ.

A. Organ perfusion is failure.

B. Organ perfusion is maintained.

C. Circulatory failure with end organ dysfunction.

The cause of hypovolemic shock

C. Tamponade, burn, gastrointestinal bleeding, and infection.

A. Hemorrhage, burn, drug allergic, infection.

B. Hemorrhage, burn, diarrhea, vomiting and bleeding.

D. Burn, diarrhea, drug allergic and vomiting.

The cause of cardiogenic shock

D. Pulmonary embolism, diarrhea, vomiting and myocardial infarction.

A. Tamponade, hemorrhage, vomiting, diarrhea and infection.

B. Hemorrhage, drug allergic, bleeding and myocardial infarction.

C. Tamponade, myocardial infarction, pericarditis and post cardiac surgery.

The cause of distributive shock

B. Diarrhea, tamponade, cardiomyopathie, vominting.

A. Neurogenic shock, anaphylactic shock, septic.

C. Pulmonary embolism, pericarditis, drug allergic and infection.

D. Septic, tamponade, myocardial infarction and diarrhea.

Why we must consultation pre-anesthesia?

D. To cut down the mortality and morbidity after the operation

A. To know clearly the patient.

B. To explain what happen during the operate

C. To reduce the mortality and morbidity per- operation and post.

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