USMLE Manage 200Q last

1) 56-year-old man presents to your office complaining of progressively worsening fatigue. He also reports difficulty concentrating and increasing forgetfulness over the past several weeks. On review of systems, the patient reports having unintentionally gained 6 pounds over the last three months. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and atrial fibrillation. On physical examination, he has a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and a heart rate of 75/min. His lung fields are clear to auscultation. There is no ankle edema. His skin is dry. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for this patient's complaints?
. Hydralazine
. Metoprolol
. Verapamil
. Enalapril
. Amiodarone
2) A 1 -year old child is brought in for a well-baby check-up. His parents report that he has been of good health and began walking a few weeks earlier. They are concerned that he tends to bump into things and falls more than his older sister did. Family history is significant for retinoblastoma. On examination, the pediatrician notes leukocoria of the left eye. No significant lymphadenopathy is present, and there is no enlargement of the liver or spleen. The child's height and weight are normal for age. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Explain to parents what leukocoria is and reassure them that it is temporary
Return visit in 1 month
Refer to neurologist
Refer to ophthalmologist
Treat the eye with erythromycin ophthalmic ointment for 10 days
3) A 1-cm carcinoma of the breast is diagnosed by an excisional biopsy in a 36-year-old woman at 14 weeks’ gestation. The axillary nodes are negative. Which of the following is the best management of this patient?
Terminate the pregnancy immediately and treat the breast cancer
Monitor the mass throughout pregnancy with serial breast ultrasounds
Induce labor at 34 weeks’ gestation, then give chemotherapy
Perform a cesarean delivery at 36 weeks and treat the breast cancer
Modified radical mastectomy at the time of diagnosis
4) A 1-day-old full-term boy is in the neonatal intensive care unit with cyanosis. His BP is 80/40 mmHg in all 4 extremities, HR is 140/min, and respirations are 55/min. Pulse oxymetry shows 80% and does not improve with 100% inspired oxygen by face mask. He is breathing comfortably, but his fingertips and oral mucosa are blue. A continuous machine-like murmur is heard on auscultation. Chest x-ray shows clear lung fields bilaterally. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
. Furosemide
. Intubation with 100% FiO2
. Propranolol
. Prostaglandin E1
. Red blood cell transfusion
5) A 1-month-old infant is brought to the office for a routine neonatal visit. His prenatal and birth histories are unremarkable. His vital signs are normal. Examination reveals a harsh, loud holosystolic murmur over the left, lower sternal border. Palpation reveals a thrill over the precordial region. There is no cyanosis, and pulmonary auscultation reveals no rales. Chest radiograph reveals a heart of normal size and a slight increase in pulmonary vascularity. EKG is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
. PGE 1 administration
. Oxygen administration
. Digoxin and diuretic therapy
. Surgical repair
. Reassurance
6) A 1-week-old black infant presents to you for the first time with a large, fairly well-defined, purple lesion over the buttocks bilaterally, as shown in the photograph. The lesion is not palpable, and it is not warm nor tender. The mother denies trauma and reports that the lesion has been present since birth. This otherwise well-appearing infant is growing and developing normally and appears normal upon physical examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action in this infant?
Report the family to child protective services
Reassurance of the normalcy of the condition
Soft tissues films of the buttocks to identify calcifications
Administration of vitamin K
Measurement of bleeding time as well as factor VII and XI levels
7) A 1-year-old child has repeated episodes of vomiting and abdominal distention. An x-ray shows obstruction at the second portion of the duodenum. Laparotomy is performed and an annular pancreas is discovered. For a symptomatic partial duodenal obstruction secondary to an annular pancreas, which of the following is the operative treatment of choice?
. A Whipple procedure
. Gastrojejunostomy
. Vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
. Partial resection of the annular pancreas
. Duodenostomy
8) A 1-year-old child is brought in for a regular "well baby" check-up. The child appears to have strabismus. The reflection of a bright light from the ceiling of the examination room comes from a different place in each eye. The family explains that the child has always looked that way, and there has been no recent change in the appearance of his eyes. Which of the following is the most effective management?
No treatment unless the condition has not resolved spontaneously by age 7
Corrective lenses
Each eye patched for a month at a time, alternating sides
Surgical correction whenever he is old enough to decide whether he wants it for cosmetic reasons
Surgical correction as soon as it is practical to do it
9) A 1-year-old child is brought to the physician for a routine visit. He was born full term with a birth weight of 71b 8oz (34 kg) and a birth length of 20 in (50.8cm). He has had no major illnesses or hospitalizations His parents report that he was breastfed exclusively for 6 months. He now eats a variety of baby foods and is being transitioned to whole milk. He can pull up to stand and cruise around holding onto objects, but cannot walk independently yet. He can feed himself small pieces of table food with his thumb and first finger. The only words he knows are mama, dada, and ball. His parents are concerned about his growth because some of the other children in his day care class are bigger than him. On physical examination, he weighs 221bs (10 kg) and is 30 in (76.2cm) long. A complete examination is unremarkable. Which of the following should you tell his parents?
His weight is normal, but his height is less than expected.
His weight is less than expected, but his height is normal.
His growth is normal, but he has delayed motor development.
His growth is normal, but he has delayed speech development.
The child's growth and development are normal
10) A 1-year-old child with cerebral palsy secondary to perinatal asphyxia presents to her general pediatrician for a well-child visit. She was delivered at 37 weeks’ gestation by emergency cesarean section for a tight nuchal chord. The patient has severe spastic quadriparesis that is limiting her movements. She also has mental retardation and is unable to speak. She has received physical and occupational therapy since early infancy; however, her parents are concerned by her lack of improvement. Which of the following is the best choice for treatment of spasticity in this child?
Baclofen
Botulinum toxin
Carbamazepine
Discontinue physical therapy
Hyperbaric oxygen
11) A 1-year-old presents for a well-child checkup, but the parents are concerned about giving the child his immunizations. Which of the following is a true contraindication to the administration of the fourth DTaP (diphtheria and tetanus toxoid and acellular pertussis) vaccine?
Child is currently on amoxicillin for an otitis media
Positive family history of adverse reactions to DTaP vaccine
A past history of infantile spasms
Child is currently febrile to 39 C (102.2 F)
Prolonged seizures 6 days after the last DTaP vaccine
12) A 10-month-old girl is seen in clinic for a routine checkup. She weighs 11 kg (24.2 lb). The infant's mother reports that she drinks whole cow's milk and takes solid food poorly. The infant's activity is decreased, but her muscle tone is good and her developmental milestones are up to date. The only significant abnormal physical finding is parlor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Dietary advice and oral iron treatment
Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Intravenous pyelogram
Skeletal survey with x-rays
Bone marrow biopsy
13) A 10-month-old infant presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of low-grade fever and anorexia. The parents report several episodes in which the child has been suddenly inconsolable and crying, followed by periods of lethargy. He has had nonbilious vomiting and several loose stools. On examination, the infant is pale and mildly dehydrated. His abdomen is soft and nondistended, with fullness to palpation in the right upper quadrant. The child passed another stool in the emergency department (see Figure 6-14). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic evaluation and management of this patient?
. proctoscopy
. Oral rehydration and stool cultures
. IV fluid rehydration and a hydrostatic barium enema
. Technetium scan
. IV fluid rehydration, NG decompression, and a UGI contrast study
14) A 10-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his mother because he has lost consciousness, while playing in the yard. He regained his consciousness quickly without following confusion. He never had such an episode before. His past medical history is significant for impaired hearing since birth and one episode of pneumonia three years ago, which required hospitalization. The family history is significant for a sudden cardiac death, in his cousin, at the age of 13. Physical examination is unremarkable. Blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. Heart rate is 70/min, regular. Which of the following medication is most appropriate for this patient?
. Propranolol
. Verapamil
. Quinidine
. Ethosuximide
. Phenobarbital
15) A 10-year-old boy is brought to the psychiatrist by his mother. She states that for the past 2 months he has been increasingly irritable, withdrawn, and apathetic. He has been refusing to do his homework, and his grades have dropped. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
. The child should be hospitalized
. The child should be started in supportive psychotherapy
. The mother should be warned that the child will likely turn out to be bipolar (67% chance)
. The child should receive an antidepressant medication
. The child should receive lithium and an antidepressant
16) A 10-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with pain in the left testicle. The pain was acute in onset and began 1 hour ago. On physical examination, he is noted to have a high-riding, firm, and markedly tender left testis. The right testicle is normal. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
. Manual detorsion of the left testicle with external rotation toward the thigh; orchiopexy if the condition recurs
. Manual detorsion of the left testicle with internal rotation toward the thigh; orchiopexy if the condition recurs
. Orchiopexy of the left testicle
. Orchiopexy of bilateral testicles
. Orchiectomy of the left testicle
17) A 10-year-old boy presents with red discoloration of the urine since the morning. He is healthy and otherwise asymptomatic. He denies dysuria, frequency, urgency, flank, or abdominal pain. His BP is normal. His examination is within normal limits including abdomen and genitourinary system. There is no rash or edema. His urine is pink in color; urinalysis is negative for hemoglobin or protein. No white cells, red cells, or bacteria are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Obtain a recent dietary and drug history
Obtain a urine culture
Test for myoglobin in the urine
Obtain a renal ultrasound
Obtain antistreptococcal antibodies
18) A 10-year-old boy was the backseat belted passenger in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. On presentation to the ER, he is awake, alert, and hemodynamically stable. He is complaining of abdominal pain and has an ecchymosis on his anterior abdominal wall where the seatbelt was located. Which of the following is the best next step in his management?
. Discharge him home without any other workup.
. Discharge him home if his amylase level is normal.
. Discharge him home if his abdominal plain films are negative for the presence of free air.
. Discharge him home if an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan is negative.
. Observe him regardless of negative test results.
19) A 10-year-old girl comes to medical attention because of recurrent attacks of wheezing and dyspnea. The attacks occur mostly at home or, if outdoors, soon after exercise. Exacerbations are noted in springtime. The severity of symptoms is mild- Pulmonary function tests show that peak expiratory flow (PEF) and forced respiratory volume per second (FEVj) are reduced during an attack but are relatively normal during symptom-free intervals. Height and weight are in the 60th percentile. Complete blood count shows 8% eosinophils; all other parameters are normal. Cutaneous testing shows the patient to be allergic to a variety of allergens, including dust mites, animal dander, and several pollens. Which of the following is the most effective step in management?
Avoidance of exercise
Avoidance of respiratory irritants, such as cigarette smoke
Use of a humidifier at home
Use of air cleaners at home
Administration of multiple-drug regimens
20) A 10-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of throat pain, anorexia, and fever for 2 days. Her temperature is 38.9 C (102 F). The patient's history is negative for allergic diseases. She has had two episodes of pharyngotonsillitis over the past several years. Examination reveals a purulent exudate in the posterior oropharynx and enlarged tonsils. There is bilateral tender enlargement of anterior cervical lymph nodes. Cardiac and chest auscultation is normal. A rapid strep test is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Confirmatory throat cultures before treatment
Symptomatic treatment with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs
Symptomatic treatment and oral penicillin V
Symptomatic treatment and a broad-spectrum cephalosporin
Surgical referral for tonsillectomy
21) A 10-year-old girl is involved in a motor vehicle accident, sustaining multiple injuries to her head, arms, and abdomen. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and her pulse is 120/min. Her forearm is disfigured, and bone can be seen through the wound. She is breathing periodically and has cyanotic lips. Her abdomen is rigid, and there is flank discoloration. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Splint the arm and cover wound with sterile gauze
Administer crystalloid solution
Administer vasopressors immediately
Administer packed red blood cells
Perform exploratory laparotomy
22) A 10-year-old girl with blue eyes and blonde hair is brought to the office by her mother for a routine check-up. All her immunizations are up to date. Her family history is significant for myocardial infarction in her father and schizophrenia in a maternal uncle. There is no family history of any skin malignancies. Her height is at the 60th percentile, and weight is at the 56th percentile. While you are examining her, the mother says with much concern that she saw a television program that claimed that the incidence of skin cancer is increasing dramatically. She wants to know the best way to prevent skin cancer in her daughter, especially since they live in California. What is the best advice to help prevent malignant melanoma in this child?
. Sun screen lotion with SPF (sun protection factor) 15
. Sun screen lotion with SPF 30
. Protective clothing
. Avoid going outdoors
. No action needs to be taken, since there is no family history of melanoma
23) A 12-year-old African American male with known sickle cell disease presents with a 2 hours history of right-sided arm weakness ans slurred speech. He has been hospitalized before for pain crises and pneumonia. He takes hydroxyurea, oxycodones as needed, and folic acid. His temperature is 36.6 C, BP is 153/83 mmHg and HR is 112/min with regular rhythm. On physical examination, he has right arm weakness and mild dysarthria. His laboratory values are the following: Hemoglobin 8.2 mg/dL, WBC count 14, 000.mm3, Platelet count 210, 000/mm3, Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL. CT of the head shows no evidence of intracranial bleeding. Which of the following is the best initial management for this patient?
. Beta blockers and aspirin
. Exchange transfusion
. Fibrinolytic therapy
. Heparin and warfarin
. Plasmapheresis
24) A 12-year-old boy comes to the emergency department at midnight with a complaint of severe scrotal pain since 7 PM. There is no history of trauma. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in management?
. Order a surgical consult immediately
. Order a radioisotope scan as an emergency
. Order a urinalysis and Gram stain for bacteria
. Arrange for an ultrasound examination
. Order a Doppler examination
25) A 12-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of vague left-sided chest discomfort. Two months ago, he was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident but sustained only minor injuries. He was observed in the emergency department overnight and discharged home. His past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Vital signs are normal. Auscultation of the lungs shows decreased air entry into the left lower base. An x-ray of the chest is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Chest tube placement
. Computed tomography scan of the chest and abdomen
. Flexible bronchoscopy
. Intravenous antibiotics
. Reassurance and outpatient follow-up
26) A 12-year-old boy comes to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath, cough, and fever. He was diagnosed with cystic fibrosis when he was five years old. He is currently not taking any medications. His temperature is 39.4 C (103F), blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 30/min. He is excessively using his accessory respiratory muscles. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral lower lobe crackles and expiratory wheezing. Pulse oximetry shows Sa02 of 85% that improves to 92% after oxygen supplementation. Which of the following antibiotics or combinations is the best choice for this patient?
Intravenous ceftazidime and gentamicin
Intravenous vancomycin and gentamicin
Intravenous imipenem/cilastatin
Intravenous clindamycin
Oral ciprofloxacin
27) A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of a several-month history of strange behavior. According to his parents, the boy occasionally will start staring and not respond. He will also have tears in his eyes. These episodes last several seconds and he then returns to his baseline. He has not sustained any head trauma and is on no medications. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?
. Diazepam
. Diphenhydramine
. Ethosuximide
. Phenobarbital
. Phenytoin
28) A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. He was in the rear seat and was thrown out of the car during the accident. He was immediately resuscitated, and the trauma work-up showed no abnormalities. His discharge was uneventful. Two months later he was seen in the emergency department because of vague chest pain and discomfort. Auscultation showed decreased air entry into the left lower base. An x-ray film of the chest is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Place chest tube
. Bronchoscopy
. Start antibiotics
. Barium swallow
. Angiogram
29) A 12-year-old boy is brought to the office by his mother due to a two-week history of generalized edema which is gradually progressing. His past medical history is insignificant. He is not taking any medications. His blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, respirations are 18/min, and temperature is 36.7C (98F). The laboratory findings are as follows: Serum sodium 140 mEq/L, Serum potassium 3.7 mEq/L, Serum albumin 2.1 g/dl, Serum globulin 6.0 g/dl, Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dl. Urinalysis reveals proteinuria 3+. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Renal biopsy
Scintigraphy
Intravenous pyelography (IVP)
Prednisone
Prednisone and cyclophosphamide
30) A 12-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of right groin pain, knee pain, and limping. He has had these symptoms for the past 2 weeks. He is at the 90th percentile for weight and 60th percentile for height. He is afebrile, and his other vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows that the range of motion of the right knee joint is within normal limits but hip movements are restricted and the right foot points outward. There is external rotation of the right thigh on flexion of the hip. After confirming the diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
. Aspiration and microscopic examination of the hip joint synovial fluid
. Closed reduction of the hip joint
. Conservative management with rest and analgesics
. Immediate osteotomy of the femoral neck
. Surgical pinning of the fen1oral head
31) A 12-year-old boy notices a scaly, mildly pruritic rash on his arm (see image below). There is no associated fever, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or back pain. He recently started taking swimming classes. The rash is most likely to clear with which of the following therapies?
. Nafcillin
. Corticosteroids
. Retinoids
. Terbinafine
. Acyclovir
32) A 12-year-old boy presents with an intensely pruritic rash for 3 days. He just went on a camping trip, during which he wore only short-sleeve shirts and short pants. His temperature is 37.6 C (99.7 F), blood pressure is 96/62 mm Hg, pulse is 65/min, and respirations are 12/min. There are numerous erythematous papules and vesicles on both arms and legs. Most of them are in a linear array. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Oral cephalexin
Oral prednisone
Topical diphenhydramine
Topical mupirocin
Topical 1% hydrocortisone
33) A 12-year-old boy with a femur fracture after a motor vehicle collision undergoes operative repair. After induction of anesthesia, he develops a fever of 40°C (104°F), shaking rigors, and blood-tinged urine. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
. Alkalinization of the urine, administration of mannitol, and continuation with the procedure
. Administration of dantrolene sodium and continuation with the procedure
. Administration of dantrolene sodium and termination of the procedure
. Administration of intravenous steroids and an antihistamine agent with continuation of the procedure
. Administration of intravenous steroids and an antihistamine agent with termination of the procedure
34) A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of severe coughing, which is productive of a yellow-greenish purulent sputum. He had fever and chills at home. He also complains of chest congestion and chest pain that is worse with coughing. On physical examination, his temperature is 39.6 C (103.2 F), blood pressure is 98/68 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 24/min. He is noted to be lethargic. He has rales on the left lower lung field on auscultation, and chest radiography shows an infiltrate in the left lower lobe. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antimicrobial therapy for this patient?
Amoxicillin-clavulanate and gentamicin
Azithromycin and ceftriaxone
Ceftazidime and tobramycin
Levofloxacin and metronidazole
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and vancomycin
35) A 12-year-old girl is seen by a pediatrician for a mild case of pneumonia. She is treated with an intramuscular injection of penicillin. About 15 minutes later, she develops extreme itchiness, accompanied by the development of wheals scattered over her chest and extremities. She also begins to wheeze and complain of difficulty breathing. The color of her lips and face remains rosy. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in management?
Epinephrine injection
IV corticosteroids
Intubation
Oral corticosteroids
No specific therapy is needed
36) A 12-year-old girl presents with a 2-month history of vaginal discharge. She describes it as clear and states that it stains her underwear. She says that she hates boys, and that "no way" has she ever had sex or even kissed a boy. She reports having had developing breasts for 2 years and thinks that her growth spurt was about a year ago. Genital findings include a pubic hair stage of Tanner III with no evidence of redness or irritation of the vulvovaginal area. A slight amount of odorless, clear mucus is seen. Microscopic examination of the mucus reveals epithelial cells and a few bacteria, but no white cells. The pH is between 3.5 and 4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
No treatment, but the girl should be reassessed in a few months
Advise the girl to discontinue all bubble baths and wipe herself front to back after voiding
Pelvic examination to obtain cultures for gonorrhea and Chlamydia
Clotrimazole cream to be applied once a day for 10 days
Sitz baths one or two times a day and 1% hydrocortisone cream applications once a day for a week
37) A 12-year-old girl was hit in the face by a baseball 15 minutes earlier and has had her mandibular incisors knocked out. Which of the following represents the best plan of action?
. The teeth should be rinsed in hot water then care
Fully dried . Foreign matter adhering to the teeth should be im
Mediately scrubbed off . The teeth may be transported in tea, juice, or col
. Avulsed teeth can be transported in the mouth of the parent or a cooperative patient
. A dental appointment should be made within 48 to 72 hours
38) A 12-year-old girl with a history of asthma has been admitted to intensive care units two times in the past and has had three emergency department visits during the past 12 months. Her only medication is inhaled albuterol as needed, and she uses it two to three times a day. She has nocturnal symptoms about two times a week. She is free of symptoms now but reports that she gets short of breath easily. Which of the following pharmacologic interventions is most appropriate?
. Anticholinergic agent
. Cromolyn sodium
. Inhaled corticosteroid
. Long-term bronchodilator
. Nedocromil sodium
39) A 12-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after direct blunt trauma to the upper abdomen. He has epigastric pain and repeated vomiting immediately after the trauma. He is afebrile and his other vital signs are stable. Barium examination shows duodenal obstruction. CT scan of the abdomen shows a duodenal hematoma and no other injuries are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Exploratory laparotomy
. Nasogastric suction with parenteral nutrition
. Bowel rest and antibiotics
. Endoscopic removal of the hematoma
. MRI of the abdomen
40) A 12-year-old male is brought to the physician because of a two week history of right groin pain and limping. He is at the 60th percentile for height and the 90th percentile for weight. He is afebrile and his other vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows the range of motion of the right knee joint is within normal limits, but hip movements are restricted and the right foot points medially. There is marked external rotation of the right thigh on flexion of the hip. After confirming the diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
. Aspiration and microscopic examination of the hip joint synovial fluid
. Conservative management with rest and analgesics
. Closed reduction of the hip joint
. Immediate osteotomy of the femoral neck
. External fixation of the hip joint with pins
41) A 13-year-old boy has a 3-day history of low-grade fever, symptoms of upper respiratory infection, and a sore throat. A few hours before his presentation to the emergency room, he has an abrupt onset of high fever, difficulty swallowing, and poor handling of his secretions. He indicates that he has a marked worsening in the severity of his sore throat. His pharynx has a fluctuant bulge in the posterior wall. A soft tissue radiograph of his neck is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
Narcotic analgesics
Trial of oral penicillin V
Surgical consultation for incision and drainage under general anesthesia
Rapid streptococcal screen
Monospot test
42) A 13-year-old boy’s scrotum is shown below. He complains of several months of swelling but no pain just above his left testicle. He is sexually active but states that he uses condoms. On physical examination, the area in question feels like a “bag of worms.” Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this condition?
. Doppler flow study of testes
. Radionuclide scan of testes
. Urinalysis and culture
. Ceftriaxone intramuscularly and doxycycline orally
. Reassurance and education only at this time
43) A 13-year-old girl presents with a 1-week history of a sore throat and a nonproductive cough. She has been previously healthy and has not been exposed to any other sick person. She has not been taking any medications. On examination, she has normal oxygen saturation and a low-grade fever. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Amoxicillin
Cefazolin
Erythromycin
Metronidazole
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
44) A 13-year-old girl presents with lethargy, fever, severe headache, and a stiff neck. On examination, a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil and papilledema are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient?
Administration of IV cefotaxime
Administration of IV mannitol
CT of the head
Intubation and hyperventilation
Performance of a lumbar puncture
45) A 13-year-old girl returns to her physician for followup of a strep throat, for which she had been treated 3 weeks previously. After performing a throat culture, the physician asks how school is going. There is dead silence. Her mother says that her daughter has missed the last 4 weeks of school. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Contract with the girl to go back to school as you explore the problem
Write a medical excuse for her until the throat culture results come back
Tell them you must report her to the school authorities for truancy
Send the mother for supportive counseling
Send the girl for psychotherapy
46) A 14-year-old boy is brought to medical attention because of nasal fullness and bleeding. Inspection reveals enlarged cervical lymph nodes as well. Biopsy of a lymphnode confirms nasopharyngeal carcinoma. What is the best management strategy for this patient?
. Chemoradiation
. External beam radiation therapy
. Intracavitary radiation therapy
. Surgical resection
. Surgical resection followed by adjuvant chemoradiation
47) A 14-year-old boy is hit by an automobile while walking across the street and is immediately taken to the emergency department. On arrival, he is conscious and complains of shortness of breath and chest pain. Physical examination reveals an ecchymotic area over his right chest and subcutaneous emphysema. Breath sounds are absent on the right side. His trachea is deviated to the left, and his right hemithorax is tympanic to percussion. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management of this patient?
. 12-lead ECG
. CT of the chest
. Plain radiography of the chest
. Chest tube thoracostomy
. Pericardiocentesis
48) A 14-year-old boy is seen in the ER because of a 3-week history of fever between 38.3C and 38.9C (101F and 102F), lethargy, and a 2.7-kg (6-lb) weight loss. Physical examination reveals marked cervical and inguinal adenopathy, enlarged tonsils with exudate, small hemorrhages on the soft palate, a WBC differential that has 50% lymphocytes (10% atypical), and a palpable spleen 2 cm below the left costal margin. Which of the following therapies should be initiated?
. Initiation of zidovudine
. IV acyclovir
. IV infusion of immunoglobulins and high-dose aspirin
. Intramuscular penicillin
. Avoidance of contact sports
9) A 14-year-old boy presents with the complaint of “breast swelling.” The boy reports that he has been in good health and without other problems, but has noticed over the past month or so that his left breast has been “achy” and that he has now noticed some mild swelling under the nipple. He has never seen discharge; the other breast has not been swelling; and he denies trauma. Your examination demonstrates a quarter-sized area of breast tissue under the left nipple that is not tender and has no discharge. The right breast has no such tissue. He has a normal genitourinary examination, and is Tanner stage 3. Which of the following is the best next course of action?
. CT scan of the pituitary
. Measurement of serum luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
. Measurement of serum testosterone
. Reassurance of the normalcy of the condition
. Chromosomes
50) A 14-year-old G1P0 girl who is 29 weeks’ pregnant with twins presents to the emergency department following a seizure. She was watching television and stood up to go to the bathroom when she “fell down and started shaking.” The patient has no history of seizures and is otherwise healthy. She missed her last obstetrician’s appointment, and her aunt states that her niece has had a lot of headaches and swelling over the past 2 days. On examination the patient is somnolent and difficult to arouse, and has edema of her hands and face. Her blood pressure is 205/120 mm Hg, pulse is 80/ min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. The fetal heart rate is 130/min. Which of the following is the most correct advice for the patient’s aunt?
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called eclampsia, but this can be managed with anti-seizure medications until the baby can be delivered at term”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and needs to be put on strict bed rest and monitored until the baby can be delivered at term”
. “Your niece has a life-threatening condition called preeclampsia, and the baby needs to be delivered as soon as possible”
51) A 14-year-old girl comes to the physician because of lower abdominal cramping. This cramping starts a few hours before, and lasts through, her menses, and then resolves completely. The cramping is primarily in the lower abdomen but also radiates to the back and thighs. She first noted this cramping approximately 6 months after her first menstrual period at age 12. She is not sexually active. Physical examination is unremarkable, including a normal pelvic examination. A pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Trial of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Trial of antibiotics
GnRH agonist therapy
Laparoscopy
Laparotomy
52) A 14-year-old girl with a history of seizures is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of status epilepticus. Her valproic acid level is in the therapeutic range. You arrange a 24-hour video electroencephalogram (EEG). During the EEG, she has several episodes of tonic and clonic movements with moaning and crying, with no loss of bowel or bladder control. The neurologist tells you that during the events the EEG had excessive muscle artifact but no epileptiform discharges. Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate for this condition?
. Add a scheduled benzodiazepine for her muscular symptoms
. Add carbamazepine to her current seizure medication
. Increase her dose of valproic acid
. Withdraw all seizure medications
. Request a psychiatric evaluation
53) A 14-year-old high school student arrives to your clinic for well-child care. In reviewing his records you determine that his most recent immunization for tetanus was at 4 years of age. Which of the following should you recommend?
Tetanus toxoid
Adult tetanus and diphtheria toxoid (Td)
Diphtheria toxoid, whole cell pertussis, and tetanus toxoid (DPT) booster
Tetanus toxoid and tetanus immune globulin
Tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine adsorbed (Tdap)
54) A 14-year-old phenotypically female child is brought to your office by her mother who is concerned that her daughter has not had menstrual bleeding yet. Her past medical history is significant for an episode of severe bilateral pneumonia that required hospitalization when she was seven years old. Physical examination reveals Tanner stage 3 breast development, but very little pubic and axillary hair. Bilateral inguinal masses are palpated. A blind vaginal pouch is noted on pelvic exam. A karyotype analysis showed 46 XY. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Start progesterone supplementation
. Start low-dose corticosteroid therapy
. Perform gonadectomy immediately
. Perform gonadectomy after completion of puberty
. Reassurance and no further therapy
55) A 14-year-old white female presents with "spots" on her face that are "so embarrassing!" Physical examination reveals comedones with minimal inflammation. Her past medical history is insignificant. She does not smoke or consume alcohol. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
. Dietary modifications
. Cream-based cleansers
. Topical retinoids
. Topical erythromycin
. Oral doxycycline
56) A 14-year-old young woman with no PMH, no PSH presents to the office stating that she would like to begin birth control. She is sexually active with multiple male partners. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 3 weeks ago. BP, 110/70 mm Hg; P, 82 beats/min; R, 16 breaths/min; T, 98.5°F. No fever, chills, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, chest-pain, shortness of breath, history of pulmonary embolism, or medical problems. Physical examination: Gen: Awake, alert, oriented x3, no acute distress, CVS: S1S2 + RRR no m/r/g, Lungs: CTA bilaterally, Abd: Soft, nontender, nondistended, + bowel sounds, Ext: no edema. Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?
. CBC
. CMP
. Cervical cultures
. Urine beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (BHCG)
. Lipid profile
57) A 15-month-old boy is brought to the ER because of fever and a rash. Six hours earlier he was fine, except for tugging on his ears; another physician diagnosed otitis media and prescribed amoxicillin. During the interim period, the child has developed an erythematous rash on his face, trunk, and extremities. Some of the lesions, which are of variable size, do not blanch on pressure. The child is now very irritable, and he does not interact well with the examiner. Temperature is 39.5C (103.1F). He continues to have injected, immobile tympanic membranes, but you are concerned about his change in mental status. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this infant?
. Begin administration of IV ampicillin
. Begin diphenhydramine
. Discontinue administration of ampicillin and begin trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole
. Perform bilateral myringotomies
. Perform a lumbar puncture
58) A 15-year old girl presents with a 5-day history of sore throat, low-grade fever, and easy fatigability. Physical examination shows bilateral tonsillar enlargement with exudate. Her spleen is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Her throat culture is negative for group A Streptococcus. Monospot test is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Abdominal ultrasound
Avoidance of all contact sports
Complete blood count
Oral penicillin
Splenectomy
{"name":"USMLE Manage 200Q last", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"1) 56-year-old man presents to your office complaining of progressively worsening fatigue. He also reports difficulty concentrating and increasing forgetfulness over the past several weeks. On review of systems, the patient reports having unintentionally gained 6 pounds over the last three months. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and atrial fibrillation. On physical examination, he has a blood pressure of 140\/90 mmHg and a heart rate of 75\/min. His lung fields are clear to auscultation. There is no ankle edema. His skin is dry. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for this patient's complaints?, 2) A 1 -year old child is brought in for a well-baby check-up. His parents report that he has been of good health and began walking a few weeks earlier. They are concerned that he tends to bump into things and falls more than his older sister did. Family history is significant for retinoblastoma. On examination, the pediatrician notes leukocoria of the left eye. No significant lymphadenopathy is present, and there is no enlargement of the liver or spleen. The child's height and weight are normal for age. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?, 3) A 1-cm carcinoma of the breast is diagnosed by an excisional biopsy in a 36-year-old woman at 14 weeks’ gestation. The axillary nodes are negative. Which of the following is the best management of this patient?","img":"https://cdn.poll-maker.com/13-562327/6.jpg?sz=1200-00000000000839307511"}
Powered by: Quiz Maker