SUMMATIVE 3 DEVNET
DevNet Knowledge Assessment
Welcome to the DevNet Knowledge Assessment quiz! This comprehensive quiz consists of 27 carefully designed questions to test your knowledge in networking, security, and programming essentials.
Get ready to dive into topics such as:
- Networking Fundamentals
- Security Practices
- Routing and Switching
- Cloud Technologies
What command can a technician use on a computer to see if DNS is a functioning property?
A. ipconfig
B. Net share
C. nslookup
D. Net use
Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
A. physical
B. Data link
C. network
D. transport
E. session
What is one advantage of using the cutthrough switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?
A. Provides the flexibility to support any of Ethernet speeds
B. Has a lower latency appropriate for highperformance computing applications
C. Makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
D. Has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
Which solution improves web response time by deploying multiple web servers and DNS servers?
A. memcaching
B. Distributed databases
C. sharding
D. Load balancing
What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
A. It will remove the frame from the media.
B. It will forward the frame to the next host.
C. It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
D. It will discard the frame.
What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?
A. auditing
B. warnings
C. acknowledgments
D. traps
What is the function of the nslookup utility?
A. To manually force a client to send a DHCP request
B. To display all cached DNS entries on a host
C. To view the network settings on a host
D. To manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name
Hat type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00- 02?
A. An address that reaches every host in the network
B. An address that reaches every host inside a local subnet
C. An address that reaches a specific group of hosts
D. An address that reaches one specific host
A high school in New York (school A) is using videoconferencing technology to establish student interactions with another high school (school B) in Russia. The videoconferencing is conducted between two end devices through the Internet. The network administrator of school A configures the end device with the IP address 209.165.201.10. The administrator sends a request for the IP address for the end device in school B and the response is 192.168.25.10. Neither school is using a VPN. The administrator knows immediately that this IP will not work. Why?
A. This is a link-local address.
B. This is a private IP address.
C. There is an IP address conflict.
D. This is a loopback address.
Refer to the exhibit. An organization is using static NAT to translate the private IP address of Host A to a single public IP address leased from the ISP. Which address is the inside global address of Host A?
A. 209.165.202.129
B. 203.0.113.2
C. 192.168.2.253
D. 192.168.1.1
E. 192.168.1. 10
Consider the following routing table entry for R1: D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0
A. It is the interface on the final destination router that is directly connected to the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
B. It is the R1 interface through which the EIGRP update was learned.
C. It is the interface on the nexthop router when the destination IP address the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
D. It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24.
A device has an IPV6 address listed as 2001:0DB8:75a3:0214:0607:1234:aa10:b a01. What is the interface ID of the device?
A. 2001:0DB8:75a3
B. ba01
C. 0607:1234:aa10:ba01
D. 2001:0DB8
In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.)
A. When applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
B. When a faster delivery mechanism is needed
C. When delivery overhead is not an issue
D. When applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data
E. When destination port numbers are dynamic
Refer to the exhibit. A computer that is configured with the IPv4 address as shown in the exhibit is unable to access the internet. What is the problem?
A. The gateway address is in the wrong subnet.
B. The IP address is a network address.
C. The settings were not validated
D. The IP address is a broadcast address.
What IPv4-related DNS record type is used by a DNS server in response to a host requesting for a web server address via the URL?
A. AAAA record
B. NS record
C. A record
D. MX record
Which technique is used to help mitigate SQL injection attacks?
A. Using the same owner or admin account in the web applications to connect to the database
B. Limiting the read access to specific fields of a table or joins of tables
C. Using stored procedures with the “db_owner” default role
D. assigning DBA or admin access rights to the application account
Which security device is used to make responses to client requests look like they all come from the same server?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Forward proxy
C. Reverse proxy
D. Jump box
What is a characteristic of a virtual machine running on a PC?
A. A virtual machine needs a physical network adapter to connect to the Internet
B. A virtual machine runs its own operating system
C. The number of virtual machines that can be made available depends on the software
D. A virtual machine is not susceptible to threats and malicious attacks.
Hat is a characteristic of the bluegreen upgrade deployment strategy?
A. A new environment is created with the new code in it, while the old environment is held in reserve in case users experience problems.
B. The code changes are periodically rolled out in such a way that they do not impact current users.
C. The new code is deployed all at once to the old environment. If users experience no issues, it is then moved to the new environment.
D. The new code version is first rolled out to a subset of users. Changes can then be rolled back if the users experience any problems
Which mitigation method is effective against cross-site scripting?
A. Requiring multifactor authentication
B. Consistent hardening of systems and applications
C. Sanitizing untrusted content
D. Using only necessary features and secure packages downloaded from official sources and verified with a signature
Which attack involves the insertion of malicious code into SQL statements?
A. SQL injection
B. cross-site scripting
C. Brute force
D. Local file inclusion
In software development, what is the purpose of a jump box?
A. To act as a single trusted machine used to launch connections to sensitive systems
B. To make all requests originating from within a network look like they come from the same source IP address
C. To filter packets based on Layer 3 and Layer 4 addressing
D. To receive incoming requests and forward them to multiple servers
Which characters are used to separate batched SQL statements?
A. semicolons ;
B. colons :
C. parentheses ()
D. Pound signs #
What is a philosophy for software deployment used in the field of DevOps?
A. OWASP
B. DevNet
C. SOAP
D. CI/CD
Which statement is a characteristic of the broken access control threat to web applications?
A. It allows attackers to access, and potentially change, serialized versions of data and objects.
B. It allows an attacker to use the dynamic functions of a site to inject malicious content into the page
C. It allows users to circumvent existing authentication requirements.
D. It allows attackers to steal sensitive information such as passwords or personal information.
Which technology is used to containerize applications and allows them to run in a variety of environments?
A. Docker
B. GitHub
C. VirtualBox
D. Cisco DNA
What is used to isolate the different parts of a running container?
A. wrappers
B. namespaces
C. Control groups
D. Union file systems
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