Gyn Test Q1 to Q 70
1) A pregnant patient of yours goes to the emergency room at 20 weeks gestational age with complaints of hematuria and back pain. The emergency room physician orders an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) as part of a workup for a possible kidney stone. The radiologist indicates the absence of nephrolithiasis but reports the presence of bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter, which is greater on the right side than on the left. Which of the following statements is true regarding this IVP finding?
. The bilateral hydronephrosis is of concern, and renal function tests, including BUN and creatinine, should be run and closely monitored
. These findings are consistent with normal pregnancy and are not of concern
. The bilateral hydronephrosis is of concern, and a renal sonogram should be ordered emergently
. The findings indicate that a urology consult is needed to obtain recommendations for further workup and evaluation
. The findings are consistent with ureteral obstruction, and the patient should be referred for stent placement
2) A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right lower quadrant pain and vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 112/70 mm Hg, pulse is 74/min, and respirations are 14/min. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. Pelvic examination reveals scant blood in the vagina, a closed cervical os, no pelvic masses, and right pelvic tenderness. Her leukocyte count is 8000/mm3, hematocrit is 38%, and a platelet count is 250,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate step next in diagnosis?
Serum hCG
Serum TSH
Abdominal x-ray
Abdominal/pelvic CT
Laparoscopy
3) A 34-year-old female comes to your office for an infertility evaluation. She has been having irregular menstrual cycles for the past five years, stating that her menstrual periods come on average once every two to three months. Her past medical history is not significant. She is not taking any medications currently. Her blood pressure is 145/96 mmHg and heart rate is 72/min. Her BMI is 33 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals facial acne and excessive hair growth over the upper lip and chin. Which of the following is the most likely pathologic finding in this patient?
. Polycystic kidneys
. Enlarged ovaries
. Pituitary adenoma
. Atrophic adrenals
. Atrophic endometrium
4) A 32-year-old female is being evaluated for abnormal uterine bleeding. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound reveals endometrial hyperplasia and a right-sided adnexal mass. In this patient, the adnexal mass is most likely to be a?
. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
. Dysgerminoma
. Teratoma
. Granulosa cell tumor
. Fallopian tube cancer
5) A 28-year-old nulligravid patient complains of bleeding between her periods and increasingly heavy menses. Over the past 9 months, she has had two dilation and curettages (D&Cs), which have failed to resolve her symptoms, and oral contraceptives and antiprostaglandins have not decreased the abnormal bleeding. Which of the following options is most appropriate at this time?
. Perform a hysterectomy
. Perform hysteroscopy
. Perform endometrial ablation
. Treat with a GnRH agonist
. Start the patient on a high-dose progestational agent
6) A patient presents to you for evaluation of infertility. She is 26 years old and has never been pregnant. She and her husband have been trying to get pregnant for 2 years. Her husband had a semen analysis and was told that everything was normal. The patient has a history of endometriosis diagnosed by laparoscopy at age 17. At the time she was having severe pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea. After the surgery, the patient was told she had a few small implants of endometriosis on her ovaries and fallopian tubes and several others in the posterior cul-de-sac. She also had a left ovarian cyst, filmy adnexal adhesions, and several subcentimeter serosal fibroids. You have recommended that she have a hysterosalpingogram as part of her evaluation for infertility. Which of the patient’s following conditions can be diagnosed with a hysterosalpingogram?
. Endometriosis
. Hydrosalpinx
. Subserous fibroids
. Minimal pelvic adhesions
. Ovarian cyst
7) A 29-year-old woman presents with severe pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea). During workup, an endometrial biopsy is obtained. The pathology report from this specimen makes the diagnosis of chronic endometritis. Based on this pathology report, which of the following was present in the biopsy sample of the endometrium?
. Neutrophils
. Lymphocytes
. Lymphoid follicles
. Plasma cells
. Decidualized stromal cells
8) A couple presents for evaluation of primary infertility. The evaluation of the woman is completely normal. The husband is found to have a left varicocele. If the husband’s varicocele is the cause of the couple’s infertility, what would you expect to see when evaluating the husband’s semen analysis?
. Decreased sperm count with an increase in the number of abnormal forms
. Decreased sperm count with an increase in motility
. Increased sperm count with an increase in the number of abnormal forms
. Increased sperm count with absent motility
. Azoospermia
9) A 30-year-old woman presents for a physical examination for work. She denies any medical problems or surgeries in the past. She has had no pregnancies. She is sexually active and has been using oral contraceptive pills for the past 6 years. She denies any allergies to medications. On examination, her weight is 62 kg, blood pressure 120/78 mm Hg, pulse 76 beats per minute, respiratory rate 15 breaths per minute, temperature 36.8C (98.4F). Her physical examination is normal. Laboratory evaluation is also done. Which direct effect of birth control pills could be noted in the laboratory results?
. Decreased glucose tolerance
. Decreased binding globulins
. Decreased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
. Decreased triglycerides
. Decreased hemoglobin concentration
10) A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician for preconception counseling. She takes no medication. Her menses are regular, are moderate in amount, and last 5-6 days. Her diet is well balanced. Her grandparents are from Greece. Her husband's family is also of Mediterranean ancestry. Her mother and sister have been diagnosed with anemia, but she does not know the types. The presence of thalassemia anemia in her family is suspected. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial screening test?
. Complete blood count in the patient
. Hemoglobin electrophoresis testing in the patient
. Hemoglobin electrophoresis testing in the patient and her husband
. Iron level, total iron-binding capacity, and ferritin level in the patient
. Solubility testing in the patient
11) A 27-year old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of infertility. She and her 31-year-old husband have not been able to conceive after 12 months of unprotected and frequent intercourse. She has regular 28-day menstrual cycles and during the menstrual cycles she develops mild pelvic pain and bilateral breast tenderness. She has no pain during sexual intercourse. Her blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. Physical examination is completely unremarkable. Which of the following could most likely be abnormal in this patient?
. Serum prolactin level
. Hysterosalpingogram
. Mid luteal serum progesterone level
. Serum testosterone level
. Serum inhibin B level
12) A 22-year-old woman comes to your office at 10 weeks gestation for her first prenatal visit. Her obstetrical history is significant for a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks gestation one year ago. She states that her mother has hypothyroidism, and she asks you to order thyroid function tests for her. She denies any symptoms, and her physical examination is unremarkable. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestation with normal fetal cardiac activity. Which of the following results is most likely to be expected in this patient?
. Normal total T4, normal TSH
. Decreased free T4, decreased TSH
. Increased total T4, normal TSH
. Increased free T4, decreased TSH
. Decreased total T4, increased TSH
13) A 35-year-old female complains of nipple discharge. The discharge is from both breasts, brown in color and occurs intermittently. She has two children who are 5 and 8 years old. She has not been recently pregnant. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. She describes no other symptoms. Examination shows normal breasts without palpable lumps or nipple abnormalities. Brownish discharge is expressed from the nipples, and it is guaiac negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Mammogram
. Ultrasonogram
. Cytologic examination
. Serum prolactin and TSH levels
. Surgical evaluation
14) A 22-year-old woman is being followed by her family physician during her first pregnancy. She is currently at 28 weeks' gestation, feeling well, and gaining an appropriate amount of weight. She has not had sexual intercourse for the past 15 weeks. Her first prenatal exam was at 12 weeks' gestation, at which time her HIV, chlamydia, gonorrhea, Rh(D)-antibody, and urine cultures were negative. Her blood type is A negative. She does not know who the father of the child is but is excited to raise the child with the help of her mother. She is unable to recall or confirm her immunization status for a number of vaccines. Which of the following measures is warranted at this time?
. MMR vaccination
. Urine culture
. Rh(D) antibody test
. HIV antibody test
. Pneumococcal vaccine
15) A 16-year-old girl is brought to your office by her mother for evaluation of primary amenorrhea. Her older sister had her first period at age 13. Vitals signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows absence of breast development and external genitalia at Tanner stage 1. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Estrogen levels
. Serum LH levels
. Serum FSH levels
. Karyotyping
. GnRH stimulation test
16) A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a preoperative evaluation. She is undergoing an infertility workup and a laparoscopy is planned. She and her husband have been trying to have a child for the last 5 years, but have not had any success. Over that time period, this woman has suffered three miscarriages. Her past medical history is remarkable for anemia, a history of depression, and a deep venous thrombus suffered during her first pregnancy. Her review of systems reveals diffuse arthralgias, but is otherwise unremarkable. She is currently not taking any medications, though she does report having a drug reaction to prenatal vitamins. Early in pregnancy, she had a red facial rash across her face that spared her nasolabial folds. Physical examination today is unremarkable. Laboratory studies, with the exception of a prothrombin time elevated to two times greater than normal, are unremarkable. Which of the following studies will most likely explain this patient’s laboratory abnormality?
. Assay for cardiolipin antibody
. Blood smear with manual review
. Screening for Factor V Leiden mutation
. Ristocetin cofactor analysis
. Serologic test for syphilis
17) A 30-year old woman has irregular menses. She reports that her last menstrual period (LMP) was 8 weeks ago. She has been experiencing vaginal spotting and left lower quadrant pain. She is afebrile. She has a normal size uterus and mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant with no rebound tenderness. A human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) beta-subunit level of 1400 mIU/ml is reported in her records from an obstetrics visit 2 days ago. Which of the following is the appropriate management?
. Perform a pelvis ultrasound
. Perform a culdocentesis
. Repeat hCG measurement in 1 week
. Repeat hCG measurement in 24 hours
. Refer for diagnostic laparoscopy
18) During a routine return OB visit, an 18-year-old G1P0 patient at 23 weeks gestational age undergoes a urinalysis. The dipstick done by the nurse indicates the presence of trace glucosuria. All other parameters of the urine test are normal. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of the increased sugar detected in the urine?
. The patient has diabetes.
. The patient has a urine infection.
. The patient’s urinalysis is consistent with normal pregnancy.
. The patient’s urine sample is contaminated.
. The patient has kidney disease
19) A 32-year-old Caucasian primigravida presents to your office in her 30'" week of pregnancy. On review of systems, she complains of leg swelling and occasional heartburn. She denies abdominal pain or vaginal discharge. She eats a balanced diet and takes folic acid supplements. Her blood pressure is 165/100 mmHg and her heart rate is 90/min. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
. Proteinuria
. Ketonuria
. Thrombocytosis
. Splenomegaly
. Fasting hyperglycemia
20) A healthy, 32-year-old, primigravid woman at 12 weeks of gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. She has no complaints. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. She has blood group O, Rh(O)+, and her husband has blood group AB, Rh(O)+. She is concerned about the risk of alloimmunization because her mother had that problem during her second pregnancy. Although the child will have a different blood group from the patient, alloimmunization is of little concern due to which of the following?
. Immune response is depressed in pregnancy
. ABO antigens are weakly antigenic
. The mother is tolerant to the child's ABO antigens
. Antibodies to ABO antigens cause mild disease in most newborns
. Antibodies to ABO antigens are not hemolytic
21) A 76-year-old woman presents with complaints of severe vulvar itching for the past six months. She has tried over-the-counter topical lubricants without relief. Physical examination reveals numerous vulvar excoriations. The vulvar skin is thin, dry and white in color. The labia minora are difficult to visualize. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Vaginal Pap smear
. Vulvar punch biopsy
. Radical vulvectomy
. Estrogen cream
. Wet mount smear
22) A 22-year-old woman presents with complaints of vaginal discharge and severe vulvar pruritus. She is otherwise healthy. Physical examination reveals a thin, malodorous vaginal discharge and marked vulvar and vaginal erythema. The pH of the vaginal discharge is 5.5. Microscopic examination of the discharge is most likely to reveal which of the following?
. Pseudohyphae
. Flagellated motile organisms
. Clue cells
. Multinucleated giant cells
. Numerous eosinophils
23) A 22-year-old woman (G2POA1) is being followed by her family physician for pregnancy. She is currently at 28 weeks' gestation, feeling well, and gaining an appropriate amount of weight. She has not had sexual intercourse during her pregnancy. Her first prenatal exam at 12 weeks' gestation showed a negative HIV, Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and urine cultures. Her blood type is A negative and Rh (D) negative. She has not communicated with the father of the child during the pregnancy but is excited to raise the child with the help of her mother. She is unable to recall or confirm her immunization status for a number of vaccines. Which of the following measures is warranted at this time?
. MMR vaccination
. Urine culture
. Rh(D) antibody test
. HIV antibody test
. Pneumococcal vaccine
24) A 29-year-old woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She is 10 weeks pregnant as determined by her last menstrual period. She does not have any medical problems and does not take any medications. She is devoutly religious and has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband since getting married 5 years ago. They live in a house built in 1983 where she works as a homemaker. Her husband is an accountant. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. Her physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following screening tests is indicated at this time?
. Rapid plasma reagin test
. Hepatitis C antibody
. Serum lead level
. Red blood cell folic acid level
. Chlamydia PCR
25) A 17-year-old teenage girl presents to your office with a 10-month history of lower abdominal pain that radiates to the upper thighs and back. The pain is colicky in nature and usually starts a few hours prior to menses, lasting 3-4 days. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals over the past 2 years. She has no inter-menstrual bleeding. She became sexually active 6-months ago and does not use contraception. Physical examination shows healthy genitalia and well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; the uterus is normal in size and freely mobile. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her pelvic pathology?
. Ureteric stone
. Pelvic infection
. Abnormal myometrial growth
. Increased prostaglandins
. Ectopic endometrial implants
26) A 28-year-old woman presents to your office with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. This is her second infection in 2 months. You treated the last infection with Bactrim DS for 3 days. Her symptoms never really improved. Now she has worsening lower abdominal discomfort, dysuria, and frequency. She has had no fever or flank pain. Physical examination shows only mild suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient?
. Urine culture
. Intravenous pyelogram
. Cystoscopy
. Wet smear
. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
27) A 23-year-old G1PO female presents for her first prenatal visit at 14 weeks gestation. A pap smear is done at that time and a high grade squamous intraepitheliallesions (HSIL) is seen at cytology. A test for HPV discloses the presence of a strain with high oncogenic risk. A satisfactory colposcopy is done and shows no site of abnormalities. At this time the next best step is?
. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)
. Repeat pap smear 12 months
. Termination of pregnancy
. Repeat colposcopy after delivery
. Endocervical curettage
28) A 28-year-old G3P2 woman at 32 weeks gestation comes to the physician because she has felt only 2 or 3 fetal movements in the past 12 hours. As in her previous pregnancies, she has gestational diabetes, which is under good control with diet and mild exercise. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination is unremarkable. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
. Amniotic fluid index
. Contraction stress test
. Deliver the fetus immediately
. Non-stress test
. Ultrasound for fetal heart tones
29) An 18-year-old woman comes to your office because of abdominal pain. She states that the pain started yesterday afternoon and has been worsening. The pain is in the right lower quadrant and does not radiate. She rates it a 7 on a scale of 1 to 10. She has had some nausea but no vomiting. Nothing seems to improve or worsen the pain. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes thyroid hormone replacement, and no other medical problems. She has never had surgery. She is allergic to penicillin. Physical examination is significant for right lower quadrant tenderness. Bimanual examination reveals right adnexal tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup of this patient?
. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
. Abdominal x-ray
. Appendiceal ultrasound
. Pelvic ultrasound
. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
30) A 45-year-old woman presents to her physician's office complaining of night sweats and insomnia. She states that for the past month she has woken up completely soaked with perspiration on several occasions. She has had irregular menstrual periods for the past six months. She consumes one ounce of alcohol nightly before going to the bed, and quit smoking 5 years ago. She has a history of hypertension controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. She denies illicit drug use. Her temperature is 36.7C (98F), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
. Prescribe a short course of oral hormone replacement therapy
. Obtain a urine toxicology screen
. Reassure her that she is reaching menopause
. Measure serun1 TSH and FSH
. Measure 24-hour urinary catecholamines
31) A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, presents to your office at 20 weeks' gestation for a routine prenatal check-up. This pregnancy has been uncomplicated thus far. She is known to be D (-) while her husband is D (+). Her obstetric history is significant for intrapartum placental abruption, which did not require caesarian delivery. She received a standard dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy and immediately postpartum. You decide to determine her anti-D antibody titers, and they turn out to be 1:34. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the positive antibody screen in this patient?
. No prophylaxis early in this pregnancy
. Too early administration of anti-D immune globulin postpartum
. Low dose of anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy
. Low dose of anti-D immune globulin postpartum
. No prophylaxis between the pregnancies
32) A 20-year old GOPO woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding and right lower quadrant pain. Her last menstrual period was approximately 5 weeks ago. She is sexually active and uses condoms occasionally. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min and respirations are 14/min. Examination shows mild right lower quadrant tenderness, but no rebound or guarding. There is no active vaginal bleeding and the cervical os is closed. Her initial hemoglobin is 11.0 g/dl. She is Rh positive and a quantitative β-HCG is 1000 mIU/mL. A vaginal ultrasound is done and no intrauterine or extrauterine pregnancy can be seen. Which of the following is next best step in management?
. Consent for laparoscopy
. Methotrexate administration
. Repeat β-HCG in 48 hours
. Administration of anti-D immune globulin
. Consent for dilatation and curettage
33) A 26-year-old G1P0 patient at 34 weeks gestation is being evaluated with Doppler ultrasound studies of the fetal umbilical arteries. The patient is a healthy smoker. Her fetus has shown evidence of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) on previous ultrasound examinations. The Doppler studies currently show that the systolic to diastolic ratio (S/D) in the umbilical arteries is much higher than it was on her last ultrasound 3 weeks ago and there is now reverse diastolic flow. Which of the following is correct information to share with the patient?
. The Doppler studies indicate that the fetus is doing well
. With advancing gestational age the S/D ratio is supposed to rise
. These Doppler findings are normal in someone who smokes
. Reverse diastolic flow is normal as a patient approaches full term
. The Doppler studies are worrisome and indicate that the fetal status is deteriorating
34) A 17-year-old primipara at 41 weeks wants an immediate cesarean section. She is being followed with biophysical profile (BPP) testing. Which of the following is correct information to share with the patient?
. BPP testing includes amniotic fluid volume, fetal breathing, fetal body movements, fetal body tone, and contraction stress testing
. The false-negative rate of the BPP is 10%
. False-positive results on BPP are rare
. Spontaneous decelerations during BPP testing are associated with significant fetal morbidity
. A normal BPP should be repeated in 1 week to 10 days in a post-term pregnancy
35) A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet. She is very anxious to find out because she has a history of a previous ectopic pregnancy and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care. Which of the following actions is most appropriate at this time?
. No action is needed because the patient is asymptomatic, has not missed her period, and cannot be pregnant
. Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test
. Listen for fetal heart tones by Doppler equipment
. Perform an abdominal ultrasound
. Perform a bimanual pelvic examination to assess uterine size
36) A patient presents for her first initial OB visit after performing a home pregnancy test and gives a last menstrual period of about 8 weeks ago. She says she is not entirely sure of her dates, however, because she has a long history of irregular menses. Which of the following is the most accurate way of dating the pregnancy?
. Determination of uterine size on pelvic examination
. Quantitative serum human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) level
. Crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal ultrasound
. Determination of progesterone level along with serum HCG level
. Quantification of a serum estradiol level
37) A healthy 20-year-old G1P0 presents for her first OB visit at 10 weeks gestational age. She denies any significant medical history both personally and in her family. Which of the following tests is not part of the recommended first trimester blood testing for this patient?
. Complete blood count (CBC)
. Screening for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
. Hepatitis B surface antigen
. Blood type and screen
. One-hour glucose challenge testing
38) A 28-year-old woman is admitted for delivery. She began experiencing regular, painful uterine contractions three hours ago and her water broke en route to the hospital. The cervix is 5 cm dilated and 80% effaced. The fetal presentation is vertex and the baby's head is at -1 station. After placing a fetal heart monitor and external tocometer, repetitive decreases in fetal heart rate are noted which begin at the same time as the contractions and end before the contractions have ceased. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the fetal heart pattern?
. Periods of fetal sleep
. Umbilical cord compression
. Fetal head compression
. Uteroplacental insufficiency
. Intrauterine infection
39) A 19-year-old G1P0 presents to her obstetrician’s office for a routine OB visit at 32 weeks gestation. Her pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes requiring insulin for control. She has been noncompliant with diet and insulin therapy. She has had two prior normal ultrasounds at 20 and 28 weeks gestation. She has no other significant past medical or surgical history. During the visit, her fundal height measures 38 cm. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy between the fundal height and the gestational age?
. Fetal hydrocephaly
. Uterine fibroids
. Polyhydramnios
. Breech presentation
. Undiagnosed twin gestation
40) A pregnant woman who is 7 weeks from her LMP comes in to the office for her first prenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy ended in a missed abortion in the first trimester. The patient therefore is very anxious about the well being of this pregnancy. Which of the following modalities will allow you to best document fetal heart action?
. Regular stethoscope
. Fetoscope
. Special fetal Doppler equipment
. Transvaginal sonogram
. Transabdominal pelvic sonogram
41) Your patient complains of decreased fetal movement at term. You recommend a modified BPP test. Nonstress testing (NST) in your office was reactive. The next part of the modified BPP is which of the following?
. Contraction stress testing
. Amniotic fluid index evaluation
. Ultrasound assessment of fetal movement
. Ultrasound assessment of fetal breathing movements
. Ultrasound assessment of fetal tone
42) During routine ultrasound surveillance of a twin pregnancy, twin A weighs 1200 g and twin B weighs 750g. Hydramnios is noted around twin A, while twin B has oligohydramnios. Which statement concerning the ultrasound findings in this twin pregnancy is true?
. The donor twin develops hydramnios more often than does the recipient twin.
. Gross differences may be observed between donor and recipient placentas.
. The donor twin usually suffers from a hemolytic anemia.
. The donor twin is more likely to develop widespread thromboses.
. The donor twin often develops polycythemia
43) A 22-year-old G1P0 presents to your clinic for follow-up of evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole. She is asymptomatic and her examination is normal. Which of the following would be an indication to start single-agent chemotherapy?
. A rise in hCG titers
. A plateau of hCG titers for 1 week
. Return of hCG titer to normal at 6 weeks after evacuation
. Appearance of liver metastasis
. Appearance of brain metastasis
44) A 26-year-old nulligravid patient presents to her physician seeking preconceptional advice. She plans to conceive in about 1 year. Her past medical history is significant for chickenpox as a child. She had an appendectomy 2 years ago. She takes no medications and is allergic to penicillin. Her complete physical examination, including a pelvic examination, is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis to prevent morbidity in this patient's offspring?
Blood cultures
Group B Streptococcus culture
Pelvic ultrasound
Rubella titer
Urine culture
45) An otherwise healthy, 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bloody discharge from the right nipple for 2 weeks. On examination, no retraction, erosion, or other abnormal change is present. Palpation reveals an ill-defined, 1-cm nodule located deep in the right areola. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Cytologic examination of nipple discharge
Mammography alone
Ultrasonography
Biopsy under mammographic localization
Mammography followed by fine-needle cytology
46) A 73-year-old female presents to your office with lower abdominal discomfort. Physical examination reveals an adnexal mass on the right side. This patient is most likely to have elevated levels of which of the following?
. CEA
. CA 19-9
. CA-125
. Alpha-fetoprotein
. hCG
47) A 28-year-old woman presents 4 weeks after delivering her first child with a low-grade fever and pain in her right breast. She states that she has been breast feeding her newborn infant. Physical examination finds this breast to be tender, swollen, and erythematous. Microscopic examination of nipple smears from this woman would most likely reveal large numbers of which of the following types of cells?
. Adipocytes
. Eosinophils
. Giant cells
. Mast cells
. Neutrophils
48) During a routine breast self-examination, a 35-year-old woman is concerned because her breasts feel “lumpy.” She consults you as her primary care physician. After performing an examination, you reassure her that no masses are present and that the “lumpiness” is due to fibrocystic changes. Which of the following pathologic findings is a type of nonproliferative fibrocystic change?
. A blue-domed cyst
. A radial scar
. Atypical ductal hyperplasia
. Papillomatosis
. Sclerosing adenosis
49) A 23-year-old woman presents with a rubbery, freely movable 2-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. Which of the following histologic features is most likely to be seen when examining a biopsy specimen from this mass?
. Large numbers of neutrophils
. Large numbers of plasma cells
. Duct ectasia with inspissation of breast secretions
. Necrotic fat surrounded by lipid-laden macrophages
. A mixture of fibrous tissue and ducts
50) A 48-year-old woman presents with a painless mass located in her left breast. Physical examination finds a firm, nontender, 3-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. There was retraction of the skin overlying this mass, and several enlarged lymph nodes were found in her left axilla. The mass was resected and histologic sections revealed an invasive ductal carcinoma. Biopsies from her axillary lymph nodes revealed the presence of metastatic disease to 4 of 18 examined axillary lymph nodes. Response to therapy with Trastuzumab is most closely associated with expression of which of the following?
. BRCA1
. Estrogen receptors
. HER2/neu
. Progesterone receptors
. Urokinase plasminogen activator
51) A 51-year-old man presents with bilateral enlargement of his breasts. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable, and the diagnosis of gynecomastia is made. Which of the following histologic features is most likely to be seen when examining a biopsy specimen from this man’s breast tissue?
. Atrophic ductal structures with increased numbers of lipocytes
. Dilated ducts filled with granular, necrotic, acidophilic debris
. Expansion of lobules by monotonous proliferation of epithelial cells
. Granulomatous inflammation surrounding ducts with numerous plasma cells
. Proliferation of ducts in hyalinized fibrous tissue with periductal edema
52) A 23-year-old female comes to the physician complaining of a 3-day history of intermittent lower abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. The pain is of mild to moderate intensity. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. A pregnancy test is performed, and the result is positive. Her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows unilateral adnexal tenderness. Transabdominal ultrasonogram does not reveal an intrauterine gestation. Quantitative beta-HCG is 1500 IU/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Culdocentesis
. Laparoscopy
. Gram stain and culture of endocervical secretions
. Transvaginal ultrasonogram
. Laparotomy
53) A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician for routine physical examination and a Pap smear. She has had multiple sexual partners and uses barrier methods for contraception. She was treated for chlamydial cervicitis four months ago. She has no other medical problems. Pelvic examination is unremarkable and a Pap smear was performed. A week later the result came as "satisfactory for evaluation" and shows mild dysplasia (low grade intraepitheliallesion). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat Pap smear in 2 weeks
. Repeat Pap smear in 12 months
. Reflex HPV testing
. Cone biopsy
. Colposcopy
54) A 25-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of constant pelvic and low sacral back pain for several months. The pain is usually worse premenstrually. She tried over the counter anti-inflammatory medications but had little relief. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her boyfriend for the past 4 years. She has no fever or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 37.2 C (98.9 F), and blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg. Physical examination shows tender posterior vaginal fornix and pain upon uterine motion. Complete blood count is normal. Pelvic ultrasonogram is normal. Which of the following is most appropriate diagnostic test in her management?
. Endometrial biopsy
. Laparoscopy
. CA- 125 levels
. Hysterosalpingogram
. Serial beta-hCG
55) A 28-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for a follow-up prenatal visit. According to prenatal records, ultrasound at 16 weeks gestation showed an intrauterine gestation consistent with dates and showed no abnormalities. She is now at 40 weeks gestation. Examination shows a fundal height consistent with dates and the cervix is not favorable. Fetal heart tracing is reassuring. She wishes to continue the pregnancy for two more weeks rather than undergoing induction. She should be closely monitored for which of the following?
. Polyhydramnios
. Oligohydramnios
. Abruptio placenta
. Placenta previa
. Preeclampsia
56) An 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She has been sexually active for the past 2 years. She uses the oral contraceptive pill for contraception. She has depression for which she takes fluoxetine. She takes no other medications and has no allergies to medications. Her family history is negative for cancer and cardiac disease. Examination is unremarkable. Which of the following screening tests should this patient most likely have?
. Colonoscopy
. Mammogram
. Pap smear
. Pelvic ultrasound
. Sigmoidoscopy
57) A patient is seen on the first postoperative day after a difficult abdominal hysterectomy complicated by hemorrhage from the left uterine artery pedicle. Multiple sutures were placed into this area to control bleeding. Her estimated blood loss was 500 mL. The patient now has fever, left back pain, left costovertebral angle tenderness, and hematuria. Her vital signs are temperature 38.2C (100.8F), blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and pulse 102 beats per minute. Her postoperative hemoglobin dropped from 11.2 to 9.8, her white blood cell count is 9.5, and her creatinine rose from 0.6 mg/dL to 1.8 mg/dL. What is next best step in the management of this patient?
. Order chest x-ray.
. Order intravenous pyelogram.
. Order renal ultrasound.
. Start intravenous antibiotics.
. Transfuse two units of packed red blood cells.
58) A 44-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence. She loses urine when she laughs, coughs, and plays tennis. Urodynamic studies are performed in the office with a multiple-channel machine. If this patient has genuine stress urinary incontinence, which of the following do you expect to see on the cystometric study?
. An abnormally short urethra
. Multiple uninhibited detrusor contractions
. Total bladder capacity of 1000 cc
. Normal urethral pressure profile
. First urge to void at 50 cc
59) A 14-year-old girl comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. She became sexually active during the past year and uses condoms occasionally for contraception. She has asthma, for which she occasionally takes an albuterol inhaler. She had an appendectomy at age 9. Physical examination is unremarkable including a normal pelvic examination. When should this patient begin having Pap testing?
. Immediately
. Age 16
. Age 18
. Age 20
. Age 21
60) A 30-year-old G1P0 with a twin gestation at 25 weeks presents to labor and delivery complaining of irregular uterine contractions and back pain. She reports an increase in the amount of her vaginal discharge, but denies any rupture of membranes. She reports that earlier in the day she had some very light vaginal bleeding, which has now resolved. On arrival to labor and delivery, she is placed on an external fetal monitor, which indicates uterine contractions every 2 to 4 minutes. She is afebrile and her vital signs are all normal. Her gravid uterus is non tender. The nurses call you to evaluate the patient. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in the valuation of vaginal bleeding in this patient?
. Vaginal examination to determine cervical dilation
. Ultrasound to check placental location
. Urine culture to check for urinary tract infection
. Labs to evaluate for disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
. Apt test to determine if blood is from the fetus
61) A 34-year-old G2P1 at 31 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with complaints of vaginal bleeding earlier in the day that resolved on its own. She denies any leakage of fluid or uterine contractions. She reports good fetal movement. In her last pregnancy, she had a low transverse cesarean delivery for breech presentation at term. She denies any medical problems. Her vital signs are normal and electronic external monitoring reveals a reactive fetal heart rate tracing and no uterine contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Send her home, since the bleeding has completely resolved and she is experiencing good fetal movements
. Perform a sterile digital examination
. Perform an amniocentesis to rule out infection
. Perform a sterile speculum examination
. Perform an ultrasound examination
62) A 27-year-old G2P1 at 29 weeks gestational age, who is being followed for Rh isoimmunization presents for her OB visit. The fundal height is noted to be 33 cm. An ultrasound reveals fetal ascites and a pericardial effusion. Which of the following can be another finding in fetal hydrops?
. Oligohydramnios
. Hydrocephalus
. Hydronephrosis
. Subcutaneous edema
. Over-distended fetal bladder
63) A 28-year-old G1P0 woman at 12 weeks’ gestation presents for routine follow-up with her obstetrician. She complains of mild nausea and occasional vomiting, but otherwise is doing well and reports no other symptoms or complications. Her physical examination is unremarkable and fetal ultrasound is normal for gestational age. Laboratory tests show: Free triiodothyronine: 180 ng/dL, Free thyroxine: 2.2 ng/dL, Total thyroxine: 12 μg/dL, Thyroid-stimulating hormone: 0.1 μU/mL(normal: 0.4 – 4 μU/mL). Results of a thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibody test are negative. Which of the following best explains these findings?
Acute infectious thyroiditis
Graves’ disease
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
High serum estrogen concentration
High serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin level
64) A 31-year-old pregnant woman 6–7 weeks from her last menses comes to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of lower abdominal pain for 3 hours. The pain is diffused in the lower abdomen but worse on the right side. Her serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) concentration is 9600 mIU/mL. Which of the following is the strongest evidence that she has a tubal ectopic pregnancy?
Absence of an extrauterine sac on ultrasonography
Absence of blood on culdocentesis
Absence of a mass on bimanual examination
Absence of an intrauterine sac on ultrasonography
Her hCG concentration
65) A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 25 weeks’ gestation comes to the physician because of right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, and malaise for the past 2 days. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 104/72 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals right upper quadrant tenderness to palpation. The cervix is long, closed, and posterior. There is generalized edema. Laboratory values are as follows: Leukocyte count 10,500/mm3, Platelet count 62,000/mm3, Hematocrit: 26%, Sodium: 140 mEq/L, Chloride: 100 mEq/L, Potassium: 4.5 mEq/L, Bicarbonate: 26 mEq/L. A peripheral blood smear reveals hemolysis. Which of the following laboratory findings would be most likely in this patient?
Decreased fibrin split products
Decreased lactate dehydrogenase
Elevated AST
Elevated fibrinogen
Elevated glucose
66) A 25-year-old woman presents to your office for evaluation of primary infertility. She has regular periods every 28 days. She has done testing at home with an ovulation kit, which suggests she is ovulating. A hysterosalpingogram demonstrates patency of both fallopian tubes. A progesterone level drawn in the mid–luteal phase is lower than expected. A luteal phase defect is suspected to be the cause of this patient’s infertility. Which of the following studies performed in the second half of the menstrual cycle is helpful in making this diagnosis?
. Serum estradiol levels
. Urinary pregnanetriol levels
. Endometrial biopsy
. Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels
. Serum luteinizing hormone (LH) levels
67) A 45-year-old woman who had two normal pregnancies 15 and 18 years ago presents with the complaint of amenorrhea for 7 months. She expresses the desire to become pregnant again. After exclusion of pregnancy, which of the following tests is next indicated in the evaluation of this patient’s amenorrhea?
. Hysterosalpingogram
. Endometrial biopsy
. Thyroid function tests
. Testosterone and DHAS levels
. LH and FSH levels
68) A 26-year-old woman presents for evaluation of infertility. She describes her menstrual cycles as irregular stating that they occur anywhere between 32 to 35 days. She has no galactorrhea. She eats a balanced diet and exercises regularly. She has no other medical problems. Her BMI is 22 Kg/m2. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test to evaluate her infertility?
. Endometrial biopsy
. Hysterosalpingogram
. Mid luteal serum progesterone level
. Serum testosterone
. Karyotyping
69) A 30-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 26 weeks gestation comes to the physician because of a decrease in fetal movements. She has felt few fetal kicks the past 20 hours. Her prenatal course, prenatal tests and fetal growth have been normal. She has chronic hypertension and is now taking methyldopa and labetalol. Her previous pregnancies were uncomplicated and both delivered vaginally. She does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. Fetal heart tones are heard by Doppler. Non-stress test is reactive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Repeat non-stress test weekly
. Perform contraction stress test
. Biophysical profile
. Give vibroacoustic stimulation
. Deliver the baby immediately
70) A 24-year-old woman comes to your office complaining of an 8-week history of amenorrhea. She is sexually active and uses OCPs for contraception. Her medical history is unremarkable. She does not have any particular complaints except moderate fatigue and a decline in mood. She denies headaches, visual disturbances, or any gastrointestinal symptoms. She denies cigarette smoking or any drug use, and drinks alcohol socially. Breast examination reveals a white, milky secretion upon expression of both nipples. A pelvic examination reveals a uterus of normal size. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Initial investigations reveal a negative serum beta-hCG level. According to these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
. Determine serum TSH level
. Determine serum TRH level
. Perform visual field study
. Order sellar MRI
. Order sellar CT scan
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