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Oiler steam test #1

A detailed illustration depicting a marine engineer conducting safety tests on a ship's machinery, including equipment like fire extinguishers and oil tanks, in a maritime environment.

Oiler Steam Test Quiz

Are you ready to test your knowledge on marine safety and engineering? This quiz covers essential topics related to fire safety, equipment maintenance, and first aid procedures in the maritime industry.

Whether you're a seasoned professional or just starting out, this quiz will challenge your understanding and reinforce critical safety measures. Dive into the following topics:

Fire classifications
Emergency response protocols
Maritime safety regulations
Equipment operation and maintenance

70 Questions18 MinutesCreated by NavigatingStar237

1. A burning AC motor would be considered what class of fire?

A. Class 'A'

B. Class 'B'

C. Class 'C'

D. Class 'D'

2. A corrosion resistant fine mesh wire screen is commonly fitted to the end of tank vent piping to prevent

A. Passage of flames into the tank

B.Entry of rodents into the tank

C. Debris stopping up the vent pipe

D. Water from entrying the tank

3. A fire can be extinguished by removing:

A. The heat

B. The fuel

C. The oxygen

D. Any of the above

4. A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as being 'Safe for Men' and 'Safe for fire'. This condition may change if:

A. The ambient temperture changes

B. A product leaks into the certified tank

C. muck, sluge, or scale in the tank gives off additional vapors

D. All of the above

5. A man has suffered a burn on his arm characterized by reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. This is an example of what kind of burn?

A. Major burn

B. Third degree burn

C. Second degree burn

D. Blister burn

6. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must:

A. Administer oxygen

B. Immediately check his pulse and start cpr

C. Make the victim comfortable in a bunk

D. Immediately give the victim a stimulant, by force if necessary

7. A vessel whose fuel tanks are half-full is subject to:

A. Free surface effect

B. Serious loss of reserve buoyancy

C. Severe sagging

D. Severe hogging

8. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46CFR), all exposed and dangerous areas around machinery, such as gears and rotation parts, shall be properly protected with:

A. covers

B. guards

C. rails

D. Any of the above

9. An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to:

A prevent the generation of flammable or combustable gas in tanks

Blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations

C. Dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the lower explosive limit

D. Prevent fires in the pump room by continually displacing flammable vapors

10. An instrument used to detect explosive gas/air mixtures, usually measures the concentration in terms of the lower explosive line, and known as a:

A. Toxic vapor meter

B. Flame safety lamp

C. Gas absorption detector

D. Combustible gas indicator

11. During operations, oil is detected in the water adjacent to your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source other than your vessel, you should:

A. Secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined

Make an entry in the oil record book to that effect

C. Notify the coast guard

D. All of the above

12. Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the:

A. Engineer on watch

B. Chief engineer

C. Chief mate

D. master

13. Which of the following procedures should be used to examine a cartrige-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher?

A. Make certain that the pressure cartridge has not been punctured

B. Check to see that the hose and nozzle are clear

C. Ensure that dry chemical is not become caked

D. All of the above

14. Which of the listed devices is required to be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

A. Pressure gauge

B. Strainer

C. Reduction valve

D. International shore connection

15. To be in compliance with U.S. Federal Ballast Water Management regulation, which of the following procedures may be followed by an ocean vessel entering U.S. Waters returning from an international voyage?

A. Prior to discharging ballast water in U.S. waters, the vessel must perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from any shoreline

B. Retain ballast water on board the vessel

C. Prior to entering U.S. waters, use any Coast Guard approved alternative enviromentally sound method of BWM

D. All of the above

16. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be:

A. Given a mild seawater solution to replace salt and fluids

B. Kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously

C. Given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of rest

D. Moved to a cool room and told to lie down

17. Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke?

A. Cold and moist skin, high body temperature

B. Cold and dry skin, low body temperature

C. Hot and moist skin, high body temperature

D. Hot and dry skin, high body temperature

18. Unless there is a damger of further injury, a person with a broken bone should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and:

A. The bone has been set

B. The fracture is immoblized

C. Radio advice has been obtained

D. The wound has been washed

19. Wooden shoring is used in shipboard damage control to:

A. Force a warped bulkhead back into position

B. Prevent fractures from spreading

C. Force a sprung bulkhead back into place

D. Support a damaged bulkhead in position

20. When administering first aid you should avoid:

A. Any conversation with the patient

B. Instructing bystanders

C. Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty

D. Touching the patient

21. An 8-inch (203mm), globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the lube oil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of the disk. This means that:

A. The valve will remain compleately open

B. The valve will prevent back flow

The valve will never permit water flow from the lube oil cooler

D. The valve will allow the lube oil tempeature to be 10°F (5.5°C) cooler

22. In a two-stage flash evaporatior, the seawater feed temperature is inreased as it passes through the:

A. first-stage distilling condenser

B. second-stage distilling condenser

C. Salt water feed heater

D. All of the above

23. The type of gauge most commonly used to measure pressure is the:

A. Bimetallic type

B. Diaphragm type

C. Bourdon tube type

D. resistance-temperature type

24. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to:

A. Drain water from the air receiver

B. Drain water from the cylinders

C. Delay the compression process until the motor is up to speed

D. Check pump alignment

25. When a heat exchanger is used as a cooler, exessive cooling water flow should be avoided to prevent:

A. Erosive tube failure

B. Waterside deposit buildup

C. Tube sheet bowing

D. Water hammer damage

26. When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is:

A. Read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench

B. Read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench

C. Indicated by an audible click

D. Indicated by a release or break of the handle

27. If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most probale cause?

A. The wearing rings are exessively worn

B. The sustion strainer is clogged

C. The discharge valve is clogged

D. The shaft is worn

28. A condensate recirculating line is provided to the main condenser in a closed feed water system to:

A. Prevent excessively cooled distillate from entering the dc heater

B. Provide adequate cooling water to the air ejector inter and after condensers

C. Assure a positive flow through the main feed pump

D. Prevent flashing in the main feed pump

29. The purpose of the recirculating line between the turbine driven feed pump and the DC heater is to:

A. Ensure a steady boiler water level at all loads

B. Seal the labyrinth packing on the pump

C. Ensure sufficient flow through the feed pump at low load

D. Cool the vent condenser

30. The first and second stage air ejectors used with large seawater cooled steam, surface type condensers are designed to: I. Establish vacuum. II Maintain vacuum

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I or II

31. Condensate return lines from tank heating coils are led to the:

A. Atmospheric drain tank

B. Main condenser

C. DC heater

D. Contaminated drain system

32. When secureing a fuel oil heater, you should:

A. Open the fuel oil temperature regulator bypass, widely

B. Cut out the steam before securing the oil flow

C. Stop the oil flow and then cut out the steam

D. Remove all fuel oil pressure from the system by securing the fuel oil pump

33. An excessive pressure differential across a lube oil strainer could indicate:

A. The strainer needs cleaning

B. The filter elements are intalled upside down

C. The relief valve is stuck poen

D. All of the above

34. Steam condensed in the air ejector intercondenser, drains to the:

A. Atmospheric drain tank

B. After condenser drain tank

C. Vent condenser drain tank

D. Main condenser through the loop seal

35. From which of the areas listed are condensate drains normally collected and returned to the low pressure drain system?

A. Steam whistle separator/trap

B. Each main feed pump steam supply line

C. Steam systems operating in excess of 150psi

D. Main and auxiliary air ejector after condensers

36. The DC heater functions to:

A. store, heat, and deaerate feed water

B. Chemically treat feed water to remove carbonic gases

C. Ensure recirculation in the feed water system

D. Remove the major amount of non-condensable gases from the main condenser

37. Which of the water supplies listed below is typically used as a cooling medium for the gland exhaust condenser, intercondenser, and after condenser of an ejector unit?

A. Seawater

B. Condensate

C. Potable water

D. Evaporator distillate

38. How is an excess of turbine gland seal steam remedied?

A. It exhausts into the atmosphere

B. It drains to the makeup feed tank

C. It is directed to the gland exhaust condenser

D. It is recirculated via the loop seal

39. While underway, vacuum in the main condenser is primarily caused by:

A. Suction drawn by the condensate pump

B. Condensing of the exhausting steam

C. Main air ejector

D. After condenser loop seal

40. Which of the following systems can normally be supplied by auxiliary exhaust steam?

A. Main feed pump

B. Low pressure evaporator

C. Air ejectors

D. Boiler steam atomizers

41. Which of the bearings listed is used in some turbines to limit axial movement?

A. Pivoted-shoe type thrust bearing

B. Self-adjusting, spherically-seated, self-aligning bearing

C. Journal bearing

D. Cylindrical bearing

42. Illustration SG-0008 Which of the following devices is indicated by arrow 'H' shown in the illustration?

A. Economizer

B. Steam soot blowers

C. Overdeck superheater

D. Air heater

43. Illustration SG-008 The screen tubes in the illustration are indicated by arrow '_'

A. 'F'

B. 'J'

C. 'H'

D. 'D'

44. Illustration SG-0008 Arrow 'B' shown in the illustration indicates the _.

A. Regenerative air heater

B. Retractable soot blower opening

C. Combustion air inlet

D. uptakes

45. A major difference between the two element and the three element feed water regulator control systems, is that a three element system will additionally measure and incororate the:

A. Drum water level to the feed water regulator

B. Steam flow to the feed water regulator

Feed water flow as a sensed variable

D. Fuel oil flow to the feed water regulator

46. The phenomenon called 'shrink' causes an apparent drop in the water level of a steaming boiler. This phenomenon is caused by a/an:

A. Collapse of steam bubbles

Excessive formation of steam bubbles

C. Sudden decrease in steam pressure

D. Rapid increase in feed rate

47. The purpose of firebrick in a water tube boiler furnace is to: I. Protect the generating tubes from flame impingment. II. Protect the boiler furnace inner casing

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I or II

48. An incandescent white flame in a boiler firebox would indicate:

A. Effcient combustion

B. Low fuel oil temperature

C. Excessive fuel oil pressure

D. Too much excess air

49. Regarding main propulsion boilers, what condition would normally be indicated if the bridge reported that white smoke was observedd coming from the stack?

A. High fuel oil viscosity

B. Too much excess air

C. Low fuel oil temperature

D. Insufficient steam atomization pressure

50. In preparing to blow tubes at sea, you should:

A. Increase the firing rate

B. Decrease the firing rate

C. Increase the forced draft speed

D. Decrease the forced draft speed.

51. To safely decrease the boiler-firing rate, you should always reduce the fuel pressure

A. After reducing the forced draft pressure

B. Before reducing the forced draft pressure

C. By opening the oil recirculating valve

D. By opening the pump relief valve

52. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler water tubes and economizer sufaces is:

A. Low stack temperature

B. High stack temperature

C. Lower feed water flow

D. High feed water temperture

53. The internal feed pipe in a D-type marine boiler provides:

A. Distribution of feed water evenly thoughout the steam drum

B. Guidance of the feed water towards the downcomers as it enters the water drum

C. Cooling for the internal cyclone separators

D. Cooling for the superheater tube bank

54. The purpose of the boiler bottom blow valve is to:

A. Remove scum from the steam drum during steaming

B. Control steam drum water level in an emergency

C. Remove heavy solids from the water drum

D. All of the above

55. One of the important functions of the superheater safety valve is to:

A. Maintain a constant steam flow in the desuperheater

B. Protect the desuperheater from overheating

C. Protect the superheater from overheating

D. Maintain a constant steam flow in the auxiliary steam line

56. Steam leaving the desuperheater is used to:

A. Operate the ship service turbo generator

B. Operate the auxiliary equipment

C. Supply additional steam for propulsion during overload conditions

D. Provide steam for propulsion during low speed operation

57. Which system should be tested and used when required to raise the water level in an idle boiler?

A. Chemical feed system

B. Auxiliary feed system

C. Desuperheated steam system

D. Superheated steam system

58. While on watch in the engine room and steaming at a steady rate, the water level begins to decrease and suddenly drops out of sight in the boiler gauge glass. Your FIRST corrective action should be to:

A. Secure the fires

B. Slow down the engines

C. Blow down the boiler gauge glass

D. Open the feed water regulator bypass

59. Auxiliary steam at full operating pressure is supplied from the boiler directly to the:

A. Turbo generators

B. Main air ejectors

C. Distilling plants

D. Soot blowers

60. When the flame scanner senses flame failure during boiler operation, which of the listed events will occur FIRST?

A. The fuel oil service pump is stopped

B. The automatic purge cycle commences

C. The fuel oil solenoid is de-energized

D. The 'trial for ignition' period commences

61. If the low water level alarm sounds on an automatically fired boiler, and the low water cutout fails to function, you must immediately:

A. Blow down the gauge glass to detemine where the water level is

B. Increase the feed water supply to maintain the water level

C. Start the emergency feed water injector to restore the normal water level

D. Secure the fires to minimize damage to the tubes

62. A rotor position micrometer on a main propulsion reaction turbine measures rotor:

A. Radial position relative to the casing

B. Radial position relative to the micrometer

C. Axial position relative to the casing

D. Axial position relative to the micrometer

63. In a reaction turbine, the fixed blades function to:

A. Decrease steam velocity

B. Increase steam velocity

C. Prevent turbulence

D. Produce tubulence

64. Nozzle diaphragms are installed in pressure-compounded impulse turbines to:

A. Support moving blades

B. Support shrouding

C. Hold the nozzles of the stage and admit steam to moving blades

D. Eliminate blade and nozzle losses

65. The labyrinth seals used on rotating steam turbine shafts reduces external leakage by:

A. Successive pressure drops through the seal stages

B. Successive temperture drops through the seal stages

C. Pressure increases through successive seal stages

D. Increased turbulence through successively larger labyrinth clearances

66. The most likely results of water slugging in the steam supply to a ship service tubo generator is:

A. Excessive shaft seal wear

B. Contamination of the lube oil

C. Damage to the turbine blades

D. Rapid erosion of labyrinth packing

67. The greatest overall lost of efficiency in a marine propulsion steam plant cycle results from:

A. Heat lost in the main condenser

B. Poor heat transfer in feed water heaters

C. Mechanical losses in the atomization process

D. Heat loss required for fuel oil heating

68. To raise vacuum on the main turbine unit, you should:

A. Start the lube oil pump after starting the jacking gear

B. Warm up and drain the main steam lines

C. Pump the main condenser how well dry

D. Admit gland sealing steam to the turbine glands

69. In a cross-compound main propulsion unit, the astern turbine is usally installed at the:

A. Low pressure end of the low pressure turbine

B. High pressure end of the low presure turbine

C. Low pressure end of the high pressure turbine

D. High pressure end of the high pressure turbine

70. An auxiliary turbine boiler feed pump should normally be stopped by:

A. Closing the exhaust valve slightly

B. Actuating the throttle hand tripping device

C. Rotating the hand lube oil pump backwards

D. Opening the circuit breaking

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