Micro exam 2020/21
Microbiology Mastery Quiz
Test your knowledge on the fascinating world of microbiology with our comprehensive quiz! Covering a wide range of topics including antibiotics, fungal infections, and viral diseases, this quiz is designed for aspiring microbiologists and healthcare professionals alike.
Enjoy these features:
- 30 challenging questions
- Immediate feedback on your answers
- Track your progress and improvement
Erythromycin resistance a may stem from: Select one:
PBP alteration
Bacterial DNA gyrase alteration
Drug acetylation
4. AmpC beta-lactamase production
Active efflux
Asymptomatic bacteriuria:
Always requires antimicrobial treatment regardless the host risk factors
It’s significant bacteriuria without clinical symptoms of UTI.
Non-fermentative Gram-negative rods are its main etiological agents
It’s often associated with chronic catheterization
Is always treated in pregnancy
Choose correct combination of fungus and marker detected:
Galactomannan - Candida
Galactomannan - Aspergillus
Capsular polysaccharides - Cryptococcus neoformans
Mannan – Candida
Pseudohyphae – cryptococcus neoformans
Pseudohyphae - C.albicans
Choose correct statement concerning the antiviral therapy: Select one:
Interferons activates the viral protein synthesis in infected host cells
Amantadine is a nucleoside analogue used to treat Influenza A
Acyclovir is active only against HHV-1 and is not used to treat herpetic meningo-encephalitis
Ribavirin is used to treat Lassa fever and RSV infections
Ribavirin is the HIV protease inhibitor
Choose the most common etiological agents of ostitis: Select one:
Treponema pallidum, Staphylococcus hominis
Prevotella melaninogenica, Mycoplasma spp
Haemophilus parainfluenzae, Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Campylobacter jeikeum
Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pontiac fever treatment management includes
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
Spiramycin
Azithromycin
Levofloxacin
Gentamicin
19-year-old female patient was admitted to a doctor to evaluate the pelvic pain and purulent, yellow-green vaginal discharge. In Gram-stained direct of the discharge the presence of Gram-negative cocci was determined. In accordance with the international recommendations the following antimicrobial agents should be administrated.
Cefoxitin + doxycycline
Cefuroxime + tetracycline
Ceftriaxone + azithromycin
Penicillin G + azithromycin
Metronidazole + tetracycline
8. COVID-19 vaccines (developed so far) are composed of:
Viral capsid
Whole viral genome
MRNA
Adenovirus vector
S-glycoprotein of SARS
Roxithromycin:
Is used to treat Chlamydophila pneumoniae infections
Is bacteriostatic
Due to its spectrum is the first-line drug used to treat UTI
Inhibits the bacterial DNA synthesis
Is active against I.a. gram-positive cocci
Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
Choose strict anaerobic microorganisms most commonly found in large intestine of healthy individual: Select one:
Corynebacterium, Staphylococcus, Candida
Propionibacterium, Streptococcus, Acinetobacter
Eubacterium, Enterococcus, Porphyromonas
Blastocystis, Bacteroides, Trichomonas
Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, Prevotella
Invasive aspergillosis:
Mostly indicates patients with complement deficiencies.
Is associated with neutropenia and impaired phagocytic cells function.
Voriconazole and amphotericin B are used in treatment.
Aspergillus fumigatus is its main etiological agent.
The gastrointestinal tract is the main gate of entry of aspergillus
Respiratory tract is the main ate of entry of aspergillus
12. Which of the following spread via droplet route:
Measles virus
Ebola virus
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Bartoella henselae
Sars-CoV2
Echinocandins:
Are active against Cryptococcus neoformans
Inhibition of fungal cell membrane 1,3 – β-glucan synthesis
Binds to ergosterol causing direct oxidative membrane damage
Inhibition of fungal cell wall 1,3 – β-glucan synthesis
Are not active against Candida glabrata and Candida krusei
Hospital acquired pneumonia on ICU is predominantly caused by
Moraxella catarrhalis
Mycobacterium avium
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Acinetobacter Baumanii
The Ebola and Marburg viruses are the members of: Select one:
Togaviridae
Flaviviridae
Bunyaviridae
Filoviridae
Arenaviridae
Choose etiological agents of aseptic (non-purulent) meningitis: Select one:
Borrelia burgdorferi
Haemophilus influenzae
S. pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
E. coli
Choose the most common fungi responsible for superficial skin infections:
Candida, Malassezia furfur, Trichophyton
Zygomycetes
Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans
Anaplasma, Sporothrix schenckii
Pneumocystis jiroveci, Trichosporon
19. Which of the following assays (due to poor sensitivity) are NOT used in diagnostic of infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
PCR
Gram-stained direct smear evaluation
Immunoenzymatic assays
Culture on artificial media
Rapid antigen tests
Which of the resistance phenotypes refers to MRSA MLS+? Select one:
Resistant to all penicillin, cephalosporins and vancomycin
Susceptible to penicillin G, aminopenicillins, ureidopenicillins , carbapenems and clindamycin
Resistant to natural penicillin, aminopenicillins; susceptible to IIIrd generation of cephalosporins and macrolides
Resistant to amoxicillin with clavulanic acid, ceftriaxone, imipenem, susceptible to streptogramins B
Resistant to all penicillin, cephalosporins excluding ceftaroline, carbapenems and resistant to macrolides
Choose incorrect statement regarding infections caused by Herpesviridae:
Patients with prodromal symptoms or lesions of genital herpes need to refrain from sexual intercourse until the lesions are completely reepithelialized
Herpetic keratitis is almost always limited to one eye and leads to permanent scarring
HHV-2 is generally transmitted sexually
Herpes zoster is recurrent latent form of herpes labialis
HHV-1 is transmitted in vesicle fluid, saliva and vaginal secretions
HSV-1 is recurrent latent form of herpes labials
Which of the following are the main causes of atypical pneumonia in school-age children: Select one
Adenovirus, Streptococcus pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis, Pneumocystis jiroveci
RSV, Haemophilus influenzae
Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Influenza virus
The diagnosis of vulvovaginal candidiasis includes the following laboratory and clinical findings:
Blastospores and invasive forms of fungus in direct Gram-stained smear
Fishy odor of vaginal discharge
Clue cells presence in direct Gram-stained smear
�Cottage cheese” vaginal discharge
Frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge
Choose correct statement/s concerning whooping cough:
Clindamycin reduces length of the infectious stage
Infection spreads via fecal-oral route
Filamentous hemagglutinin and pertactin are required for binding to the host ciliated cells.
Humans are the exclusive reservoirs of the bacterium
Vaccines contain inactivated pertussis toxin, filamentous hemagglutinin and pertacin
Drug of choice for dog bite prophylaxis include: Select one:
Natural penicillin
Azithromycin
Amoxicillin
Cefalexin
Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
The properties of alcohols include
Toxicity
Sporicidal activity
Bacterial activity
Activity against prions
Activity against lipid viruses
Choose correct combination of patients and drug of choice recommended to treat bacterial meningitis: Select one:
Postexposure prophylaxis for meningococcal disease – isoniazid
10–18-year-old patients – ceftriaxone and vancomycin
Adults– ampicillin+ metronidazole
1 month – 5-year-old children – ampicillin and gentamicin
Newborns– ampicillin and cefuroxime
Choose INCORRECT statement regarding the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections: Select one:
Seroconversion is defined as a 2-fold increase in IgG titer
RSV induces the syncytia formation in infected host
Seroconversion is defined as a 4-fold increase in IgG titer
Clinical specimen is transported deep frozen and on special media containing proteins and antibiotics
Real-Time PCR is used to detect the SARS-CoV-2 in nasopharyngeal swab.
Real-Time PCR is used to quantitative evaluation of HIV genome in patients serum.
Treatment of HIV infections include:
Azidothymidine –nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Saquinavir – protease inhibitor
Zanamivir – CCR5 inhibitor
Nevirapine – nonnucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Enfuvirtide – protease inhibitor
Coagulase-negative staphylococci play an essential role in: Select one:
Prosthetic valve endocarditis
Lobar pneumonia
Rheumatic fever
Meningitis
Gastroenteritis
31. Choose the drug of choice used to treat erysipelas: Select one:
Trimethoprim
Nystatin
Ceftriaxone
Meropenem
Penicillin
Gastrointestinal infections caused by Yersinia enterocolitica may follow the ingestion of: Select one:
Unpasteurized milk products
Fish
Fruits
Crustacean (shellfish)
Eggs
Diagnosis: pulmonary tuberculosis: which of the laboratory assays is most appropriate to confirm this diagnosis? Select one:
Sputum culture
Nasopharyngeal swab
CSF culture
Serology of blood sample
Mycobacterium antigen detection in urine
Choose INCORRECT statement regarding dimorphic fungi: Select one:
Are environmental and endemic pathogens
The yeast phase is found in infected tissue
Are responsible mainly for superficial and localized infections (
Microscopic examination and culturing is used in diagnostic of infections.
Coccidioides immitis is one of its representatives
Quantitative evaluation of the microorganisms plays an essential role in culturing of: Select one:
Stool sample
Urine sample
CSF
Sputum
Blood sample
Which of the following statement/s refer/s to Helicobacter pylori:
Curved Gram-positive rod
Humans are the primary reservoir
Urease breath test is noninvasive diagnostic assay
Gastric adenocarcinoma may follow the infection
Amoxicillin and clarithromycin are the antimicrobial agents used in treatment
Choose INCORRECT statements concerning aflatoxins: Select one:
Are carcinogenic
Are found in peanuts and cereal grains
Liver is its primary target organ
Are the cause of mycotoxicosis
Are produced I.e. by Alcligenes spp
Drug synergism is characteristic of all mentioned below – EXCEPT: Select one:
Cefotaxime and gentamicin – treatment of P. Aeruginosa infections
Amphotericin B and flucytosine – treatment of cryptococcal meningoencephalitis
Ampicillin and gentamicin - treatment of Listeria monocytogenes meningitis
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole -treatment of E. Coli infections
Vancomycin and gentamicin – treatment of enterococcal infections
39. Which of the following virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis triggers the systemic proinflammatory response, particularly, the disseminated disease:
RMP protein
Por protein
LOS
Beta-lactamases
Opa protein
Choose correct statement concerning cholera:
Etiological agent: facultative anaerobic Gram-negative rods.
The exotoxin leading to hypersecretion of water and electrolytes is responsible for clinical manifestation of the disease.
Affects only immunocompromised individuals
Spreads by consumption of contaminated food or water.
Antibiotic therapy plays a minor role, aminoglycosides are mainly
41. Which of the following has the close association with dental caries in children: 1. Eikenella corrodens
Eikenella corrodens
Streptococcus mutans
Pasteurella multocida
Pasteurella multocida
Bacteroides fragilis
Staphylococcus aureus
42. Choose correct statement concerning Peptostreptococcus: Select one:
Is responsible for abscesses connected with sinus tract tracks
Mainly causes monobacterial infections
Penicillin is the drug of choice used to treat the infections
Is responsible for urinary tract infections.
Is an important cause of gas gangrene.
A 24-year-old man with AIDS developed a painful, thick, white exudate on the surface of his tongue and posterior pharynx. Gram stain direct smear revealed a gram-positive organism 2 to 3 times larger than S. aureus. Which organism is most likely responsible for this infection?
Histoplasma capsulatum
Cryptococcus neoformans
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Blastomyces dermatitis
Candida albicans
Which of the following toxins is responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome?
Bacillus cereus enterotoxin
Staphylcoccal enterotoxin
Clostridium difficile cytotoxin
Clostridium perfringens enterotoxin
Escherichia coli verotoxin
Choose INCORRECT statement: Select one:
Mid-stream urine is unsuitable for strict anaerobic cultures
Malassezia furfur causes pityriasis versicolor
Propionibacterium sp. Is the main aerobic representative of skin microbiota
Viridans group streptococci colonize oral cavity.
Clostridium tetani spores are found in environment in most soils
Herpangina:
Is caused by Herpesviridae
Vesicular ulcerated lesions around the soft palate and uvula are the classic clinical findings.
Is caused by DNA viruses
The disease is self-limited
Is caused by several types of Coxsackie B viruses
Choose correct statement/s concerning the nasal carriage of MRSA:
1. Is always treated in children and adults due to the significantly increased risk of infection in these patients.
2. It’s not eradicated in healthy individuals not subjected to invasive procedures.
3. Nasal decolonization is recommended in patients undergoing cardiac surgery.
4. The prevalence of carriers in hospital increases during an epidemic outbreak
5. Intranasal mupirocin is used for nasal carriage decolonization
Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome: HELP***
Is the consequence of the large doses of bacterial LPS accumulated in patients’ blood
Exfoliative toxin - producing cocci are its etiological agents
TSST-1, SpA and SpC toxins are responsible for its clinical manifestation
Fulminant course is most characteristic and requires immediate medical intervention.
Increased risk for the disease is observed for patients with HIV infection, cancer and diabetes mellitus
Teichoic acid is the cell wall component of: Select one:
E. coli
Streptococcus pneumonian
Neisseria meningitidis
Mycoplasma hominis
Candida albicans
Tick-borne diseases include: Select one:
Spring-summer encephalitis, Lyme disease
Pasteurellosis , Legionnaires disease
Tularemia, infectious mononucleosis
Erysipeloid, Q fever
Campylobacteriosis, tularemia
Choose the characteristic of the etiological agent of infection mononucleosis:
Oncogenic DNA virus
Non-oncogenic DNA virus
Non-oncogenic RNA virus
Defective RNA virus
Oncogenic RNA virus
Choose correct statement concerning syphilis:
Is caused by spirochaete (30μm – 60 μm) observed by dark field microscopy
Penicillin is a drug of choice used to treat the infections.
Humans are the only natural host of the bacterium.
Treponema carateum is also responsible for syphilis
Serology is very sensitive in secondary and late stages of the disease.
Choose correct statement concerning viruses: Select one
Can make energy and proteins independently of a host cell.
Enveloped viruses are resistant to detergents and heat.
Are the obligate extracellular parasites.
Naked capsid is non-infective after drying.
The envelope is composed of lipids, proteins and glycoproteins
Choose correct combination of etiological agent and infection: Select one:
Coxiella Burnetii – trachoma
Streptococcus pyogenes – scarlet fever
Propionibacterium acnes – whitlow
Mycoplasma pneumoniae – lobar pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae – influenza
Which of the following binds to C3d complement receptor (CR2/CD21): Select one:
HIV
Poliovirus
Human parvovirus B19
EBV
HHV-1
Anatoxin is used in immunoprohylaxis of infections caused by: Select one:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Clostridium tetani
Vibrio cholerae, Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella Typhi, Vibrio cholerae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Haemophilus influenzae
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
Choose correct combination: Select one:
Facultative anaerobic Gram-positive cocci - Enterococcus
Strict anaerobic Gram-positive spore-forming rods – Actinomyces
Facultative anaerobic Gram-negative rods– Bacteroides
strict anaerobic Gram-negative rods – Chlamydia
Strict aerobic Gram-negative rods – Helicobacter
Treatment management of bacterial otitis media in small children include:
Colistin
Doxycycline
Ciprofloxacin
Amoxicillin
Cloxacillin
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