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Micro exam 2020/21

A detailed and colorful illustration depicting various bacteria, viruses, and fungi in a laboratory setting, showcasing the complexity of microbiology and the importance of understanding infectious diseases.

Microbiology Mastery Quiz

Test your knowledge on the fascinating world of microbiology with our comprehensive quiz! Covering a wide range of topics including antibiotics, fungal infections, and viral diseases, this quiz is designed for aspiring microbiologists and healthcare professionals alike.

Enjoy these features:

30 challenging questions
Immediate feedback on your answers
Track your progress and improvement

60 Questions15 MinutesCreated by AnalyzingCell230

Erythromycin resistance a may stem from: Select one:

PBP alteration

Bacterial DNA gyrase alteration

Drug acetylation

4. AmpC beta-lactamase production

Active efflux

Asymptomatic bacteriuria:

Always requires antimicrobial treatment regardless the host risk factors

It’s significant bacteriuria without clinical symptoms of UTI.

Non-fermentative Gram-negative rods are its main etiological agents

It’s often associated with chronic catheterization

Is always treated in pregnancy

Choose correct combination of fungus and marker detected:

Galactomannan - Candida

Galactomannan - Aspergillus

Capsular polysaccharides - Cryptococcus neoformans

Mannan – Candida

Pseudohyphae – cryptococcus neoformans

Pseudohyphae - C.albicans

Choose correct statement concerning the antiviral therapy: Select one:

Interferons activates the viral protein synthesis in infected host cells

Amantadine is a nucleoside analogue used to treat Influenza A

Acyclovir is active only against HHV-1 and is not used to treat herpetic meningo-encephalitis

Ribavirin is used to treat Lassa fever and RSV infections

Ribavirin is the HIV protease inhibitor

Choose the most common etiological agents of ostitis: Select one:

Treponema pallidum, Staphylococcus hominis

Prevotella melaninogenica, Mycoplasma spp

Haemophilus parainfluenzae, Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Campylobacter jeikeum

Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Pontiac fever treatment management includes

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

Spiramycin

Azithromycin

Levofloxacin

Gentamicin

19-year-old female patient was admitted to a doctor to evaluate the pelvic pain and purulent, yellow-green vaginal discharge. In Gram-stained direct of the discharge the presence of Gram-negative cocci was determined. In accordance with the international recommendations the following antimicrobial agents should be administrated.

Cefoxitin + doxycycline

Cefuroxime + tetracycline

Ceftriaxone + azithromycin

Penicillin G + azithromycin

Metronidazole + tetracycline

8. COVID-19 vaccines (developed so far) are composed of:

Viral capsid

Whole viral genome

MRNA

Adenovirus vector

S-glycoprotein of SARS

Roxithromycin:

Is used to treat Chlamydophila pneumoniae infections

Is bacteriostatic

Due to its spectrum is the first-line drug used to treat UTI

Inhibits the bacterial DNA synthesis

Is active against I.a. gram-positive cocci

Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

Choose strict anaerobic microorganisms most commonly found in large intestine of healthy individual: Select one:

Corynebacterium, Staphylococcus, Candida

Propionibacterium, Streptococcus, Acinetobacter

Eubacterium, Enterococcus, Porphyromonas

Blastocystis, Bacteroides, Trichomonas

Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, Prevotella

Invasive aspergillosis:

Mostly indicates patients with complement deficiencies.

Is associated with neutropenia and impaired phagocytic cells function.

Voriconazole and amphotericin B are used in treatment.

Aspergillus fumigatus is its main etiological agent.

The gastrointestinal tract is the main gate of entry of aspergillus

Respiratory tract is the main ate of entry of aspergillus

12. Which of the following spread via droplet route:

Measles virus

Ebola virus

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Bartoella henselae

Sars-CoV2

Choose infectious agents spread via fecal-oral route:

HBV

Rubella virus

Norovirus

HHV-2

HAV

Echinocandins:

Are active against Cryptococcus neoformans

Inhibition of fungal cell membrane 1,3 – β-glucan synthesis

Binds to ergosterol causing direct oxidative membrane damage

Inhibition of fungal cell wall 1,3 – β-glucan synthesis

Are not active against Candida glabrata and Candida krusei

Hospital acquired pneumonia on ICU is predominantly caused by

Moraxella catarrhalis

Mycobacterium avium

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Acinetobacter Baumanii

The Ebola and Marburg viruses are the members of: Select one:

Togaviridae

Flaviviridae

Bunyaviridae

Filoviridae

Arenaviridae

Choose etiological agents of aseptic (non-purulent) meningitis: Select one:

Borrelia burgdorferi

Haemophilus influenzae

S. pneumoniae

Staphylococcus aureus

E. coli

Choose the most common fungi responsible for superficial skin infections:

Candida, Malassezia furfur, Trichophyton

Zygomycetes

Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans

Anaplasma, Sporothrix schenckii

Pneumocystis jiroveci, Trichosporon

19. Which of the following assays (due to poor sensitivity) are NOT used in diagnostic of infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae:

PCR

Gram-stained direct smear evaluation

Immunoenzymatic assays

Culture on artificial media

Rapid antigen tests

Which of the resistance phenotypes refers to MRSA MLS+? Select one:

Resistant to all penicillin, cephalosporins and vancomycin

Susceptible to penicillin G, aminopenicillins, ureidopenicillins , carbapenems and clindamycin

Resistant to natural penicillin, aminopenicillins; susceptible to IIIrd generation of cephalosporins and macrolides

Resistant to amoxicillin with clavulanic acid, ceftriaxone, imipenem, susceptible to streptogramins B

Resistant to all penicillin, cephalosporins excluding ceftaroline, carbapenems and resistant to macrolides

Choose incorrect statement regarding infections caused by Herpesviridae:

Patients with prodromal symptoms or lesions of genital herpes need to refrain from sexual intercourse until the lesions are completely reepithelialized

Herpetic keratitis is almost always limited to one eye and leads to permanent scarring

HHV-2 is generally transmitted sexually

Herpes zoster is recurrent latent form of herpes labialis

HHV-1 is transmitted in vesicle fluid, saliva and vaginal secretions

HSV-1 is recurrent latent form of herpes labials

Which of the following are the main causes of atypical pneumonia in school-age children: Select one

Adenovirus, Streptococcus pneumoniae

Moraxella catarrhalis, Pneumocystis jiroveci

RSV, Haemophilus influenzae

Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Influenza virus

The diagnosis of vulvovaginal candidiasis includes the following laboratory and clinical findings:

Blastospores and invasive forms of fungus in direct Gram-stained smear

Fishy odor of vaginal discharge

Clue cells presence in direct Gram-stained smear

�Cottage cheese” vaginal discharge

Frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge

Choose correct statement/s concerning whooping cough:

Clindamycin reduces length of the infectious stage

Infection spreads via fecal-oral route

Filamentous hemagglutinin and pertactin are required for binding to the host ciliated cells.

Humans are the exclusive reservoirs of the bacterium

Vaccines contain inactivated pertussis toxin, filamentous hemagglutinin and pertacin

Drug of choice for dog bite prophylaxis include: Select one:

Natural penicillin

Azithromycin

Amoxicillin

Cefalexin

Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid

The properties of alcohols include

Toxicity

Sporicidal activity

Bacterial activity

Activity against prions

Activity against lipid viruses

Choose correct combination of patients and drug of choice recommended to treat bacterial meningitis: Select one:

Postexposure prophylaxis for meningococcal disease – isoniazid

10–18-year-old patients – ceftriaxone and vancomycin

Adults– ampicillin+ metronidazole

1 month – 5-year-old children – ampicillin and gentamicin

Newborns– ampicillin and cefuroxime

Choose INCORRECT statement regarding the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections: Select one:

Seroconversion is defined as a 2-fold increase in IgG titer

RSV induces the syncytia formation in infected host

Seroconversion is defined as a 4-fold increase in IgG titer

Clinical specimen is transported deep frozen and on special media containing proteins and antibiotics

Real-Time PCR is used to detect the SARS-CoV-2 in nasopharyngeal swab.

Real-Time PCR is used to quantitative evaluation of HIV genome in patients serum.

Treatment of HIV infections include:

Azidothymidine –nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Saquinavir – protease inhibitor

Zanamivir – CCR5 inhibitor

Nevirapine – nonnucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Enfuvirtide – protease inhibitor

Coagulase-negative staphylococci play an essential role in: Select one:

Prosthetic valve endocarditis

Lobar pneumonia

Rheumatic fever

Meningitis

Gastroenteritis

31. Choose the drug of choice used to treat erysipelas: Select one:

Trimethoprim

Nystatin

Ceftriaxone

Meropenem

Penicillin

Gastrointestinal infections caused by Yersinia enterocolitica may follow the ingestion of: Select one:

Unpasteurized milk products

Fish

Fruits

Crustacean (shellfish)

Eggs

Diagnosis: pulmonary tuberculosis: which of the laboratory assays is most appropriate to confirm this diagnosis? Select one:

Sputum culture

Nasopharyngeal swab

CSF culture

Serology of blood sample

Mycobacterium antigen detection in urine

Choose INCORRECT statement regarding dimorphic fungi: Select one:

Are environmental and endemic pathogens

The yeast phase is found in infected tissue

Are responsible mainly for superficial and localized infections (

Microscopic examination and culturing is used in diagnostic of infections.

Coccidioides immitis is one of its representatives

Quantitative evaluation of the microorganisms plays an essential role in culturing of: Select one:

Stool sample

Urine sample

CSF

Sputum

Blood sample

Which of the following statement/s refer/s to Helicobacter pylori:

Curved Gram-positive rod

Humans are the primary reservoir

Urease breath test is noninvasive diagnostic assay

Gastric adenocarcinoma may follow the infection

Amoxicillin and clarithromycin are the antimicrobial agents used in treatment

Choose INCORRECT statements concerning aflatoxins: Select one:

Are carcinogenic

Are found in peanuts and cereal grains

Liver is its primary target organ

Are the cause of mycotoxicosis

Are produced I.e. by Alcligenes spp

Drug synergism is characteristic of all mentioned below – EXCEPT: Select one:

Cefotaxime and gentamicin – treatment of P. Aeruginosa infections

Amphotericin B and flucytosine – treatment of cryptococcal meningoencephalitis

Ampicillin and gentamicin - treatment of Listeria monocytogenes meningitis

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole -treatment of E. Coli infections

Vancomycin and gentamicin – treatment of enterococcal infections

39. Which of the following virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis triggers the systemic proinflammatory response, particularly, the disseminated disease:

RMP protein

Por protein

LOS

Beta-lactamases

Opa protein

Choose correct statement concerning cholera:

Etiological agent: facultative anaerobic Gram-negative rods.

The exotoxin leading to hypersecretion of water and electrolytes is responsible for clinical manifestation of the disease.

Affects only immunocompromised individuals

Spreads by consumption of contaminated food or water.

Antibiotic therapy plays a minor role, aminoglycosides are mainly

41. Which of the following has the close association with dental caries in children: 1. Eikenella corrodens

Eikenella corrodens

Streptococcus mutans

Pasteurella multocida

Bacteroides fragilis

Staphylococcus aureus

42. Choose correct statement concerning Peptostreptococcus: Select one:

Is responsible for abscesses connected with sinus tract tracks

Mainly causes monobacterial infections

Penicillin is the drug of choice used to treat the infections

Is responsible for urinary tract infections.

Is an important cause of gas gangrene.

A 24-year-old man with AIDS developed a painful, thick, white exudate on the surface of his tongue and posterior pharynx. Gram stain direct smear revealed a gram-positive organism 2 to 3 times larger than S. aureus. Which organism is most likely responsible for this infection?

Histoplasma capsulatum

Cryptococcus neoformans

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Blastomyces dermatitis

Candida albicans

Which of the following toxins is responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome?

Bacillus cereus enterotoxin

Staphylcoccal enterotoxin

Clostridium difficile cytotoxin

Clostridium perfringens enterotoxin

Escherichia coli verotoxin

Choose INCORRECT statement: Select one:

Mid-stream urine is unsuitable for strict anaerobic cultures

Malassezia furfur causes pityriasis versicolor

Propionibacterium sp. Is the main aerobic representative of skin microbiota

Viridans group streptococci colonize oral cavity.

Clostridium tetani spores are found in environment in most soils

Herpangina:

Is caused by Herpesviridae

Vesicular ulcerated lesions around the soft palate and uvula are the classic clinical findings.

Is caused by DNA viruses

The disease is self-limited

Is caused by several types of Coxsackie B viruses

Choose correct statement/s concerning the nasal carriage of MRSA:

1. Is always treated in children and adults due to the significantly increased risk of infection in these patients.

2. It’s not eradicated in healthy individuals not subjected to invasive procedures.

3. Nasal decolonization is recommended in patients undergoing cardiac surgery.

4. The prevalence of carriers in hospital increases during an epidemic outbreak

5. Intranasal mupirocin is used for nasal carriage decolonization

Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome: HELP***

Is the consequence of the large doses of bacterial LPS accumulated in patients’ blood

Exfoliative toxin - producing cocci are its etiological agents

TSST-1, SpA and SpC toxins are responsible for its clinical manifestation

Fulminant course is most characteristic and requires immediate medical intervention.

Increased risk for the disease is observed for patients with HIV infection, cancer and diabetes mellitus

Teichoic acid is the cell wall component of: Select one:

E. coli

Streptococcus pneumonian

Neisseria meningitidis

Mycoplasma hominis

Candida albicans

Tick-borne diseases include: Select one:

Spring-summer encephalitis, Lyme disease

Pasteurellosis , Legionnaires disease

Tularemia, infectious mononucleosis

Erysipeloid, Q fever

Campylobacteriosis, tularemia

Choose the characteristic of the etiological agent of infection mononucleosis:

Oncogenic DNA virus

Non-oncogenic DNA virus

Non-oncogenic RNA virus

Defective RNA virus

Oncogenic RNA virus

Choose correct statement concerning syphilis:

Is caused by spirochaete (30μm – 60 μm) observed by dark field microscopy

Penicillin is a drug of choice used to treat the infections.

Humans are the only natural host of the bacterium.

Treponema carateum is also responsible for syphilis

Serology is very sensitive in secondary and late stages of the disease.

Choose correct statement concerning viruses: Select one

Can make energy and proteins independently of a host cell.

Enveloped viruses are resistant to detergents and heat.

Are the obligate extracellular parasites.

Naked capsid is non-infective after drying.

The envelope is composed of lipids, proteins and glycoproteins

Choose correct combination of etiological agent and infection: Select one:

Coxiella Burnetii – trachoma

Streptococcus pyogenes – scarlet fever

Propionibacterium acnes – whitlow

Mycoplasma pneumoniae – lobar pneumonia

Haemophilus influenzae – influenza

Which of the following binds to C3d complement receptor (CR2/CD21): Select one:

HIV

Poliovirus

Human parvovirus B19

EBV

HHV-1

Anatoxin is used in immunoprohylaxis of infections caused by: Select one:

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Clostridium tetani

Vibrio cholerae, Neisseria meningitidis

Salmonella Typhi, Vibrio cholerae

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Haemophilus influenzae

Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Streptococcus pneumoniae

Choose correct combination: Select one:

Facultative anaerobic Gram-positive cocci - Enterococcus

Strict anaerobic Gram-positive spore-forming rods – Actinomyces

Facultative anaerobic Gram-negative rods– Bacteroides

strict anaerobic Gram-negative rods – Chlamydia

Strict aerobic Gram-negative rods – Helicobacter

Treatment management of bacterial otitis media in small children include:

Colistin

Doxycycline

Ciprofloxacin

Amoxicillin

Cloxacillin

Fungal indicator diseases of AIDS include: Select one:

Vaginal candidiasis

Mycobacterioses

Extrapulmonaury cryptococcus

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Cytomegalovirus disease

Which of the following virulence factors is associated with pyelonephritis and renal calculi („kidney stone”) formation? Select one:

Presence of specific pili that bind to host cell surfaces

Resistance to serum killing

Urease production

Resistant to antibiotic killing

Endotoxin production

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