Micro eksamen 2019 First try
Microbiology Challenge 2019
Test your knowledge in microbiology with our comprehensive quiz featuring 60 questions that cover a range of topics from bacterial infections to antifungal agents. This is a great opportunity for students, teachers, and anyone passionate about microbiology to assess their understanding.
- 60 thought-provoking questions
- Multiple-choice format for easy answering
- Instant feedback on your performance
Which of the following is/are responsible for bacterial vaginosis
Lactobacillus
Mobiluncus
Eubacterium
Which of the following antibacterial agents is appropriate for treatment of otitis media in children (Bring into consideration the most probable etiological agent):
Ciprofloxacin
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin
Cloxacillin
Clindamycin
Efflux pump plays an essential role in emergence of bacterial resistance to:
Quinolones and macrolides
Cephalosporins
Aminoglycosides and rifampin
Glycopeptides
Sulfonamides
Resistance to antibacterial agents due to decreased membrane permeability is determined by:
Peptidoglycan
Lipopolysaccharide
Fimbriae
Porin channels
Beta-lactamases
HIV infection routine confirmation test includes:
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Real time PCR
CD4:CD8 T-cell ratio
Isolation of virus from blood sample
Temperature of growth 37 degrees, presence of melanin and polysaccharide capsule- those features most probably indicate:
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Cryptococcus neoformans
Candida glabrata
Aspergillus fumigatus
Histoplasma capsulatum
Choose correct sentence/s:
Invasive aspergillosis is strongly associated with lymphopenia and complement deficiencies
Protein secretion and ability to rapidly switch form one morphotype to another (phenotypic switching) are the virulence factors of candida spp.
Histoplasma is responsible only for secondary infections
Blastomyces infections occurs following the inhalation of endospores
Which of the resistance phenotypes refers to S. aureus MRSA and MLSb – positive:
Cloxacillin – susceptible, clarithromycin – resistant
Beta-lactam antibiotics (excluding ceftaroline) and macrolides – resistant
Cloxacillin – resistant, clindamycin – susceptible
Cloxacillin – susceptible , rifampin – resistant
All beta-lactam antibiotics and macrolides susceptible
Choose correct combination of bacterium and it’s intrinsic resistance to antibacterial agents:
Penicillin G – streptococcus pyogenes
Fluconazole – Candida glabrata
Metronidazole – bacteroides fragilis
Ceftriaxone – Neisseria meningitis
Detection of mannan antigen in patient’s serum gives rise to the use of:
Vancomycin
Fluconazole
Nystatin
Imipenem
None of the above
Choose correct combination of antifungal agents and it’s mode of action:
Flucytosine – inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis
Itraconazole – inhibition of fungal cell wall glucan synthesis
Amphotericin B – cell wall damage
Caspofungin – inhibition of fungal cell membrane glucan synthesis
All mentioned are correct
Which of the following is/are not the cause of invasive fungal infection:
Malassezia furfur
Epidermophyton floccosum
Candida krusei
Cryptococcus neoformans
Choose incorrect statement/s:
High-risk groups for developing mold infections include individuals undergoing bone marrow transplantation
Voriconazole should not be used in pulmonary aspergillosis treatment
Rhizopus and mucor are known to cause zygomycosis in immunocompromised patients
Amphotericin B shows fungicidal activity against most of fungal infectious agents
Hospital acquired surgical site infections are most commonly caused by:
MRSA
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
MSSA
Choose correct statement/s regarding lyme disease
Is a spirochetal infection
Disease symptoms are closely associated with cytotoxin production
Iis tick-borne disease
Treatment is based on penicillins administered orally, on ceftriaxone and tetracycline
Choose correct combination concerning staphylococcus aureus toxins:
Hemolysins – skin necrosis, lysis of red blood cells
Panton-Valentine leukocidin – exotoxin, lysis of white blood cells
Exfoliative toxins – SSSS
Antibiotic synergism is characteristic for:
Amphotericin B and 5-fluorocytosine (flucytosine) for cryptococcal meningitis treatment
Cefuroxime and gentamicin for treatment of pseudomonas aeruginosa infections
Metronidazole and erythromycin for treatment of bacterial meningitis
Vancomycin and teicoplanin for treatment of enterococcus infection
Trimethoprim and vancomycin for treatment of E. Coli infection
Choose the most common cause of ostitis
Treponema pallidum
Staphylococcus aureus
Campylobacter jeikeium
Prevotella melaninogenica
Streptococcus viridans group
Choose cell receptor for EBV:
C3d receptor of B-cells
CD4 receptor of T-cells
Endothelial cells
Erythroblast P antigen
Sialic acid of respiratory epithelium
Which of the following assays is/are used to detect the hypervirulent strains responsible for pseudomembranous colitis
Stool – gram staining
Serum – detection of A and B toxins
Stool – Aerobic cultures
Stool - real-time PCR
All mentioned
Choose incorrect statement/s regarding aflatoxins:
Are produced I.a. By alcaligenes spp.
Are carcinogenic
Liver is it’s primary target organ
Are found in contaminated peanuts and cereal grains
All are incorrect
Gram-positive, non-spore forming rods include:
Listeria monocytogenes
Bacteroides fragilis
Bacillus anthracis
Haemophilus influenzae
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Nowadays, penicillin is no more recommended as a first line drug to treat gonorrhea – indicate the cause
High percentage of hypersensitive to penicillin among infected individuals
Production of plasmid mediated beta-lactamases
Penicillin target site alteration in bacterial cell
Choose correct statement/s:
Meningococcal IgA protease activates Fc and Fab regions of immunoglobulin.
A, B, C, y, and W-135 serotypes of neisseria meningitidis are responsible for majority of meningococcal infections
Opa protein and leukocidin are the main virulence factors of enterococcus spp
Lipoarabinomannan is the main cell wall component of candida spp
Choose correct combination/s – bacterium
Eikenella corrodens – Pelvic inflammatory disease
Neisseria gonorrhoeae – purulent conjunctivitis
Kingella kingae – meningitis
Bacillus cereus – pulmonary anthrax
All mentioned are correct
Humans are the only known reservoirs of this bacterium/a (asymptomatic carries or actually infected individuals):
Staphylococcus aureus
Salmonella enteritidis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Pasteurella multocida
Choose correct combination/s of bacterial toxin and it’s activity:
Diphtheria toxin – protein synthesis inhibition
Cholera toxin – hypersecretion of water and electrolytes by entero …
Pertussis toxin – decreased cAMP levels in host cell
Tetanospasmin – increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
Which of the following indicate/s mycobacterium tuberculosis:
Obligatory intracellular pathogen
Susceptible to most of known antibiotics and detergents
Acid fast bacterium
Lipid rich cell wall
Slow growth in vitro
Choose correct statement/s concerning mycobacterium
Immunoprophylaxis of tuberculosis in endemic countries includes vaccination with vaccine composed of inactivated (killed) BCG strains
Mycobacterium tuberculosis prevents fusion of the phagosome with lysosomes
M. Leprae grows well on artificial media
Multiple drug regimens and short term treatment of tuberculosis are required to prevent development of drug resistant mycobacterium tuberculosis strains
Endotoxin
Is a virulence factor shared by either gram-positive and gram-negative rods
Its biological activity is determined mainly by lipid A
Activates I.a. The alternative pathway of complement and stimulates cytokines releasing
Choose incorrect combinations of enteropathogenic E. Coli serotype and clinical disease:
EHEC- hemorrhagic colitis
EPEC – traveler’s diarrhea
EIEC – colitis
ETEC – secretory diarrhea
EAEC – secretory diarrhea in infants
Bacterial zoonoses are caused by:
Francisella tularensis
Borrelia burgdorferi
Leptospira interrogans
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
Choose incorrect statement concerning diagnostics and treatment of helicobacter pylori infections:
Urease breath test is a noninvasive test
Culture of gastric biopsies requires incubation in microaerophilic condition
Macrolides are also the treatment option
Presence of IgA and IgG in patients serum is determined in exacerbation of chronic gastritis
H. Pylori stool antigen test is sensitive and specific
A mother with a 4-year old son was admitted to hospital with diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Both demonstrated moderate grade fever and in boy the presence of blood in stool was determined. Symptoms developed 18 hours after ingestion of a meal composed of chicken, lettuce, maize, bread and apple juice. Which of the bacterium is the most probable cause of described infection:
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacillus cereus
Campylobacter jejuni
Vibrio cholera
Klebsiella pneumonia
Human immunoglobulin is administrated as a postexposure prophylaxis in patients recently exposed to infectious agents responsible for:
Diphtheria
Rabies
Streptococcal necrotizing fascitits
Toxic shock syndrome
Typhoid fever
Choose correct statement/s concerning aseptic (non-purulent) meningitis:
Most of laboratory cultures of cerebrospinal fluid are negative
May be caused by leptospira and treponema
Is the type of meningitis caused also by viruses e.g. HSV
CSF appearance is colorless and clear
Choose correct combination of disease and it’s recommended empiric therapy:
Erysipelas – levofloxacin
Non-gonococcal urethritis – nystatin
Antibiotic associated diarrhea (colitis) – clindamycin
Peptic ulcer disease – amoxicillin
Infectious mononucleosis – amantadine
Choose false statement concerning measles
Is caused by coronaviridae
Is highly contagious and spreads via droplet route
SSPE as a sequel of measles is rare
Acquired immunity is lifelong
Immunoprophylaxis includes live, attenuated vaccine
Choose correct statement/s concerning influenza
Minor antigenic changes, called antigenic drift are associated with mutation of HA and NA
Antigenic shift is a reassortment between A, B and C types of influenza viruses
H1N1 virus subtype caused highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAIV)
Antigenic drifts generated pandemics
Fugal indicators disease/s of AIDS includes
Cytomegaly
Mycobacteriosis
Cryptococcosis
Cryptosporidiosis
Inhibition of peptide bond formation by binding with 50S ribosomal subunit is mode of action of:
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin
Imipenem
Rifampin
Tetracycline
Which of the following are most frequently found on healthy human skin:
Bacteroides fragilis, corynebacterium spp., staphylococcus aureus
Coagulase negative staphylococcus, corynebacterium sp., propionbacterium acnes
Prevotella bivia, staphylococcus epidermidis, candida albicans
Staphylococcus aureus, eubacterium sp., candida glabrata
Staphylococcus epidermidis, E.coli, candida albicans
Which of the following antibacterial agents are general not used in treatment of infections caused by non-fermentative rods:
Cefuroxime, amoxicillin
Cefepime, meropenem
Amikacin, piperacillin
Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
Gentamicin, ceftazidime
Chemoprophylaxis and immunoprophylaxis of neisseria meningitidis infection include administration of:
Antitoxins
Mono and polyvalent vaccine
Ceftriaxone
**Choose correct statement/s concerning pneumonia
Atypical caused by mycoplasma pneumonia indicates mostly school-age children and are more common during the fall
Unilobar, most commonly caused by staphylococcus aureus indicates individuals with humoral immune deficiencies
Interstitial viral pneumonitis in adults mostly caused by orthomyxoviridae, is more common during winter
KPC – positive strains
Are resistant to carbapenems
Are gram-negative rods producing C class of Carbapenemase
Are gram-negative rods producing A class of Carbapenemase
Prions
Do not cause cytopathic effect in infected cells
Show lack of antigenicity
Leads to increased interferon production
Are inactivated at 80 degrees
*Which specimen is the most appropriate for diagnostic the indicated infection:
Cystitis – urine sample from urinary catheters
Conjunctivitis – conjunctival scrapings/swab
Ringworm – blood
Gastritis – stool sample for bacterial cultures
Enterocolitis – gastric biopsies
Choose incorrect statement:
Upper respiratory tract commensal flora include streptococcus viridans group
Streptococcus pyogenes may be the cause of necrotising fasciitis
Nocardia asteroids is the common cause of opportunistic infecions
Acinetobacter baumannii is mainly the cause of endogenic infections I.a. post-operative wound infections
Kingella kingae is the cause of endocarditis
Choose correct therapeutic option in recognition of:
Purulent tonsillitis and pharyngitis – tetracycline
Legionnaires disease – azithromycin
Psittacosis – cefotaxime
Lyme disease – ciprofloxacin
Syphilis – amikacin
Ingestion of seafood and crustacea may be related with infection/intoxication caused by:
Salmonella
Yersinia enterocolitica
Shigella
Vibrio vulnificus
All mentioned
Choose correct combination of virus and active antiviral agent
CMV – amantadine
HIV – nevirapine
HSV – interferon alpha
Influenza virus – lamivudine
Measles virus – oseltamivir
Which of the following indicate/s the recent primary viral infection
Presence of viral specific IgM antibodies
Presence of viral specific IgG antibodies
Twofold increase in antibody titer within 4 weeks
30-year old man was admitted to a dermatologist to evaluate a painless lesion on penile shaft. Skin lesion aroused a suspicion of STI. Which of the following tests should be approached to confirm the etiology of infections
Lesions aspirate culture on artificial mediated
Dark field examination of exudate from skin lesion
FTA-ABS as a screening test
VDRL as a screening test
Gram stained direct smear evaluation
Quantitative determination of microorganism plays an essential role in changing of:
Blood
CSF
Sputum
Urine
Stool
Choose correct statement:
Bacteroides fragilis most frequently colonises nasopharynx
Pulmonary aspirates tissue biopsies and mid-stream urine are appropriate for diagnosis infections caused by strict anaerobic bacteria
Foul-smelling, slow healing, wounds with necrosis, tissue gas accumulation and drainage of pus resembling sulfur granules are the clinical features of infections caused by strict anaerobic bacteria
Peptostreptococcus is intrinsically resistant to penicillin
Actinomyces is gram-negative, non-spore forming bacterium
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