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Micro eksamen 2019 First try

A highly detailed illustration of various microorganisms, including bacteria and fungi, set against a background of a laboratory environment, showcasing test tubes and petri dishes to emphasize microbiology education.

Microbiology Challenge 2019

Test your knowledge in microbiology with our comprehensive quiz featuring 60 questions that cover a range of topics from bacterial infections to antifungal agents. This is a great opportunity for students, teachers, and anyone passionate about microbiology to assess their understanding.

60 thought-provoking questions
Multiple-choice format for easy answering
Instant feedback on your performance

60 Questions15 MinutesCreated by LearningPathway137

Which of the following is/are responsible for bacterial vaginosis

Lactobacillus

Mobiluncus

Eubacterium

Which of the following antibacterial agents is appropriate for treatment of otitis media in children (Bring into consideration the most probable etiological agent):

Ciprofloxacin

Clarithromycin

Amoxicillin

Cloxacillin

Clindamycin

Efflux pump plays an essential role in emergence of bacterial resistance to:

Quinolones and macrolides

Cephalosporins

Aminoglycosides and rifampin

Glycopeptides

Sulfonamides

Resistance to antibacterial agents due to decreased membrane permeability is determined by:

Peptidoglycan

Lipopolysaccharide

Fimbriae

Porin channels

Beta-lactamases

HIV infection routine confirmation test includes:

Western blot

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Real time PCR

CD4:CD8 T-cell ratio

Isolation of virus from blood sample

Dimorphic fungi do not include

Absidia

Histoplasma

Blastomyces

Coccidioides

Paracoccidioides

Temperature of growth 37 degrees, presence of melanin and polysaccharide capsule- those features most probably indicate:

Pneumocystis jiroveci

Cryptococcus neoformans

Candida glabrata

Aspergillus fumigatus

Histoplasma capsulatum

Choose correct sentence/s:

Invasive aspergillosis is strongly associated with lymphopenia and complement deficiencies

Protein secretion and ability to rapidly switch form one morphotype to another (phenotypic switching) are the virulence factors of candida spp.

Histoplasma is responsible only for secondary infections

Blastomyces infections occurs following the inhalation of endospores

Which of the resistance phenotypes refers to S. aureus MRSA and MLSb – positive:

Cloxacillin – susceptible, clarithromycin – resistant

Beta-lactam antibiotics (excluding ceftaroline) and macrolides – resistant

Cloxacillin – resistant, clindamycin – susceptible

Cloxacillin – susceptible , rifampin – resistant

All beta-lactam antibiotics and macrolides susceptible

Choose correct combination of bacterium and it’s intrinsic resistance to antibacterial agents:

Penicillin G – streptococcus pyogenes

Fluconazole – Candida glabrata

Metronidazole – bacteroides fragilis

Ceftriaxone – Neisseria meningitis

Detection of mannan antigen in patient’s serum gives rise to the use of:

Vancomycin

Fluconazole

Nystatin

Imipenem

None of the above

Choose correct combination of antifungal agents and it’s mode of action:

Flucytosine – inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis

Itraconazole – inhibition of fungal cell wall glucan synthesis

Amphotericin B – cell wall damage

Caspofungin – inhibition of fungal cell membrane glucan synthesis

All mentioned are correct

Which of the following is/are not the cause of invasive fungal infection:

Malassezia furfur

Epidermophyton floccosum

Candida krusei

Cryptococcus neoformans

Choose incorrect statement/s:

High-risk groups for developing mold infections include individuals undergoing bone marrow transplantation

Voriconazole should not be used in pulmonary aspergillosis treatment

Rhizopus and mucor are known to cause zygomycosis in immunocompromised patients

Amphotericin B shows fungicidal activity against most of fungal infectious agents

Choose broad spectrum antibacterial agents:

Penicillin G

Colistin

Teicoplanin

Ertapenem

Aztreonam

Hospital acquired surgical site infections are most commonly caused by:

MRSA

E. coli

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

MSSA

Choose correct statement/s regarding lyme disease

Is a spirochetal infection

Disease symptoms are closely associated with cytotoxin production

Iis tick-borne disease

Treatment is based on penicillins administered orally, on ceftriaxone and tetracycline

Choose correct combination concerning staphylococcus aureus toxins:

Hemolysins – skin necrosis, lysis of red blood cells

Panton-Valentine leukocidin – exotoxin, lysis of white blood cells

Exfoliative toxins – SSSS

Antibiotic synergism is characteristic for:

Amphotericin B and 5-fluorocytosine (flucytosine) for cryptococcal meningitis treatment

Cefuroxime and gentamicin for treatment of pseudomonas aeruginosa infections

Metronidazole and erythromycin for treatment of bacterial meningitis

Vancomycin and teicoplanin for treatment of enterococcus infection

Trimethoprim and vancomycin for treatment of E. Coli infection

Choose the most common cause of ostitis

Treponema pallidum

Staphylococcus aureus

Campylobacter jeikeium

Prevotella melaninogenica

Streptococcus viridans group

Choose cell receptor for EBV:

C3d receptor of B-cells

CD4 receptor of T-cells

Endothelial cells

Erythroblast P antigen

Sialic acid of respiratory epithelium

Which of the following assays is/are used to detect the hypervirulent strains responsible for pseudomembranous colitis

Stool – gram staining

Serum – detection of A and B toxins

Stool – Aerobic cultures

Stool - real-time PCR

All mentioned

Choose incorrect statement/s regarding aflatoxins:

Are produced I.a. By alcaligenes spp.

Are carcinogenic

Liver is it’s primary target organ

Are found in contaminated peanuts and cereal grains

All are incorrect

Gram-positive, non-spore forming rods include:

Listeria monocytogenes

Bacteroides fragilis

Bacillus anthracis

Haemophilus influenzae

Porphyromonas gingivalis

Nowadays, penicillin is no more recommended as a first line drug to treat gonorrhea – indicate the cause

High percentage of hypersensitive to penicillin among infected individuals

Production of plasmid mediated beta-lactamases

Penicillin target site alteration in bacterial cell

Choose correct statement/s:

Meningococcal IgA protease activates Fc and Fab regions of immunoglobulin.

A, B, C, y, and W-135 serotypes of neisseria meningitidis are responsible for majority of meningococcal infections

Opa protein and leukocidin are the main virulence factors of enterococcus spp

Lipoarabinomannan is the main cell wall component of candida spp

Choose correct combination/s – bacterium

Eikenella corrodens – Pelvic inflammatory disease

Neisseria gonorrhoeae – purulent conjunctivitis

Kingella kingae – meningitis

Bacillus cereus – pulmonary anthrax

All mentioned are correct

Humans are the only known reservoirs of this bacterium/a (asymptomatic carries or actually infected individuals):

Staphylococcus aureus

Salmonella enteritidis

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Pasteurella multocida

Choose correct combination/s of bacterial toxin and it’s activity:

Diphtheria toxin – protein synthesis inhibition

Cholera toxin – hypersecretion of water and electrolytes by entero …

Pertussis toxin – decreased cAMP levels in host cell

Tetanospasmin – increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters

Which of the following indicate/s mycobacterium tuberculosis:

Obligatory intracellular pathogen

Susceptible to most of known antibiotics and detergents

Acid fast bacterium

Lipid rich cell wall

Slow growth in vitro

Choose correct statement/s concerning mycobacterium

Immunoprophylaxis of tuberculosis in endemic countries includes vaccination with vaccine composed of inactivated (killed) BCG strains

Mycobacterium tuberculosis prevents fusion of the phagosome with lysosomes

M. Leprae grows well on artificial media

Multiple drug regimens and short term treatment of tuberculosis are required to prevent development of drug resistant mycobacterium tuberculosis strains

Endotoxin

Is a virulence factor shared by either gram-positive and gram-negative rods

Its biological activity is determined mainly by lipid A

Activates I.a. The alternative pathway of complement and stimulates cytokines releasing

Choose incorrect combinations of enteropathogenic E. Coli serotype and clinical disease:

EHEC- hemorrhagic colitis

EPEC – traveler’s diarrhea

EIEC – colitis

ETEC – secretory diarrhea

EAEC – secretory diarrhea in infants

Bacterial zoonoses are caused by:

Francisella tularensis

Borrelia burgdorferi

Leptospira interrogans

Enterohemorrhagic E.coli

Choose incorrect statement concerning diagnostics and treatment of helicobacter pylori infections:

Urease breath test is a noninvasive test

Culture of gastric biopsies requires incubation in microaerophilic condition

Macrolides are also the treatment option

Presence of IgA and IgG in patients serum is determined in exacerbation of chronic gastritis

H. Pylori stool antigen test is sensitive and specific

A mother with a 4-year old son was admitted to hospital with diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Both demonstrated moderate grade fever and in boy the presence of blood in stool was determined. Symptoms developed 18 hours after ingestion of a meal composed of chicken, lettuce, maize, bread and apple juice. Which of the bacterium is the most probable cause of described infection:

Staphylococcus aureus

Bacillus cereus

Campylobacter jejuni

Vibrio cholera

Klebsiella pneumonia

Human immunoglobulin is administrated as a postexposure prophylaxis in patients recently exposed to infectious agents responsible for:

Diphtheria

Rabies

Streptococcal necrotizing fascitits

Toxic shock syndrome

Typhoid fever

Choose correct statement/s concerning aseptic (non-purulent) meningitis:

Most of laboratory cultures of cerebrospinal fluid are negative

May be caused by leptospira and treponema

Is the type of meningitis caused also by viruses e.g. HSV

CSF appearance is colorless and clear

Choose correct combination of disease and it’s recommended empiric therapy:

Erysipelas – levofloxacin

Non-gonococcal urethritis – nystatin

Antibiotic associated diarrhea (colitis) – clindamycin

Peptic ulcer disease – amoxicillin

Infectious mononucleosis – amantadine

Choose false statement concerning measles

Is caused by coronaviridae

Is highly contagious and spreads via droplet route

SSPE as a sequel of measles is rare

Acquired immunity is lifelong

Immunoprophylaxis includes live, attenuated vaccine

Choose correct statement/s concerning influenza

Minor antigenic changes, called antigenic drift are associated with mutation of HA and NA

Antigenic shift is a reassortment between A, B and C types of influenza viruses

H1N1 virus subtype caused highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAIV)

Antigenic drifts generated pandemics

Fugal indicators disease/s of AIDS includes

Cytomegaly

Mycobacteriosis

Cryptococcosis

Cryptosporidiosis

RNA oncoviruses include:

CMV

HTLV-1

Rubella

Mumps

EBV

Inhibition of peptide bond formation by binding with 50S ribosomal subunit is mode of action of:

Ciprofloxacin

Erythromycin

Imipenem

Rifampin

Tetracycline

Antiseptics do not include:

Iodophores

Triclosan

Formaldehyde

Alcoholes

Chlorhexidine

Which of the following are most frequently found on healthy human skin:

Bacteroides fragilis, corynebacterium spp., staphylococcus aureus

Coagulase negative staphylococcus, corynebacterium sp., propionbacterium acnes

Prevotella bivia, staphylococcus epidermidis, candida albicans

Staphylococcus aureus, eubacterium sp., candida glabrata

Staphylococcus epidermidis, E.coli, candida albicans

Which of the following antibacterial agents are general not used in treatment of infections caused by non-fermentative rods:

Cefuroxime, amoxicillin

Cefepime, meropenem

Amikacin, piperacillin

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

Gentamicin, ceftazidime

Chemoprophylaxis and immunoprophylaxis of neisseria meningitidis infection include administration of:

Antitoxins

Mono and polyvalent vaccine

Ceftriaxone

**Choose correct statement/s concerning pneumonia

Atypical caused by mycoplasma pneumonia indicates mostly school-age children and are more common during the fall

Unilobar, most commonly caused by staphylococcus aureus indicates individuals with humoral immune deficiencies

Interstitial viral pneumonitis in adults mostly caused by orthomyxoviridae, is more common during winter

KPC – positive strains

Are resistant to carbapenems

Are gram-negative rods producing C class of Carbapenemase

Are gram-negative rods producing A class of Carbapenemase

Prions

Do not cause cytopathic effect in infected cells

Show lack of antigenicity

Leads to increased interferon production

Are inactivated at 80 degrees

*Which specimen is the most appropriate for diagnostic the indicated infection:

Cystitis – urine sample from urinary catheters

Conjunctivitis – conjunctival scrapings/swab

Ringworm – blood

Gastritis – stool sample for bacterial cultures

Enterocolitis – gastric biopsies

Choose incorrect statement:

Upper respiratory tract commensal flora include streptococcus viridans group

Streptococcus pyogenes may be the cause of necrotising fasciitis

Nocardia asteroids is the common cause of opportunistic infecions

Acinetobacter baumannii is mainly the cause of endogenic infections I.a. post-operative wound infections

Kingella kingae is the cause of endocarditis

Choose correct therapeutic option in recognition of:

Purulent tonsillitis and pharyngitis – tetracycline

Legionnaires disease – azithromycin

Psittacosis – cefotaxime

Lyme disease – ciprofloxacin

Syphilis – amikacin

Ingestion of seafood and crustacea may be related with infection/intoxication caused by:

Salmonella

Yersinia enterocolitica

Shigella

Vibrio vulnificus

All mentioned

Choose correct combination of virus and active antiviral agent

CMV – amantadine

HIV – nevirapine

HSV – interferon alpha

Influenza virus – lamivudine

Measles virus – oseltamivir

Which of the following indicate/s the recent primary viral infection

Presence of viral specific IgM antibodies

Presence of viral specific IgG antibodies

Twofold increase in antibody titer within 4 weeks

30-year old man was admitted to a dermatologist to evaluate a painless lesion on penile shaft. Skin lesion aroused a suspicion of STI. Which of the following tests should be approached to confirm the etiology of infections

Lesions aspirate culture on artificial mediated

Dark field examination of exudate from skin lesion

FTA-ABS as a screening test

VDRL as a screening test

Gram stained direct smear evaluation

Quantitative determination of microorganism plays an essential role in changing of:

Blood

CSF

Sputum

Urine

Stool

Choose correct statement:

Bacteroides fragilis most frequently colonises nasopharynx

Pulmonary aspirates tissue biopsies and mid-stream urine are appropriate for diagnosis infections caused by strict anaerobic bacteria

Foul-smelling, slow healing, wounds with necrosis, tissue gas accumulation and drainage of pus resembling sulfur granules are the clinical features of infections caused by strict anaerobic bacteria

Peptostreptococcus is intrinsically resistant to penicillin

Actinomyces is gram-negative, non-spore forming bacterium

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