(EXAM) DES 2016-2017 : 2040-2299 (Rabid Wolverine) 2

25) A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after being stabbed by her boyfriend. The examining physician notes a 1.5 cm puncture wound lateral to her sternum. She has a blood pressure of 70/min palpable, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

26) A 60-kg, 53-year-old man with no significant medical problems undergoes lysis of adhesions for a small-bowel obstruction. Postoperatively, he has high nasogastric output and low urine output. What is the most appropriate management of his fluids?

27) Four days after surgical evacuation of an acute subdural hematoma, a 44-year-old man becomes mildly lethargic and develops asterixis. He has received 2400 mL of 5% dextrose in water intravenously each day since surgery, and he appears well hydrated. Pertinent laboratory values are as follows:Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 118, K+ 3.4, Cl− 82, HCO3− 24Serum osmolality: 242 mOsm/LUrine sodium: 47 mEq/LUrine osmolality: 486 mOsm/LWhich of the following is the best treatment of his hyponatremia?

28) A 22-year-old woman has a known family history of breast cancer in her first-degree relatives. She undergoes genetic testing and is found to be a BRCA1 mutation carrier. She does not currently desire bilateral prophylactic mastectomy. Which of the following is the next best option to manage her risk for breast cancer?

29) A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician 6 hours after falling on her outstretched right hand. She has pain and limitation of movement in her wrist, but denies sensations of tingling or numbness. The right wrist is mildly swollen, and its range of passive motion is limited compared with the left side. Palpation elicits maximal tenderness in the area of the anatomic snuffbox, between the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis muscles. Ulnar and radial pulses are normal, and Tinel's and Phalen's tests are negative. Further examination rules out signs of nerve or vascular damage. Plain x-ray films performed in the anteriorposterior, lateral, and oblique views fail to show any evidence of fractures. At this time, which of die following is the most appropriate next step in management?

30) A 72-year-old woman undergoes a partial colectomy for adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon. She receives appropriate antibiotic coverage and low-dose heparin prophylaxis. On the 5th hospital day, the patient begins complaining of right chest pain, difficulty in breathing, and dry cough. Her temperature is 37.9C (100.2F), blood pressure is 134/78 mm Hg, pulse is 115/min and regular, and respirations are 20/rnin. Examination shows crackles in the right chest, but no tenderness or edema in the legs. A chest x-ray film reveals areas of opacification in the right lung. ECG reveals sinus tachycardia with nonspecific ST changes. Laboratory studies show: Arterial blood gas analysis- PaO2 74 mm Hg- PaCO2 37 mm Hg- pH 7.35- Blood/serumHematocrit 40%- Leukocytes 8300/mm3- Lactate dehydrogenase 350 U/L- Fibrin D-dimer 600 ng/mL (normal upper limit 500 ng/mL)Which of the following is the most appropriate step in diagnosis?

31) A 65-year-old man complains of blood in his urine for the past 2 months. He has had no similar episodes in the past. He is otherwise healthy and denies abdominal pain, any trauma, fever, chills, anorexia, or dysuria. He reports having a good urinary stream and no nocturia or dribbling. He is not sexually active. He has no other medical problems and is not taking any medications. His vital signs are stable. Lung, heart, abdominal, and groin examination are unremarkable. Rectal exam reveals a nontender prostate with no masses or enlargement- Urinalysis reveals packed red cells, a few white cells, and no casts. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

32) A 30-year-old woman in her last trimester of pregnancy suddenly develops massive swelling of the left lower extremity. Which of the following would be the most appropriate workup and treatment at this time?

33) A 20-year-old woman with a family history of von Willebrand disease is found to have an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 78 (normal = 32) on routine testing prior to cholecystectomy. Further investigation reveals a prothrombin time (PT) of 13 (normal = 12), a platelet count of 350,000/mm3, and an abnormal bleeding time. Which of the following should be administered in the perioperative period?

34) A pedestrian is hit by a car. Physical examination shows the leg to be angulated midpoint between the knee and the ankle. X-ray films confirm fractures of the shaft of the tibia and fibula. Satisfactory alignment is achieved by external manipulation, and a long leg cast applied. In the ensuing 8 hours, the patient complains of increasing pain. When the cast is removed, the pain persists, the muscle compartments feel tight, and there is excruciating pain with passive extension of the toes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

35) A 75-year-old thin cachectic woman undergoes a tracheostomy for failure to wean from the ventilator. One week later, she develops significant bleeding from the tracheostomy. Which of the following would be an appropriate initial step in the management of this problem?

37) A 35-year-old woman has dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, cough, and hemoptysis. The symptoms have been slowly progressive for about 5 years. She looks thin and cachectic, and has atrial fibrillation and a low-pitched, rumbling diastolic apical heart murmur. At age 15, she had rheumatic fever. Surgery has been recommended. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

38) A 59-year-old man is planning to undergo a coronary artery bypass. He has osteoarthritis and consumes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment prior to surgery to minimize his risk of bleeding from his NSAID use?

39) A 63-year-old man undergoes a partial gastrectomy with Billroth II reconstruction for intractable peptic ulcer disease. He presents several months postoperatively with a megaloblastic anemia. Which of the following is the best treatment for this surgical complication?

40) A 52-year-old woman undergoes a sigmoid resection with primary anastomosis for recurrent diverticulitis. She returns to the emergency room 10 days later with left flank pain and decreased urine output; laboratory examination is significant for a white blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3. She undergoes a CT scan that demonstrates new left hydronephrosis, but no evidence of an intra-abdominal abscess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

41) A 63-year-old man with history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with right leg swelling and pain. The patient denies trauma to the leg and reports it was normal yesterday. Examination of the right lower extremity is significant for extreme tenderness to palpation, erythema, and edema extending up to the knee. X ray of the right leg shows tissue swelling without gas or osteomyelitis. The patient’s vital signs are normal and he is started on broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and insulin. An hour later the patient’s heart rate increases to 125 beats per minute and the erythema has progressed to the thigh with new blister formation on the leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

42) A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after sustaining burns during a fire in his apartment. He has blistering and erythema of his face, left upper extremity, and chest. He also has circumferential frank charring of his right upper extremity with decreased capillary refill. He is agitated, hypotensive, and tachycardic. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of his wounds?

43) A 55-year-old woman who has end-stage liver disease is referred to a hepatologist for evaluation. Which of the following would prevent her from being a transplantation candidate?

44) A 12-year-old boy with a femur fracture after a motor vehicle collision undergoes operative repair. After induction of anesthesia, he develops a fever of 40°C (104°F), shaking rigors, and blood-tinged urine. Which of the following is the best treatment option?

45) A 24-year-old Jehovah’s Witness who was in a high-speed motorcycle collision undergoes emergent splenectomy. His estimated blood loss was 1500 mL. Which of the following strategy should be employed for his resuscitation?

47) A 60-year-old woman with no previous medical problems undergoes a total colectomy with diverting ileostomy for a cecal perforation secondary to a sigmoid stricture. Postoperatively, she has 2 L of ileostomy output per day. Her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation is 98% on 2-L nasal cannula (NC). Her hemoglobin levels have been stable postoperatively at 9.0 mg/dL. Her other laboratory values on postoperative day 6 are as follows:Na+: 128K+: 3.0Cl−: 102HCO3-: 20Which of the following statements is the best strategy for correcting her acid–base disorder?

48) A 39-year-old man is undergoing resuscitation with blood products for an upper GI bleed. He is suspected of having a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Which of the following is appropriate in the management of this patient?

49) A 70-kg woman is to undergo nail removal from her right ring finger in the ambulatory surgery clinic. Which of the following is the most appropriate option for local anesthesia?

50) A 58-year-old woman with multiple comorbidities and previous cardiac surgery is in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is intubated for airway protection. Because of hemodynamic instability, a central venous catheter is placed in the right subclavian vein. While the surgeon is securing the catheter, the cap becomes displaced and air enters the catheter. Suddenly, the patient becomes tachycardic and hypotensive. What is the best next maneuver?

51) A 72-year-old chronic smoker with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is found to have a central hilar mass on chest x-ray. Bronchoscopy and biopsies establish a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Pulmonary function studies show that he has a FEVj of 1100 mL, and a ventilation-perfusion scan indicates that 60% of his pulmonary function comes from the affected lung. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

52) An 11-year-old girl presents to your office because of a family history of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following tests should you perform?

53) A 37-year-old woman has developed a 6-cm mass on her anterior thigh over the past 10 months. The mass appears to be fixed to the underlying muscle, but the overlying skin is movable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?

54) A 50-year-old man is incidentally discovered to have a low-grade mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma on biopsy of the stomach during esophagogastroduodenoscopy for dyspepsia. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis demonstrate no evidence of enlarged regional lymph nodes or distant metastases. Which of the following is the initial treatment of choice?

55) A 29-year-old woman on oral contraceptives presents with abdominal pain. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen demonstrates a large hematoma of the right liver with the suggestion of an underlying liver lesion. Her hemoglobin is 6, and she is transfused 2 units of packed red blood cells and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma. Two hours after starting the transfusion, she develops respiratory distress and requires intubation. She is not volume overloaded clinically, but her chest x-ray shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following is the management strategy of choice?

56) A 68-year-old hypertensive man undergoes successful repair of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. He receives 9 L Ringer lactate solution and 4 units of whole blood during the operation. Two hours after transfer to the surgical intensive care unit, the following hemodynamic parameters are obtained: systemic blood pressure (BP) 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 110 beats per minute, central venous pressure (CVP) 7 mm Hg, pulmonary artery pressure 28/10 mm Hg, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg, cardiac output 1.9 L/min, systemic vascular resistance 1400 (dynes)/cm5 (normal is 900-1300), PaO2 140 mm Hg (FiO2: 0.45), urine output 15 mL/h (specific gravity: 1.029), and hematocrit 35%. Given this data, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

57) A 71-year-old man returns from the operating room (OR) after undergoing a triple coronary bypass. His initial cardiac index is 2.8 L/ (min•m2). Heart rate is then noted to be 55 beats per minute, BP is 110/80 mm Hg, wedge pressure is 15, and his cardiac index has dropped to 1.6 L/(min•m2). He has a normal left ventricle. Which of the following maneuvers will increase his cardiac output?

58) Eight days after a difficult hemigastrectomy and gastroduodenostomy for gastric ulcer, a patient begins to leak 2-3 L of greenish fluid per day through the right corner of his bilateral subcostal surgical incision. He is afebrile and has no clinical signs of an acute abdomen. At surgery, a feeding catheter jejunostomy was placed, through which the patient has been receiving 3 L/day of elemental diet with a caloric content of 1 cal per mL, and 1 g nitrogen per 100 cal. The nursing staffs have rigged a very effective collection device for the fluid that is leaking through the wound, and the skin around the site is well protected. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

59) Six hours after undergoing laparoscopic bilateral inguinal hernia repairs, a 62-year-old man complains of suprapubic discomfort and fullness. He feels the need to void but has not been able to do so since the operation. There is a palpable suprapubic mass that is dull to percussion. Palpation of that mass exacerbates the symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

60) An 18-year-old previously healthy man is placed on intravenous heparin after having a pulmonary embolism (PE) after exploratory laparotomy for a small-bowel injury following a motor vehicle collision. Five days later, his platelet count is 90,000/μL and continues to fall over the next several days. The patient’s serum is positive for antibodies to the heparin-platelet factor complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step management?

61) A 62-year-old woman undergoes a pancreaticoduodenectomy for a pancreatic head cancer. A jejunostomy is placed to facilitate nutritional repletion as she is expected to have a prolonged recovery. What is the best method for delivering postoperative nutrition?

62) A 65-year-old woman has a life-threatening pulmonary embolus 5 days following removal of a uterine malignancy. She is immediately heparinized and maintained in good therapeutic range for the next 3 days, then passes gross blood from her vagina and develops tachycardia, hypotension, and oliguria. Following resuscitation, an abdominal CT scan reveals a major retroperitoneal hematoma. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

63) A 24-year-old woman presents with lethargy, anorexia, tachypnea, and weakness. Laboratory studies reveal a BUN of 150 mg/dL, serum creatinine of 16 mg/dL, and potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Chest x-ray shows increased pulmonary vascularity and a dilated heart. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

64) A 56-year-old woman is undergoing a cadaveric renal transplant. After revascularization of the transplanted kidney, the transplanted renal parenchyma becomes swollen and blue. The surgeon suspects hyperacute rejection. What is the treatment of choice for this patient?

65) A 41-year-old man underwent successful living-related kidney transplantation 1 year ago with good results. Preoperatively, he was noted to have an elevated calcium level; post-transplantation, he continues to have elevated calcium levels and associated symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

66) A young man is shot in the upper part of the neck with a .22 caliber revolver. Inspection of the entrance and exit wounds indicates that the trajectory of the bullet is all above die level of the angle of the mandible, but below the skull. He is fully conscious and neurologically intact. A steady trickle of blood flows from both wounds, and it does not seem to respond to local pressure. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

67) A 21-year-old college student undergoes surgery to remove a small cyst in his palm at the base of his third digit. He receives an axillary regional block prior to die procedure but still has discomfort post-operatively. Injection of anesmetic in which of the following sites may be used to treat his pain?

68) A 62-year-old man is suffering from arrhythmias on the night of his triple coronary bypass. Potassium has been administered. His urine output is 20 to 30 mL/h. Serum potassium level is 6.2. Which of the following medications counteracts the effects of potassium without reducing the serum potassium level?

69) An in-hospital workup of a 78-year-old hypertensive, mildly asthmatic man who is receiving chemotherapy for colon cancer reveals symptomatic gallstones. Preoperative laboratory results are notable for a hematocrit of 24% and urinalysis with 18 to 25 WBCs and gram-negative bacteria. On call to the operating room, the patient receives intravenous penicillin. His abdomen is shaved in the operating room. An open cholecystectomy is performed and, despite a lack of indications, the common bile duct is explored. The wound is closed primarily with a Penrose drain exiting a separate stab wound. On postoperative day 3, the patient develops a wound infection. Which of the following changes in the care of this patient could have decreased the chance of a postoperative wound infection?

70) A 72-year-old man with diabetes, renal insufficiency, and coronary artery disease presents in septic shock from emphysematous cholecystitis. His oxygen saturation is 100% on 6-L nasal cannula and his hemoglobin is 7.2 mg/dL. His mixed venous oxygen saturation is 58%. Which of the following treatment options will improve his oxygen delivery the most?

71) A 47-year-old man with hypertensive nephropathy develops fever, graft tenderness, and oliguria 4 weeks following cadaveric renal transplantation. Serum creatinine is 3.1 mg/dL. A renal ultrasound reveals mild edema of the renal papillae but normal flow in both the renal artery and the renal vein. Nuclear scan demonstrates sluggish uptake and excretion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

72) A kidney transplant recipient presents with severe acute rejection that does not respond to steroid treatment. Administration of which of the following agents is the best step in her management?

73) A 30-year-old man is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy for biliary colic. He reports a family history of prolonged paralysis during general anesthesia. Which of the following medications should be avoided during his procedure?

74) A 63-year-old man with multiple rib fractures and a pulmonary contusion requires prolonged intubation. He is unable to be weaned from the ventilator and is on a volume control mode. He has a tracheostomy and a percutaneous gastrotomy in place through which he is being fed. The surgeon orders a respiratory quotient (RQ), which is the ratio of the rate of carbon dioxide production over the rate of oxygen uptake. The RQ is 1. Based on this information, which of the following is the next step in his management?

75) A 28-year-old medical student seeks your attention because of a testicular mass. Biopsy is consistent with pure seminoma. There is no evidence of enlarged retroperitoneal lymph nodes on CT scan. Which of the following is the best treatment strategy for this patient?

76) Following a boating injury in an industrial-use river, a patient begins to display fever, tachycardia, and a rapidly expanding area of erythema, blistering, and drainage from a flank wound. An x-ray shows gas in the soft tissues. Which of the following measures is most appropriate?

77) Following pelvic gynecologic surgery, a 34-year-old woman becomes dyspneic, her peripheral arterial O2 saturation falls from 94% to 81%, and her measured PaO2 is 52 on a 100% non-rebreather mask. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT angiogram is consistent with a right lower lobe pulmonary embolus. Which of the following is the next step in her management?

78) A 53-year-old woman presents with bright red blood per rectum, increased abdominal distention, and weight loss. She is found to have a large fungating mass 8 cm from the anal verge. No other lesions are identified. Biopsy is consistent with invasive rectal adenocarcinoma. Endorectal ultrasound shows invasion of the tumor into the perirectal fat and multiple enlarged lymph nodes. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis do not show any metastases. She would like to preserve her sphincter if possible. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient given her preferences?

79) A 35-year-old woman presents with a right breast mass. You perform a thorough history and physical examination as well as a core biopsy of the right breast mass. In which of the following circumstances would a sentinel lymph node biopsy be indicated?

80) A 70-year-old man is concerned when his dentist finds a white patch on his oral mucosa during a routine examination. Proper management should include which of the following?

81) A 40-year-old woman undergoes an incisional biopsy of a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. Pathologic examination reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?

82) A 49-year-old woman undergoes surgical resection of a malignancy. The family asks about the prognosis. The histopathology is available for review. For which of the following malignancies does histologic grade best correlate with prognosis?

83) A 61-year-old man undergoes upper endoscopy for evaluation of weight loss and is identified to have a submucosal mass in the stomach. Biopsy is consistent with a gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST). Workup reveals the presence of liver metastases. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?

84) A 57-year-old woman develops bony metastases 1 year after right modified radical mastectomy for breast cancer. The tumor was estrogen receptor-negative, progesterone receptor-negative and Her-2/neu positive. Which of the following agents is indicated for treatment of her metastatic disease?

85) A 44-year-old woman has a 2-cm firm palpable mass in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. The mass is freely movable, and her breast is of normal, rather generous size. There are no palpable axillary nodes. Mammogram shows no other lesions. A core biopsy establishes a diagnosis of infiltrating ductal carcinoma. She has no neurologic or skeletal symptoms, and a chest x-ray film and liver enzymes are normal. She understands that systemic therapy may eventually be needed once the full extent of her disease is known. Although she wants the best chance for cure, she is very concerned about cosmetic deformity and wants to know what can be done about the breast itself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

86) A 26-year-old, drug-addicted man develops congestive heart failure over a period of a few days. He is febrile, has a loud, diastolic murmur at the right second intercostal space, and has a blood pressure of 120/20 mmHg. A physical examination performed a few weeks ago, when he attempted to enroll in a detoxification program, was completely normal. His blood pressure at that time was 120/80 mm Hg, and no murmurs were noted. In addition to long-term antibiotic therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

87) During a bar brawl, a 19-year-old man sustains a 4-in laceration on his left arm from glass and presents to the emergency room the following morning, 10 hours later. He is neurovascularly intact and the wound is deep, extending down to fascia. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the wound?

88) A 59-year-old woman undergoes an exploratory laparotomy for peritonitis and is found to have perforated diverticulitis. She undergoes a sigmoid resection with an end colostomy. She is administered a third-generation cephalosporin within 1 hour prior to the incision and the antibiotic is continued postoperatively. One week later, she develops an intra-abdominal abscess, which is percutaneously drained. Bacteroides fragilis is isolated from the cultures. Which of the following statements regarding her perioperative antibiotic regimen is most accurate?

89) While playing football, a college student injures his shoulder. He comes in with his arm held close to his body, complaining of pain over the clavicle, rather than the shoulder joint. Physical examination shows a normal shoulder, but there is point tenderness at the junction of the middle and distal thirds of the clavicle. Gentle pressure elicits a gritty feeling of bone crunching on bone. He has normal pulses on that arm. After appropriate x-ray studies are performed, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

90) A 50-year-old man complains of loss of libido and impotence after starting treatment with leuprolide for prostatic hyperplasia. An alpha-blocker and finasteride have also been tried, but with similar adverse effects. So far, the patient has not experienced any episodes of urinary tract infection or hematuria, but he is excessively bothered by his symptoms without any medication. Digital rectal examination shows mild prostatic enlargement. At this time, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 4.5 ng/mL, and his creatinine is 0.7 mg/dL. Dipstick examination shows no hematuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate alternative to his current pharmacologic treatment?

91) A 65-year-old man sustains a 50% TBSA burn while burning trash in the backyard. The patient is resuscitated with lactated Ringer (LR) solution using the Parkland formula and a weight of 80 kg. What is the rate of LR given in the first 8 hours?

92) A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a 1-cm skin lesion on his left forearm. On examination, it has a waxy appearance with rolled pearly borders surrounding a central ulcer. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

93) A 39-year-old woman with a known history of von Willebrand disease has a ventral hernia after a previous cesarean section and desires to undergo elective repair. Which of the following should be administered preoperatively?

94) You are the physician on call for the extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) service. There are 5 calls today, but only one machine and one technologist available. Which of the following patients is the most appropriate recipient of this service?

95) A 45-year-old man shows up in the emergency department with a pale, pulseless, paresthetic, painful, and paralytic right lower extremity. The process began suddenly 2 hours ago. On examination, no pulses are apparent in the right lower extremity. Pulse at the wrist is 95/min and grossly irregular. Treatment would likely be based on which of the following?

96) A neonate does not pass any meconium during the first day of life. On day 2 he is brought for evaluation because of repeated green vomiting and progressive abdominal distention. X-ray films of the abdomen show multiple dilated loops of small bowel and no gas in the colon. A contrast enema shows a normally positioned microcolon, and the contrast material refluxes freely into the small bowel, filling some of the more distal distended loops. Exploratory laparotomy is done. There is no malrotation, the small bowel does not have any atretic or obstructed segments, and there is no inspissated meconium in it. Which of the following is most appropriate next step in management?

97) A 62-year-old woman with a history of coronary artery disease presents with a pancreatic head tumor and undergoes a pancreaticoduodenectomy. Postoperatively, she develops a leak from the pancreaticojejunostomy anastomosis and becomes septic. A Swan-Ganz catheter is placed, which demonstrates an increased cardiac output and decreased systemic vascular resistance. She also develops acute renal failure and oliguria. Which of the following is an indication to start dopamine?

98) A 49-year-old man who underwent liver transplantation 5 years ago for alcoholic cirrhosis presents with a gradually increasing bilirubin level. He undergoes a liver biopsy, which demonstrates a paucity of bile ducts. Which of the following is his best option for treatment?

99) An otherwise healthy 24-year-old man presents in the emergency department with very severe pain of recent onset in his right scrotum. The pain is constant and began about 3 hours prior to his arrival. Physical examination shows a temperature of 39.4C (103F) but is otherwise unremarkable, except for the scrotal area. The testis on the affected side is in the normal position; however, it appears to be swollen and is exquisitely tender to palpation. The cord above the testis is equally painful and tender. Urinalysis shows pyuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

100) A 25-year-old man is found on a pre-employment chest x-ray film to have a 3-cm peripheral coin lesion. The patient has never smoked, and a chest x-ray film that he had 2 years ago when he enrolled in graduate school had been normal. Prompted by this finding, he undergoes a more thorough physical examination, which discloses the presence of a firm, 2-cm testicular mass of which he was not previously aware. There are also palpable inguinal nodes on the same side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

101) A 25-year-old man is shot with a .22-caliber revolver. The entrance wound is in the anterior, lateral aspect of his thigh, and the bullet is seen on x-ray films to be embedded in the muscles posterolateral to the femur. The emergency department physician cleans the wound thoroughly. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

102) A 25-year-old man presents with a painless, hard, 3-cm testicular mass that he discovered serendipitously while taking a shower. Physical examination confirms that the mass arises from the testicle itself, is not part of the epididymis, and is solid rather than a fluid collection. The rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

103) A 53-year-old woman sustains multiple injuries in a head-on automobile collision. She was driving the car and wearing a seat belt. At the moment of impact, she was held in place by the belt, but she hit the windshield with her face, the dashboard with her arms, and the steering wheel with her abdomen. Initial survey reveals closed fractures in both upper extremities, facial lacerations, and abdominal bruises. She is breathing well and is neurologically intact, but she is complaining of severe abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 75/55 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and central venous pressure is zero. Physical examination of the abdomen shows tenderness, guarding, and rebound tenderness on all quadrants. There is no evidence of pelvic fracture. Which of the following would be the most appropriate study to evaluate her abdominal injuries?

104) A 42-year-old man sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen and is in shock. Multiple units of packed red blood cells are transfused in an effort to resuscitate him. He complains of numbness around his mouth and displays carpopedal spasm. An electrocardiogram demonstrates a prolonged QT interval. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

105) A 39-year-old woman is involved in a head-on, highspeed automobile collision. She arrives at the emergency department in a deep coma, with bilaterally fixed dilated pupils. She has normal blood pressure and pulse rate. CT scan of the head shows diffuse blurring of the gray-white interface and multiple small punctate hemorrhages. There is no single large hematoma or displacement of the midline structures. Extension of the CT to include the neck shows no cervical spine fractures. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

106) An 82-year-old man develops severe abdominal distention, nausea, vomiting, and colicky abdominal pain. He has not passed any gas or stools for the past 12 hours. His vital signs are normal, and his pulse is regular. He has a distended, tympanitic abdomen, with hyperactive, highpitched bowel sounds. There are no signs of peritoneal irritation. Rectal examination is negative for masses or occult blood, and trie rectal vault is empty. Abdominal xray films show distended loops of small and large bowel, as well as a very large round gas shadow that is located in the right upper quadrant and tapers toward the left lower quadrant in the shape of a parrot's beak. The patient has never had any abdominal surgery, and he does not have any palpable hernias. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

107) A 42-year-old woman drops a hot iron on her lap while doing the laundry. She comes in with the shape of the iron clearly delineated on her upper thigh. The area is white, dry, leathery, and anesthetic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

108) A 73-year-old woman with a long history of heavy smoking undergoes femoral artery-popliteal artery bypass for rest pain in her left leg. Because of serious underlying respiratory insufficiency, she continues to require ventilatory support for 4 days after her operation. As soon as her endotracheal tube is removed, she begins complaining of vague upper abdominal pain. She has daily fever spikes of 39°C (102.2°F) and a leukocyte count of 18,000/mL. An upper abdominal ultrasonogram reveals a dilated gallbladder, but no stones are seen. A presumptive diagnosis of acalculous cholecystitis is made. Which of the following is the next best step in her treatment?

109) A 29-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of erythema and edema of the right breast with palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. A punch biopsy of the skin reveals neoplastic cells in the dermal lymphatics. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?

110) A 35-year-old woman presents with a lump in the left breast. Her family history is negative for breast cancer. On examination the mass is rubbery, mobile, and nontender to palpation. There are no overlying skin changes and the axilla is negative for lymphadenopathy. An ultrasound demonstrates a simple 1-cm cyst in the area of the palpable mass in the left breast. Which of the following represents the most appropriate management of this patient?

111) A 55-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing painless mass on the right side of the neck. A fine-needle aspiration of the nodule shows a well-differentiated papillary carcinoma. A complete neck ultrasound demonstrates a 1-cm nodule in the right thyroid without masses in the contralateral lobe or lymph node metastasis in the central and lateral neck compartments. With regards to this patient, which of the following is associated with a poor prognosis?

112) Following significant head trauma, a 34-year-old woman undergoes a CT scan that demonstrates bilateral frontal lobe contusions of the brain. There is no midline shift. She has a GCS of 14. Which of the following is the best initial management of this patient?

113) A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a UGI bleed from acute erosive gastritis, secondary to chronic nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory use. His hematocrit is 28%. With fluid resuscitation, his blood pressure normalizes, but he has a persistent hyperdynamic precordium, tachycardia, and flow murmur on auscultation. He complains of shortness of breath on ambulation. An ECG shows depressed ST-T segments. Which of the following is the next appropriate step in management?

114) A 45-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension presents with severe chest pain radiating to his back. An ECG demonstrates no significant abnormalities. A CT scan of the chest and abdomen is obtained, which demonstrates a descending thoracic aortic dissection extending from distal to the left sub-clavian take off down to above the iliac bifurcation. A Foley catheter is placed, and urine output is 30 to 40cc/h. His feet are warm, with less than 2-second capillary refill. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

115) A stockbroker in his mid-40s presents with complaints of episodes of severe, often incapacitating chest pain on swallowing. Diagnostic studies on the esophagus yield the following results: endoscopic examination and biopsy mild inflammation distally; manometry—prolonged high-amplitude contractions from the arch of the aorta distally, lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure 20 mm Hg with relaxation on swallowing; barium swallow 2 cm epiphrenic diverticulum. Which of the following is the best management option for this patient?

116) A 57-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine checkup. He complains of right-sided leg cramps accompanied by fatigue while walking. He also complains of occasional right thigh pain. He denies chest pain, syncope, nausea, and abdominal pain. His sexual performance has decreased over the past 1 year. His other medical problems include stage 3 chronic kidney disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, gout, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. His blood pressure is 144/92 mm Hg, pulse is 67/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. Peripheral pulses are bilaterally palpable. There is a small ulcer at the base of the right great toe. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is 1.0 (normal: 1.0 - 1.3). His laboratory values are significant for a serum creatinine level of 2.2 mg/dl and an HbA1c level of 7.5% but otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's leg pain?

118) A 55-year-old man with recent onset of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold, numb, pulseless left lower extremity. He is immediately taken to the operating room for an embolectomy of the left popliteal artery. Which additional procedure should be performed along with the embolectomy?

120) A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a discussion on breast cancer risk. Her family history is pertinent for a grandmother who died of breast cancer at age 53, a mother who died of premenopausal breast cancer, and one of three sisters with breast cancer diagnosed at age 42. The sister with breast cancer underwent genetic testing and was found to have a BRCA1 mutation. Subsequently, the 35-year-old woman underwent genetic testing and was found to be a carrier of the same deleterious BRCA1 mutation. Which of the following ranges represents the lifetime risk for breast cancer that should be quoted for this patient?

121) A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a discussion on breast cancer risk. Her family history is pertinent for a grandmother who died of breast cancer at age 53, a mother who died of premenopausal breast cancer, and one of three sisters with breast cancer diagnosed at age 42. The sister with breast cancer underwent genetic testing and was found to have a BRCA1 mutation. Subsequently, the 35-year-old woman underwent genetic testing and was found to be a carrier of the same deleterious BRCA1 mutation.For this patient, which of the following strategies represents an accepted management option for her high-risk status?

122) A 38-year-old woman presents to the physician because of right upper quadrant pain associated with nausea and vomiting for the past 12 hours. She has had similar pain previously, usually precipitated after the ingestion of fatty foods. However, past episodes have always resolved within one to two hours. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertriglyceridemia, and hypercholesterolemia. Her current medications include metformin, fenofibrate, and a statin. Her temperature is 38.3° C (101° F), blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 20/min. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. Examination shows right upper quadrant tenderness. Abdominal ultrasound reveals gallstones, a thickened gallbladder wall with edema, and a normal common bile duct. Her alkaline phosphatase level is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

123) A 40-year-old, obese, white woman, mother of five children, gives a history of repeated episodes of right upper quadrant abdominal pain. The pain is brought about by the ingestion of fatty foods and is relieved by the administration of anticholinergic medications. The pain is colicky, radiates to the right shoulder and around to the back, and is accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. The patient has no pain at this time, but is anxious to avoid further episodes. She is afebrile, and physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?