Kjemi
Comprehensive Chemistry Challenge
Test your knowledge of chemistry with this engaging quiz designed for enthusiastic learners! This quiz encompasses various topics related to organic and inorganic chemistry, including molecular structure, isomerism, and reagent interactions.
Key Features:
- 52 Thought-Provoking Questions
- Multiple Choice and Checkbox Formats
- Assess Your Understanding of Key Concepts
1. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Hydrogen and sulphur are organogenic elements.
B The percent composition of ammonium cyanate and urea is identical.
C The percent composition of formaldehyde and lactic acid (alpha-hydroxy-propionic acid) is identical.
D Quantitative analysis of carbon and hydrogen in organic compounds produces substances with identical molecular mass.
E The atomic ratio of the glucose molecule is C:H:O=1:2:1.
2. Which of the following statements are true?
A Cyclohexane and cyclopropane contain only secondary carbon atoms.
B Ethyl-cyclopentane contains primary, secondary and tertiary carbon atoms.
C 2,3,4-Trimethylpentane does not contain quaternary carbon atoms
D 5-Ethynyl-2-methyl-3-vinyl-1,3,6-heptatriene contains primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbon atoms.
E Phenyl-ethane contains five secondary carbon atoms.
3. Which of the following statements are not true?
A The formula CnH2n-2 corresponds to an alkyne, alkadiene, cycloalkyne.
B Monoelectronic orbitals may exist only in the fundamental state of elements.
C Interatomic distances represent the sum of the atomic diameters of bonded atoms.
D In alcohols, oxygen is involved in two sigma bonds.
E There are 5 sigma bonds in ethene.
4. Which of the following statements are not true?
A Nitrogen may be involved in simple, double and triple covalent bonds.
B In the homogenous covalent bonds, the bond energy increases from the simple to the triple bond.
C The hydrocarbon having the molecular mass of 58 is saturated.
D The length of the covalent bond increases from the simple to the triple bond.
E Carbon is involved only in double covalent bonds.
5. Which of the following statements are true?
A The presence of asymmetric carbon atoms in the structure of substances decreases their number of isomers.
B One of the validity criteria of the molecular formula is that the sum of all covalencies of the component elements must be an odd number.
C Decreasing the number of carbon atoms in the structure of organic substances increases their number of isomers.
D In multiple covalent heterogeneous bonds, the involved carbon atoms may be hybridized sp and sp2.
E In alkanes, the involved carbon atoms are only hybridized sp3.
6. The carbonyl compounds having a molecular mass of 86 present:
A 3 linear carbon chain isomers
B 4 branched carbon chain isomers
C 5 aldehydes isomers
D 3 isomers with tertiary carbon atoms
E 6 isomers in total
7. The following statements regarding mesoforms are true:
A They contain asymmetric carbon atoms.
B They have a symmetry plane.
C They do not rotate the plane of polarized light.
D 2,3-diaminobutane may present optical active configurations as well as mesoforms.
E Glycine may present mesoforms.
8. Which of the following chemical reactions may produce a chemical compound containing an asymmetric carbon atom?
A The reduction of ketones to the corresponding alcohol.
B Aldol condensation of aldehydes.
C Addition of water to alkenes.
D Addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds.
E Addition of water to alkynes
9. Which of the following glycerides may have optical activity?
A Palmito-oleo-stearin
Palmito-oleo-palmitin
C Butiro-oleo-palmitin
D Triolein
E Tristearin
10. The following statements regarding carboxylic acids are true:
A The molecular formula C5H8O4 corresponds to 6 dicarboxylic acids isomers.
B A dicarboxylic acid containing a C=C bond is a functional isomer of a cyclic diol containing a C=C bond.
C 2,4-dihydroxybutanoic acid produces 2 isomers by oxidation with Fehling reagent.
D The molecular formula C5H10 corresponds to 6 acyclic isomers
E 2,3-dihydroxybutandioic acid may have mesoforms
11. The following statements regarding geometric isomers are true:
A The molecular formula C5H10 corresponds to 2 acyclic geometric isomers.
B 2-amino-1-butene and orto-xylene may have geometric isomers.
C 1,3-butadiene and 1,5-hexadiene may have geometric isomers.
D 2,2-dimethyl-3-hexen-1-ol may have geometric isomers.
E 1-butene and 2-butene are geometric isomers.
12. The following statements regarding isomers are true:
A 2,2-dimethyl-3-hexen-1-ol has isomers containing two quaternary carbon atoms.
B Orto-xylene has carbon chain isomers.
C Geometrical isomers appear due to a blocked free rotation of two carbon atoms bound by a triple covalent bond.
D A fatty acid with a double C = C covalent bond may have geometric isomers.
E 3-methyl-butan-2-ol has optical isomers.
13. The following statements regarding alkynes are correct:
A By bubbling acetylene through a solution of potassium permanganate and sodium bicarbonate, the purple colour disappears faster compared to bubbling ethane.
B There are sp3 hybridized carbon atoms in butyne.
C The carbon percentage of vinyl alcohol is identical to the carbon percentage of acetaldehyde.
D The hydrolysis of 2-butyne results in the formation of butyraldehyde.
E 1-butyne and 2-butyne are geometric isomers.
14. The following statements regarding alkynes are correct:
A The ratio between the number of carbon and hydrogen atoms for alkynes is expressed by the formula CnH2n–2.
B All alkynes contain in their molecule sp, sp2 and sp3 hybridized carbon atoms.
C Alkynes are denominated by replacing of “-ane” suffix of the corresponding alkane with ”yne” suffix.
D In alkynes all carbon atoms have linear geometry.
E Alkynes are less reactive than alkanes.
15. The following statements regarding alkynes are correct:
A The treatment of acetylene with an aqueous solution of potassium permanganate leads to the formation of acetaldehyde.
B The hydrogen percentage in the homologous series of alkynes is invariable.
C 2-butyne can react with metallic sodium.
D The reaction between a molecule of acetylene and two molecules of copper(I)-diamine-chloride results in the formation of two molecules of ammonium chloride.
E Acetaldehyde can be obtained by the reaction of acetylene with water.
16. The following statements regarding alcohols are correct:
A 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-dihydroxypropane cannot undergo intermolecular dehydration.
B The substance with the molecular formula C7H8O2 has 6 diphenol isomers.
C The reduction of glyceraldehyde leads to the formation of a triol.
D A single substance with one carbonyl group and two hydroxyl groups corresponds to the molecular formula C3H6O3.
E Glyceraldehyde has two pairs of enantiomers.
17. The following statements regarding alcohols are correct:
A Alcohols are organic molecules in which the OH group is bound to a sp3 hybridised carbon atom.
B Alcohols containing three OH groups are called tertiary alcohols.
C 1-butanol and 2-butanol are positional isomers.
D All unsaturated alcohols present tautomerism.
E Alcohols have higher boiling points than the corresponding hydrocarbons.
18. The following statements regarding alcohols are correct:
A n-propyl alcohol, isopropyl alcohol and allyl alcohol are positional isomers.
B Water solubility of alcohols increases with the elongation of the carbon chain and with the increase of the number of the hydroxyl groups.
C In normal conditions, lower alcohols are gaseous, the ones with more carbon atoms are liquid and the higher alcohols are solid
D Isopropyl alcohol is a secondary alcohol and tert-butyl alcohol is a tertiary alcohol
E Lower alcohols (methanol, ethanol, propanol) are miscible in water
19. The following statements regarding alcohols are correct:
A The reduction of aldehydes leads to primary alcohols and the reduction of ketones leads to secondary alcohols.
B Addition of water to superior homologues of ethene leads to primary alcohols.
C Addition of hydrogen cyanide acid to ketones leads to compounds with mixed function.
D Alcohols can be obtained by the reduction of halogenated derivatives.
E Alcohols can be obtained by the hydrolysis of halogenated derivatives.
20. A few milliliters of ethanol are introduced in two crystallizers. In the first one, 2-3 drops of phenolphthalein are added, and in the second one a small piece of metallic sodium is added. What can be observed?
A Ethanol reacts vigorously with metallic sodium to produce hydrogen which can burn.
B Ethanol does not give a colour reaction with phenolphthalein.
C If water and than a few drops of phenolphthalein are introduced in a crystallizer with metallic sodium, the colour of the mixture turns to purple.
D Ethanol does not react with sodium because it does not have acidic properties.
E Ethanol reacts with NaOH because it has acidic properties.
21. The following statements regarding phenols are correct:
A Decomposition of cumene hydroperoxide leads to phenol.
B Phenoxides are ionic compounds.
C Phenols have stronger acidic properties than alcohols.
D Phenols undergo substitution reactions easier than the corresponding aromatic hydrocarbons.
E Phenols react with metallic Na, but do not react whit NaOH.
22. The following statements regarding carbonyl compounds are correct:
A The minimal value of “n” for a branched chain aldehyde CnH2nO which does not function as a methylene compound is 5.
B The compound resulting from the oxidation of acrolein with Tollens’ reagent is oxidized with potassium permanganate in the presence of sulfuric acid, resulting in the formation of carbon dioxide and water.
C Acetone can be obtained by the oxidation of isopropanol or by the oxidation of cumene.
D Silver mirror is obtained by the reaction of Tollens’ reagent with aliphatic aldehydes or alkynes with marginal covalent triple bond.
E Aldehydes and ketones are oxidized with Tollens’ reagent to the corresponding carboxylic acids.
23. The following statements regarding carbonyl compounds are correct:
A The compounds obtained by the condensation of two molecules of acetone do not present geometric isomerism.
B Aldol condensation of butanone with itself leads to a mixture of hydroxy ketones.
C Alcohols can be obtained from carbonyl compounds by the reaction with molecular hydrogen, in the presence of Ni and Pt, at high pressure and temperature or with reducing systems, such as Na and ethanol.
D Acetaldehyde has an almond-like smell.
E Aldehydes can be obtained by oxidation of secondary alcohols.
24. Fats can be characterized by the next parameters:
A The saponification number related to KOH
B The saponification number related to NaOH
C The iodine value expressed as g I2 / 100g fat
D The iodine value expressed as g Br2 / 100g fat
E The iodine value expressed as mg I2 / 1g fat
26. The following statements regarding dipalmitolein are true:
A It is a carbohydrate.
B It rotates the plane of polarized light.
C Has the molecular formula C53H100O3.
D The degree of unsaturation is 4.
E It is a triacylglycerol.
27. The following statements regarding amines are correct:
A 2 isomers of tertiary amines are possible for the C3H8N formula.
B Amines can undergo condensation with carbonyl compounds.
C The denomination of ”secondary amine” indicates the type of the carbon atom to which the functional group is bound.
D Diethylamine and methylamine are stronger bases than ammonia.
E Phenylamine is a stronger base than ammonia.
25. In order to modify the hydrolysis equilibrium of fats:
A An excess of water is used.
BSodium or potassium hydroxide is added.
The produced alcohol is distilled.
D An acidic catalyser is added.
EPressure is increased.
The following statements regarding amides are correct:
A Amides have higher melting points than other classes of compounds.
B Water solubility of amides increases with molecular mass.
C Dehydration of ammonium salts of carboxylic acids can lead to amides or nitriles.
D Urea is obtained from nitrogen dioxide and ammonia by acidic catalysis.
E Urea can be obtained from ammonium cyanate.
29. 0.25 moles of hydrochloric acid and 820 ml of distilled water are placed in a 1 litre volumetric flask. 10 g of sodium hydroxide are added, mixed, and the flask is filled with distilled water to the mark. The following statements are true:
A The final solution has neutral acidic-basic properties.
B The final solution contains a salt with basic properties.
C The final solution contains a salt with the molarity of 0.5.
D The final solution has acidic properties
30. 325 ml of distilled water, 45 g of acetic acid and 100 ml sodium hydroxide 1M are introduced in a 0.5 litre volumetric flask. After mixing the components, the flask is filled with distilled water to the mark. The following statements are true:
A The final solution does not modify the colour of phenolphthalein.
B The final solution contains a salt with the molarity of 0.5.
C The value of pH is different than 7.
D The final solution contains acetic acid with the molarity of 0.25.
E The final solution has a pH of 7.
31. Gastric hyperacidity can be neutralized using sodium bicarbonate. The process is possible due to:
A The existence of a weak acid in the gastric juice.
B The reaction between a strong acid and the salt of a weak acid.
C The decomposition of the weak acid resulted from the reaction and the elimination of the decomposition products.
D The administration of a salt of a strong acid with a weak base.
E The reaction between a strong base and a weak acid.
32. The substituents on the aromatic ring can be electron withdrawing groups, which can have the following effects:
A lower the electron density at the oxygen atom from the phenolic OH group
B increase the electron density at the hydrogen atom from the phenolic OH group.
C stabilise the phenolate ion.
D lower the acidity of phenols
E stabilise the carboxylate anion formed by the ionization of acetic acid.
33. If an amino acid is placed in a strong acidic solution:
A the carboxyl group of the amino acid loses a proton.
B the amino group of the amino acid loses a proton.
C the carboxyl group of the amino acid accepts a proton.
D the amino group of the amino acid accepts a proton.
E It may form a cation.
34. If an amino acid is placed in a strong alkaline solution:
A the amino group of the amino acid accepts a proton.
B the amino group of the amino acid loses a proton.
C the carboxyl group of the amino acid loses a proton.
D the carboxyl group of the amino acid accepts a proton.
E It may form an anion.
35. Which of the following statements are true?
A A 1M solution of alanine has a pH value lower than a 1M solution of glutamic acid.
B A 1M solution of valine has a pH value lower than a 1M solution of lysine.
C Amino acids are crystalline substances; the majority of the amino acids are highly soluble in water.
D Glycoproteins play an important role in cellular division.
E Proteins are denatured when heated.
36. Which of the following statements are true?
A Cysteine is α(alpha)-amino-β(beta)-sulfhydrylpropanoic acid.
B Lysine contains two amino groups in α(alpha) and ε(epsilon) positions.
C The dipeptide glycylserine has an amino group at the glycine residue.
D All the peptides contain the following elements: C, H, S and P.
E Proteins are formed by polymerisation of amino acids.
37. Which of the following compounds can react with alanine?
A C6H5COCl
B CH3I
C NaOH
D C2H5OH
E C2H5OCH3
38. Which of the following amino acids may form two ester bonds?
A glutamic acid
B serine
C aspartic acid
D isoleucine
E cysteine
39. The following ionic forms of an amino acid may exist, depending on the pH of the solution:
A anion
B zwitterion
C cation
D amphoteric
E None of the answers A-D are true.
40. Which of the following statements regarding glucose are true?
A The acyclic form presents two optical isomers.
B A new asymmetric carbon atom is formed by cyclization.
C The separation of one anomer from the solution depends on the nature of the solvent.
D The nutritional value of a polysaccharide depends mainly on the type of anomer present in the structure.
E Glucose is sweeter than fructose.
41. 0.5 Moles of glucose:
A react with 1000 mmoles of diaminoargentic hydroxide.
B react with 97.5 g of cupric hydroxide.
C form 108 g of silver by reacting with Tollens reagent.
D form 0.5 moles of cuprous oxide by reacting with Fehling reagent.
E react with 3 moles of Tollens reagent.
42. Amylose differs from cellulose by:
A the isomer form of the monosaccharide from its composition.
B its solubility in water.
C the reaction with iodine.
D the oxidant character.
E the type of the glycosidic bonds in the molecule.
43. Which of the following statements are true?
A The same compound is obtained from the hydrogenation reaction of maleic or fumaric acid
B A mixture of acetone and propanal (5.8 g), which contains 20% acetone, reacts by heterogeneous catalysis with 2.24 l of hydrogen.
C When 2-butyne is hydrogenated in the presence of palladium poisoned with lead salts, the obtained product presents geometrical isomers.
D Carbonyl group reduction in monosaccharides leads to corresponding acids.
E Hydrogenation reactions are specific to hydrocarbons containing multiple bonds.
44. Which of the following statements are true?
A Oxidation of tert-butanol with potassium dichromate, in the presence of sulphuric acid, leads to butanoic acid.
B When alcohols are oxidized with potassium permanganate, in the presence of sulphuric acid, the colour of the reaction mixture turns form orange to green.
C 2-ketopentanoic acid and oxalic acid are obtained when 1-methyl-1,4-cyclohexadiene is oxidized with KMnO4, in the presence of sulphuric acid.
D Maleic anhydride is obtained by benzene oxidation.
E Cupric hydroxide oxidizes glucose.
45. Which of the following statements are true?
A When isoprene is oxidized with K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4, the reaction products are the ketopropionic acid, CO2 and H2O.
B 2,7-Octanedione is obtained by the oxidation of 1,2-dimethyl-1-cyclohexadiene with K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4.
C Partial oxidation of petrol fuel (gasoline) can yield carbon monoxide.
D p-aminobenzoic acid can be obtained by the oxidation of p-aminobenzaldehyde with potassium permanganate in the presence of sulphuric acid.
E Synthesis of alkenes from alkanes is an oxidation process.
46. Which of the following statements are true?
A 48 g of oxygen are obtained at 100% yield from 1 mole of K2Cr2O7 in the presence of H2SO4, in the presence of a reducing agent.
B The products formed by incomplete oxidation are compounds with a lower number of carbon atoms.
C When naphthalene and o-xylene are oxidized with the same volume of oxygen, the working mass ratio between naphthalene and o-xylene is 0.805.
D The oxidation reaction is reversible.
E Mild oxidation of tertiary alcohols yields an acid.
47. Which statements regarding sodium palmitate are true?
A It is a detergent.
B The solution resulting after its dissolution in water has an alkaline character.
C It contains two types of anions.
D It is a salt.
E It is an ionic substance.
48. Which statements regarding amines are correct?
A Amines are weaker bases compared to ammonia.
B The basicity of amines is modified radically depending on the carbon type involved in the bond (primary, secondary or tertiary).
C Primary aliphatic amines are stronger bases compared to secondary aliphatic amines.
D N,N-dimethyl-phenylamine is a stronger base compared to diphenylamine.
E Diphenylamine is a secondary amine.
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