Classic Cases Review
What are the three phases of drug metabolism
Modification, Conjugation and Excretion
Absorption, Distribution and Excretion
Ingestion, Absorption and Excretion
Enteral, Cellular and Renal
If a drug has a half life of 1 hour, and a concentration of 60/mmol, how long will it take for the drug to be outside of its therapeutic index of 10-100/mmol
2 hours
3 hours
4 hours
5 hours
LD50 is a measurement of the amount of substance needed to harm 50% of a test population
True
False
Patient presents as confused and somnulent. Pupils are pinpoint, heart rate is 45, and continual suctioning is needed to maintain the airway. Which substance was this patient most likely exposed to?
Ketamine
Carfentanil
Methanol
Pesticides
Sympathomimetic and anticholinergic toxidromes are very similar, except for:
Sympathomimetic has increased breathing and bowel sounds and dry skin, while anticholinergic has decreased breathing and bowel sounds and is diaphoretic
Sympathomimetic has increased breathing and bowel sounds, with diaphoresis, and anticholinergic has no change to respirations, absent bowel sounds, and dry skin.
Anticholinergic presents with pinpoin pupils and sympathomemtic would be dilated
Anticholinergic presents with bradycardia and dry skin, sympathomemetics have tachycardia and diaphoresis
Betablocker overdose may present with A1 effets, causing vasodialtion
True
False
Betablocker overdose may present with hypoglycemia
True
False
CliniCall consult is not required prior to the administration of calcium chloride while managing a known calcium channel blocker overdose
True
False
Which of the following is not an effect of a TCA overdose
Sodium channel blockage, creating WCT
Muscarinic blockage, creating anticholinergic symptoms
GABA blockade, creating sedation and seizures
Calcium channel blockade, creating bradycardia and hypotension
What is the treatment for ehylene glycol ingestion?
Symptom management
Palliation
Ethanol
Dialysis
Anion gap is a measurement of the difference in sum between positive and negative ions in the body. These include all of the below except
Na+
HCO3-
Cl-
Mg++
Toxic alcohol consumption leads to renal failure and long term effects and recovery. The initial two stages of symptoms are
1: HTN, Tachypnea, Tachycardia 2: Hallucinations, seizure, coma
1: Hallucinations, Seizure, Coma 2: HTN, tachypnea, tachycardia
1: Agitation, agression, vomiting 2: Hallucination, Seizure, Coma
1: Behavioural changes, arousal, GI upset 2: HTN, tachypnea, tachycardia
Which of the following is not a risk factor for drowning?
Gender
Under age of 20
Intoxication
Hypoventilation
What are the most important factors in determining outcomes of a drowning? (Pick 3)
Duration of submersion
Duration of Immersion
Duration of hypoxia
Duration of hypothermia
Severity of hypothermia
Severity of hypoxia
Heart rate on initial assessment
Presence of secondary injury/trauma
A patient is pulled out of a freshwater lake after being last seen 15 minutes ago. Pulses present, not breathing. Patient begings breathing after 30 seconds of PPV, and starts coughing, returning to normal funtioning withing 10 minutes, and does not want to go to hospital. Which of the following are not a risk associated with the pathophysiological changes from a drowning event?
Loss of surfactant
Fluid in alveoli and insterstitial spaces
Contaminats in the alveoli and tracheobronchial tree
Increased dead space due to V/Q mismatch
What is the main cause of portal hypertension?
Your male patient presents with left lower quadrant pain and fever, their most likely differential diagnosis is:
Appendicitis
Diverticulitis
Pancreatitis
Gallstones
Transfusion of choice in burn patients
Fresh frozen plasma
Packed red blood cells
Whole blood
Factor 8
The phases of primary hemostasis:
Endothelial injury
Vascular occlusion
Exposure
Adhesion
Aggregation
Plasminogen
Activation
Extrusion
Correction
The common pathway is where the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways meet?
True
False
Potassium plays an integral role in the clotting cascade?
True
False
This cascade starts because of platelet damage:
Common
Extrinsic
Intrinsic
Internal
External
Combined
Mechanisms of hemostasis:
Vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation
Platelet plug, thrombosis, fibrinolysis
Coagulation, fibrinolysis, extrinsic pathway
Vascular spasm, coagulation, fibrinolysis
The functions of blood:
Transport fluid
Transport dissolved gases
Regulate sodium
Regulate acid-base balance
Heat distribution
Active cooling
Pyrogenesis
Hormone production
RBCs make up this much of the bloods volume:
30%
40%
50%
65%
Muscarinic effects of organophosphates include:
Miosis, sweating, bradycardia, hypotension
Mydriasis, bradycardia, bronchorrhea, hypotension
Miosis, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension
Mydriasis, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension
Caustic alkali ingestion does not cause liquefaction necrosis?
True
False
When managing an organophosphate exposure:
No need to decontaminate, ABCs, atropine
Decontaminate, ABCs, stop atropine if patient becomes tachycardic
Decontaminate, ABCs, atropine
No need to decontaminate, ABCs, atropine and midazolam
This colourless gas inhibits the electron transport chain to carry out its normal functions, causing a leftward shift on the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve.
Cyanide
Carbon monoxide
H2S
Carbonic anhydrase
Methanol is metabolized to form formic acid?
True
False
ECG changes in TCA toxicity:
Tachycardia
Downward sloping PR interval
Shortened PR interval
Prolonged PR interval
QRS< 0.10 sec
QRS > 0.10 sec
Long QT
Normal QT
Rightward axis
Leftward axis
The 7 receptors involved in TCA toxicity:
The phases of drug metabolization are modification, conjugation, and continued modification with excretion.
True
False
Anticholinergic toxicity signs and symptoms.
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Hypotension
Hypertension
Tachypnea
Dyspnea
Mydriasis
Miosis
Fatigue
Agitation
Urinary retention
Urinary incontinence
Anticholinergics increase acetylcholine at the synaptic cleft.
True
False
Cholinergics inhibit acetylcholine leaving the sympathetic nervous system unopposed.
True
False
If your patient had ingested a toxic level of ASA, what signs and symptoms would you expect?
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Salivation
Hyperventilation
Bradypnea
Urinary retention
N/V/D
Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycaemia
Beta blocker drugs have the suffix:
Olol’
Pril’
Ide’
Mide’
Statin’
Dihydropyridines are used as vasodilators and have limited cardiac effect?
True
False
Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers:
Amlodipine
Nifedipine
Diltiazem
Atrovastatin
Felodipine
Verapamil
Hepatitis A usually appears 2-6 weeks after infection, is transmitted by blood and is self limiting.
True
False
Hepatitis D infection requires prior infection with HBV?
True
False
Bowel obstructions can only occur in the colon?
True
False
Chronic ETOH use is the most common cause of:
Kidney failure
Splenomegaly
Esophageal varicies
GERD
The goals of care in hyperkalemia
Prevent seizures
Stabilize the cellular membrane
Shift sodium out of cells
Shift potassium into cells
Shift calcium into cells
In hyperkalemia salbutamol stimulates the beta Adrenergic receptors of the sodium potassium pump, which shits potassium intracellularly.
True
False
Angiotensin II receptor blockers have the suffix:
Pril’
Sartan’
Olol’
Pine’
Select the potassium sparing diuretics:
Altace
Spironolactone
Valsartan
Amiloride
Elavil
Allopurinol
Norvasc
Eplerenone
Triamterene
The potassium gradient is the most important factor in establishing the cardiac membrane potential?
True
False
Azotemia means a low blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?
True
False
Post renal failure is the most common form of renal failure?
True
False
The most common cause of acute renal failure:
Post renal failure
Hypertension
Decreased renal perfusion
Trauma
Risk factors for developing renal colic:
Pregnancy
Obesity
ETOH use
Low urine volume
Excess dietary sugar
Excess dietary salt
Excess dietary meats
Insufficient dietary meats
The main cause of maternal morbidity and mortality.
Eclampsia
Premature delivery
Postpartum hemorrhage
Shoulder dystocia
Fundal massage can be used for postpartum hemorrhage management while the placenta has yet to deliver.
True
False
Postpartum bleeding up to 500mL is expected/normal.
True
False
APGAR stands for
Appearance
Age (gestational)
Pressure (blood pressure)
Pulse
Gravida
Grimace
Activity
Apnea
Restitution
Respiration
Delayed cord clamping can increase baby blood volume by:
10%
30%
50%
70%
It does nothing for blood volume
It decreased the baby’s blood volume.
Placenta abruptio is premature painless separation of all or part of the placenta from the uterine wall.
True
False
Preeclampsia risk factors
First pregnancy
Previous pregnancies
Single fetus
Multiple fetus
<20 years old
>35 years old
HTN
IDDM
Smoking
Risk factors for placenta abruptio:
HTN
Trauma
Sympathomimetic drug use
IDDM
Multiparity
>35 years old
Previous abruption
Preeclampsia
Placenta accrete is when the placenta invades the myometrium and becomes inseparable from the uterine wall.
True
False
Risk factors from placenta previa:
Multiple placentas
Previous placenta previa
Greater than normal placental surface
Smaller than normal placental surface
Endometriosis
Uterine fibroids
Smoking
IDDM
Maternal age > 35 years
Maternal age < 35 years
Most common causes of hemorrhage during pregnancy.
Gestational diabetes
Placenta previa
Eclampsia
Physiologic anemia
Reduced fibrinogen
Placenta abruptio
Preterm labour
Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy:
Unprotected sex
IUD
Oral contraceptives
Previous ectopic
Tubal ligation
Hysterectomy
Smoking
IDDM
PID
Prior abortions
Fertility augmentation
Doing it doggy style
The leading cause of maternal mortality in the first trimester is caused by:
Placenta previa
Pre term labour
Miscarriage
Ectopic pregnancy
The adaptive immune system has a quick response with T and B cells.
True
False
Mechanism of action of glucagon in anaphylaxis
Counteracts histamine induced vasodilation.
Slows histamine cascade.
Has non-catecholamine dependent inotropic and chronotropic cardiac effects.
Prevents delayed or protracted anaphylaxis by anatagonizing Adrenergic receptor sites
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