NEETPG Full Scale Mock Test 1809 Call 9000868356 Enroll www.onlinembbs.com
Cornea is lined by
Pseudostratified epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
Stratified squamous non keratinized epitheliu
Which one of the following is not a viral infection?
Herpes zoster
Herpes genitalis
Herpangina
Herpes gestationis
A 6-year-old female presented with multiple superficial bullae. Few of these lesions were clear fluid filled, while others showed level of pus. She was febrile. Which is the most likely causative organism in such a case ?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Pseudomonas
E coli
Upper border of sternum lies at the level of
Upper border of first thoracic vertebra
Lower border of first thoracic vertebra
Upper border of second thoracic vertebra
Lower border of second thoracic vertebra
Sphenopaiatine ganglion is a
Sympathetic ganglion
Parasympathetic ganglion
Pseudo ganglion
Sensory ganglion
Which one of the following is an exogenous eczema
Atopic dermatitis
Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Allergic contact dermatitis
Discoid eczema
Psoriasis is clinically characterized by all except
Absence of nail changes
Positive auspitz sign
Development of isomorphic lesions at the sites of local trauma
Abundant, loose, dry and silvery scales
Left ovarian vein drains into
Inferior vena cava
Left renal vein
Inferior mesenteric vein
Splenic vein
Callot's triangle is bounded by all of the following except
Hepatic artery
Common hepatic duct
Inferior border of liver
Cystic duct
An 18 years old male presents in medicine emergency with two day history of high grade fever, headache and altered sensorium. On examination, neck rigidity was present and his body showed petechial spots over extremities. His likely diagnosis is
Herpes simplex meningitis
Meningococcal meningitis
Streptococcal meninaitis
Histoplasma meningitis
FRC (Functional Residual Capacity) is the
Volume of air in the lungs after maximal inspiration
Volume of air in the lungs at normal tidal expiratory level
Volume of air in the lungs after maximal expiration
Volume of air in the lungs after normal tidal inspiration
Which of the following hormones does not use adenyl cyclase-CAMP as second messenger system ?
ACTH
Calcitonin
Secretin
Oxytocin
All the following will cause an increase reabsorption of bicarbonate in the kidney except
Hyperaldosteronism
Hypercapnia
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperkalemia
All of the following are true for N2O except
N2O in the cylinders is in a liquid state
Has analgesic properties
Is a volatile anesthetic agent
Can be replaced by air for anesthesia
Which of the following statements is true for volatile anesthetic agents, at normal RTP ?
They exist in a solid state
They exist in liquid form
They exist in gaseous form
They exist both in liquid and gaseous state
Hypoxia (Pa O2 = 55 mm Hg) has all the following effects except
It stimulates carotid body chemoreceptor
It stimulates central chemoreceptor
It causes a reflex increase in ventilation
It causes a reflex increase in arterial BP
Blood pressure increases and heart rate decreases in response to
Exercise
Increased body temperature
Exposure to high altitude
Increased intra cranial pressure
Tracheostomy
Reduces work of breathing
Increases work of breathing
Increases respiratory rate
Increases dead space
Of the following, which is a CNS stimulant ?
Morphine
Cocaine
Insulin
Propofol
Connexon is an important component of the
Gap junction
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Synaptic vesicle
Sodium channel
Alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples
Primary structure
Quaternary structure
Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
Which of the following is not a feature of Cotard syndrome ?
Auditory hallucination
Nihilistic delusion
Old age
Severe depression
Which of the following is a type of cannabinoid '
Smack
Ecstasy
LSD
Marijuana
The vitamin which is not essential for citrc acid cycle is
Riboflavin
Niacin
Pantothenic acid
Retinoic acid
Regulation of blood glucose after a meal is mainly dependent on
Hexokinase
Glucokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase
All of the fol'owing are first rank symptoms schizophrenia except
Apathy
Delusional perception
Somatic passivity
Thought echo
Electroconvulsive therapy is considered the first treatment for all of the following except
Acute schizophrenia
Severe depression
Catatonia
Severe manic episode
Lipoprotein lipase is located in
Small intestine
Peripheral nerve
Walls of blood capillaries
Hepatic receptors
Ribozymes are
RNA molecules with catalytic activity
Enzymes of retina
Promoters
Poly (A) polymerase
Modafinil, a new non-amphetamine stimulant dr has been recently introduced for the treatment
Insomnia
Night terrors
Sleepwalking
Narcolepsy
The isotope which selectively gets concentrated in abscess cavities is
Gallium
Technitium
Selenium
Chromium
Oxidase Test is negative in which of the folio bacteria ?
Neisseria
Pseudomonas
Proteus
Vibrio
Interleukin - 2 promotes
Growth of fibroblast
Maturation of macrophage
B-cell differentiation
Expression of T-lymphocytes
Calcification in skull X-ray is seen in
Meningoma
Sturgeweber syndrome
Corpus callosum lipoma
Tuberous sclerosis
Calcification in heart wall is suggestive of
Scleroderma
Carcinoid syndrome
Fibroelastosis
Endomyocardial fibrosis
Non-gonococcal urethritis in male is caused by
Coxiella bumetii
Chlamydia trachomatis
Candida albicans
Cryptosporidium parvum
Most potent exotoxin is produced by
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium tetani
Vibrio cholerae
Echocardiography can detect pericardial effusions as little as
15ml
100ml
150 ml
200 ml
Characteristic X-ray finding in ASD is
Enlarged left ventricle
Enlarged left atria
Pulmonary plethora
Pulmonary artery hypertension
Which of the following establishes latent infection
Herpes virus
Yellow fever virus
Coxsackie virus
Dengue virus
The most common opportunistic infection in AIDS patient in India is
Toxoplasmosis
Cryptococcosis
Tuberculosis
Cryptosporidiosis
Which of the following statements is correct about zero order kinetics ?
A constant amount of drug in the body is eliminated per unit time
Rate of elimination is dependent on plasma drug concentration
The t1/2 of drugs undergoing zero order kinetic is always constant
Most drugs follow zero order kinetics
Which of the following drugs is not bound to the plasma proteins ?
Penicillin
Ketoconazole
Lithium carbonate
Phenylbutazone
Which of the following drugs does not undergo entero-hepatic recycling ?
Penicillin
Ampicillin
Digitoxin
Estrogen
Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily unchanged ?
Streptomycin
Isoniazid
Ethanol
Diazepam
Which of the following drugs does not require dose adjustment in the patient with renal impairment ?
Gentamicin
Morphine
Doxycycline
Digoxin
Which of the following drugs does not cross placental barrier ?
Heparin
Propranolol
Indomethacin
Phenobarbitone
'Psammoma body' is an example of
Dystrophic calcification
Dysplasia
Metaplasia
Metastatic calcification
In classical Hodgkins Lymphoma, the Reid-Stemberg cells are positive for
CD15 & CD 30
CD 30 & CD 19
CD 20 & CD 15
CD19 & CD 10
The largest cell in the development of myeloid series is
Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte
In the maturation of the RBCs the Hb starts appearing in
Early normoblast
Late normoblast
Pronormoblast
Intermediate normoblast
Vegetations in Rheumatic heart disease
Are infected in nature
Usually extend to mural endocardium an chordae tendineae
Usually produce ring abscess
Are small and warty along the line of closure of valvular leaflet
Apoptosis is characterized by
Cell shrinkage
Intense inflammatory reaction in surrounding ho tissue
Disruption of cell membrane
Nuclear swelling
Bansdola is a type of
Accidental hanging
Homicidal hanging
Homicidal strangulation
Accidental strangulation
Constricted pupils dilated on stimulation e.g. Pinching in unconscious patient suggests
Dhatura poisoning
Alcohol poisoning
Morphine overdose
Cocaine poisoning
Which of the following is related with Sin of Gomorrah ?
Sodomy
Bestiality
Cunnilingus
Masochism
Consider the following statements in relation with firearm entry and exit wounds on skull: A. Clean hole in inner table of entry wound B. Bevelled opening in outer table of entry wound C. Bevelled opening in inner table of exit wound D. Clean hole in outer table of exit wound Choose the correct option :
A is false
B and Dare-true
A, B and D are true
All are false
Under the NDPS Act 1985, following drugs are included, except
Opium/heroin
Hashish
Amphetamine
Dhatura
Which of the following was launched as a flagship programme of Government of India in 2005 ?
RNTCP
NRHM
IDSP
NLEP
In case of exposure, how many doses of cell culture vaccine should be given as post exposure prophylasis to individuals who have received complete pre-exposure vaccination ?
One dose of IM or ID
Two doses of IM or ID
One dose of intramuscular or intradermal plus RIG
Two doses of 1Mor1D plus RIG
Qualitative data cannot be graphically depicted by
Multiple bar chart
Histogram
Pie chart
Component bar chart
Which of the following statements is true about biochemical oxygen demand of sewage ?
Amount of oxygen required to oxidise the organic matter
Amount of oxygen absorbed by a sample sewage during a specified period
Amount of carbon dioxide and water released from a sewage sample
Sewage with BOD of 100 mg/l or below is termed as strong
During the pollution under control (PUC) check vehicles, which gas is checked ?
NO2
CO
Particulates
SO
Which is not a contraindication for oral contraceptive pill use ?
Anaemia
Hyperlipidemia
Cirrhosis of liver
Unexplained vaginal bleeding
Which is not a contraindication for oral contraceptive pill use ?
Anaemia
Hyperlipidemia
Cirrhosis of liver
Unexplained vaginal bleeding
Which of these activities is not carried out at Anganwari as a routine ?
Supplementary nutrition
Immunization
Non formal education
Health education
Government of India formed the following committee to give recommendations to solve the problem of child labour in India
Mudaliar
Gurupadswamy
Tendulkar
Ramakrishna
In the national nutritional programme 'Balahar' which food item is used most ?
Eggs
Soyabean
Ground nut
Sprouts
Fortification of foods with specific nutrients is an example of
Primodial prevention
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Which one of the following vaccines should never be frozen ?
Diptheria toxoid
Oral polio vaccine
MMR
BCG
Continuation phase for MDR tuberculosis is
6 months
12 months
18 months
24 months
A 43 year old lady presents with a 5 cm lump in the right breast with a 3 cm node in right supraclavicular fossa. No Clinical or radiologic sign of Metastases .Which of the following TNM stage she belongs to as per the latest AJCC staging system
T2N0M0
T1N0M0
T3N3M0
T2N3M0
Which of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid ?
It can be reliably diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology
It is always unifocal
It typically spreads to the cervical lymph node
It requires a total thyroidectomy for large tumours
A patient of peptic ulcer disease, when investigated endoscopically shows chronic antral gastritis. Which of the following dye will be able to stain the specimen ?
PAS stain
Zeil-Neelson stain
Gram stain
Warthin-Starry stain
The couinaud's segment nomenclature is based on the position of the
Hepatic vein and portal vein
Hepatic vein and biliary duct
Portal vein and biliary duct
Portal vein and hepatic artery
A patient presented with h/O diarrhoea for several years with recent onset of pruritis and increased alkaline phosphatase, normal SGOT/SGPT and USG shows no gall stones and biliary tract abnormality. The diagnosis is
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Sclerosing cholangitis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Viral hepatitis
Renal calculus is seen in massive bowel resection due to
Reduced renal excretion of calcium
Increased calcium excretion in gut
Increased oxalate absorption in gut
None of these
Distended abdomen in intestinal obstruction is due to
Diffusion of gas from blood
Fermentation of residual food
Bacterial action
Swallowed air
The most common neoplasm of appendix is
Lymphoma
Adenocarcinoma
Leiomyosarcoma
Carcinoid
Which of the following is false regarding solitary rectal ulcer ?
20% are multiple
Recent rectal prolapse is a cause
It involves posterior wall
It is managed by digital reposition
A patient operated for direct inguinal hernia developed anesthesia at the root of penis and adjacent part scrotum. The nerve likely to be injured is
Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
Iliohypogastric nerve
Ilioinguinal nerve
The narrowest part of ureter is at the
Uretero-pelvic junction
Iliac vessel crossing
Pelvic ureter
Uretero-vesical junction
Which of the following is most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostectomy?
Dorsal venous complex
Inferior vesicle pedicle
Superior vesicle pedicle
Seminal vesical artery
All the following are true about bulbar urethra rupture except
Perineal hematoma
Floating prostate on per rectal examination
Collection of urine in perineum
Bleeding per urethra
A testicular tumour in a 60 year old man is most likely to be
Germ cell tumour
Lymphoma
Teratocarcinoma
Sertoli cell tumour
All of the following are seen in persisting vomiting except
Hypokalemia
Decreased k+ in urine
Elevated ph of blood
Metabolic alkalosis
The most common origin of melanoma is from
Junctional melanocyte
Epidermal cell
Basal cell
Follicular cell
Rule of nine to estimate surface area of a I patient was introduced by
Moritz Kaposi
Alexander Wallace
Joseph Lister
Thomas Barclay
An intern was doing saphenous canulation for a patient. The patient then developed sudden on pain along the medial border of foot. Which in must have been accidently ligated ?
Sural nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
Saphenous nerve
Genicular nerve
The most common organ injured in blunt trauma abdomen is
Liver
Spleen
Pancreas
Stomach
The nerve which lies in association to wharton's tumor is
Hypoglossal
Lingual
Facial
Spinal accessory
Carotid body tumours
Arise from endothelial cells
Originate from schwann cell
May metastasize
None of these
All of the following are examples of round cell tumors except
Neuroblastoma
Ewing's sarcoma
Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
Osteosarcoma
The most radiosensitive tumour among the follow is
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Carcinoma parotid
Dysgerminoma
Osteosarcoma
Neuroblastoma's good prognostic factor is
N-myc amplification
RAS oncogene
Hyperdiploidy
All of above
The commonest malignancy in renal transplant recipient is
Skin cancer
Renal cell carcinoma
Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Transfusion of stored blood may be associated with all except
Citrate intoxication
Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Decrease in 2-3 DPG
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is useful in all, except
Treatment of metabolic acidosis
Forced alkaline diuresis
Hypercalcemia
Hypokalemia
A 1-month-old male had small red macule on the face. It gradually increased in size till 1 year of age. It remained static for few months and then started regressing. The lesion was almost completely resolved at 5 years of age. The most likely diagnosis in this case is
Infantile haemangioma
Portwine stain
Kaposiform haemangioendothelioma
Tufted angioma
The site of primary focus in congenital tuberculosis is
Liver
Lungs - Ghon's complex
Brain - Riches focus
Foetal tonsils
Which of the following is false about pseudocyesis
False belief that the patient is pregnant
Abdominal distention
Normal menstrual cycles
More common in young women
Which of the following is not true regarding lateral condyle humerus fractures ?
Salter-Harris type 4 injury
Open reduction and internal fixation is the treatment of choice
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is a complication
None of above
Which of the following is not a treatment for myositis ossificans ?
Active mobilization
Indomethacin
Low dose irradiation
Passive stretching exercises
A child is spinned around by holding his hand by his father and while doing this child started crying and does not allow to touch his elbow. Most probable diagnosis is
Radial head dislocation
Pulled elbow
Annular ligament tear
Elbow dislocation
Galeazzi fracture is
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus
Fracture of ulna and superior radioulnar join Dislocation
Fracture of distal radius and inferior radioulnai joint dislocation
Intra-articular fracture of distal radius
Occult fracture of neck of femur are best diagnose by
Bone scan
CT scan
MRI
X-Ray
The pain around hip with flexion, adduction, internal rotation of lower limb in a young adult after accident is suggestive of
Posterior hip dislocation
Anterior hip dislocation
Fracture neck of femur
Fracture shaft of femur
Stability of ankle joint is maintained by all of the following except
Spring ligament
Deltoid ligament
Anterior talofibular ligament
Posterior talofibular ligament
Blount's disease is
Tibia vara
Genuvalgum
Flat foot
Genu recurvatum
A patient presented with a compound fracture of tibia with a wound of 3 cm with moderate crushing of soft tissue. What grade of GUSTILO ANDERSON classification it comes under
Grade I
Grade II
Grade III A
Grade III C
Recurrent dislocation most commonly occurs at
Knee joint
Shoulder joint
Ankle Joint
Hip joint
Scintillating scotoma is a feature of
Glaucoma
Pituitary lesion
Occipital lesion
Migraine
Smokestack sign is seen in
Central serous retinopathy
Glaucoma
Vitreous degeneration
Pituitary tumours
Elevated episcleral pressure as a cause for secondary glaucoma is seen in all except
Sturge Weber syndrome
Orbital varices
Posner Schlossman syndrome
Carotid cavernous fistula
Arlt's triangle is a feature of
Cyclitis
Pigmentary glaucoma
Sturm's conoid
Trachoma
Vogt striae is seen in
Congenital glaucoma
Keratoconus
Exfoliation syndrome
Myopia
Juvenile Retinoschisis is
Splitting of retinal layers at nerve fibre layer
Separation of neurosensory retina from pigment epithelium
Separation of retina at ora serrata
Separation of retina and choroid from bruch's membrane
Laser used for refractive surgery is
Argon laser
Diode laser
Yag laser
Excimer laser
Paralytic squint is characterised by all except
Diplopia
Vertigo
Primary deviation more than secondary deviation
False projection
Pupil is dilated in all the following conditions except
Adie's syndrome
Belladona poisoning
Horner's syndrome
Amaurosis
Horner-Trantas spots are seen in
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Spring catarrh
Atopic conjunctivitis
Trachoma
On otological examination all of the following will have positive fistula test, except
Dead ear
Labyearinthine fistula
Hypermobile stapes footplate
Following fenestration surgery
All of the following steps are done in Radical Mastoidectomy except
Lowering of facial ridge
Removal of middle ear mucosa and muscles
Removal of all ossicles except stapes footplate
Maintenance of patency of eustachian tube
Which of the following is not present at birth ?
Ear ossicles
Mastoid tip
Ethmoidal paranasal sinuses
Mastoid antrum
The commonest sinus involved in infection in infants and children is
Frontal
Maxillary
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
A 27 year old woman is suffering from bilateral hearing loss for 5 years which has worsened with her pregnancy. On tympanogram which of the following curve is obtained
Ad
As
B
A
A 6 year old child presented with history of recurrent upper respiratory tract infection, mouth breathing, nasal obstruction, hearing impairment. Management will be
Tonsillectomywith grommet insertion
Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
Myearingotomy with grommet insertion
Adenotonsillectomy
In complete cleft palate, hard palate is totally separated from
Maxilla
Vomer
Soft palate
All of these
Trotter's triad is a feature of
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Oropharyngeal carcinoma
Carcinoma larynx
Carcinoma of maxillary antrum
Vestibule is present in all of the following except
Nose
Middle ear
Larynx
Inner ear
High frequency sound is given during audiometry to test auditory function in a
Patient with history suggestive of otosclerosis
Patient with meniere's disease
Person suspected of malingering
Patient treated with gentamycin
Which of the following is not true regarding progesterone-only pill ?
It can be used in post natal period
It has to be taken at the same time daily
The main mechanism of action is to inhibit Ovulation
Preffered over combined pill in smokers
Which of the following is considered as strongest marker of Down's syndrome ?
I ntraventricular cardiac focus
Echogenic bowel
Nuchal translucency
Ventricular dilatation
Which of the following is not true regarding hormone replacement therapy ?
It should be given in women with premature ovarian failure
It increases the risk of colorectal cancer
Increases the risk of stroke
Increases the risk of breast cancer
Which of the following is used as first line in management of shoulder dystocia ?
Zavanelli maneuver
Wood's maneuver
McRoberts maneuver
Applying fundal pressure
Which of the following conditions causes more of fetal blood loss than maternal ?
Abruptio placenta
Placenta previa
Vasa previa
None of these
Which of the following antitubercular drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy ?
INH
Rifampicin
Streptomycin
Pyearazinamide
Which of the following is not assessed in Bishop's score ?
Cervical dilatation
Cervical effacement
Station of head
Status of membranes
All are strong indicators of heart disease in pregnancy except ?
Systolic murmur
Diastolic murmur
Raised JVP
Central cyanosis
All are true about renal changes in pregnancy except
Increase in GFR
Increase in renal blood flow
Increase in tubular reabsorption of glucose
Dilatation of ureters
Which of the following is the most reliable diagnostic technique for placenta previa increta ?
Doppler ultrasound
Ct scan
MRI
None of these
Laproscopy is the method of assessing the severity of which of the following conditions ?
Adenomyosis
Endometriosis
Fibroid uterus
Ectopic pregnancy
In a patient with enteric fever bone and joint infection is seen specially in children having
Aplastic anemia
HIV disease
Sickle-cell disease
HbsAg-positive hepatitis
Which of the following is false regarding menopause ?
Bone mass density decreases
FSH levels decrease
Estrogen levels decrease
AMG levels decrease
Anencephaly can be diagnosed at the earliest
10 weeks
2 weeks
14 weeks
16 weeks
Leision shown in Fig is caused by
Microsporon
Trichophyton
Epidermophyton
Candida
Infectious stage of Plasmodium is
Trophozoite
Cryptozoite
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Which of the following parameters of pelvic in be assessed clinically ?
Anatomical conjugate
Obstetric conjugate
Diagonal conjugate
Transverse diameter
Which of these is a rotational forceps with a sliding lock?
Piper forceps
Das forceps
Kielland forceps
None of these
Reservoir of Skin condition shown in Figure in the woman from Bihar is
Man
Dog
Pig
Cattle
In secondary syphilis, which one of the following features is NOT found?
Maculopapular rashes
Generalized nontender lymphadenopathy
Aortitis
Follicular syphilides
All of the following are complications in baby of diabetic mother except
Polycythemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnesemia
Which of the following hormone secreted anterior pituitary helps in breast milk synthes secretion ?
Oxytocin
Progesterone
Estrogen
Prolactin
Consider the following: 1. Giardiasis 2. Microfilaria 3. Macrofilaria 4. Cestodes In the treatment of which of these is albendazole the preferred drug?
1,2,3, and 4
2 and 4
l and 4
1 only
Which one of the following antibiotics is not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Ceftazidime
Piperacillin
Vancomycin
Aztreonam
Which of the following is contraindicated in hypertensive woman ?
Syntocinon
Dinoprostone
Ergometrine
Misoprostol
Which of the following is not used in radiotherapy ?
Beta rays
Gamma rays
X-rays
Alpha rays
Propranolol is indicated in the following conditions except
Intermittent claudication
Portal hypertension
Migraine
Benign essential tremors
Prolonged allopurinol therapy in a patient with gout is NOT indicated for
Acute gouty arthritis
Tophi
Urate nephropathy
Evidence of bone/joint damage
Radioactive phosphorus emits
Beta rays
X-rays
Gamma rays
Both beta and gamma rays
Which of the following has the longest half life ?
Radon
Radium
Uranium
Cesium
Hypertriglyceridemia is NOT caused by
Diabetes mellitus
Obesity
Alcohol
Cigarette smoking
Pseudo-fractures are seen in
Osteomalacia
Multiple myeloma
Osteoporosis
Skeletal metastasis
Which of the following is least affected by radiations?
Gonads
Gastrointestinal tract
Cartiliage
Lymphocytes
Which of the following is used as an inhalational anaesthetic agent ?
Propofol
Desflurane
Tramadol
Rocuronium
Mycosis fungoides is a
Mycosis fungoides is a
T-cell lymphoma
T-cell leukemia
B-cell leukemia
The earliest sensation to be lost in Hansen's disease is
Touch
Temperature
Pain
Vibration
Which of the following is a choice of replacement fluid If you are correcting only dehydration ?
Dextrose 5%
NS
Ringer Lactate
Albumin
Most children of obstructive sleep apnoea benefit from
Adenotonsillectomy
Nasal decongestant
Sleeping in prone position
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
A 30-year-old nurse whose job requires frequent hand washing has noted a small erosive skin lesion between third interdigital web of right hand. The best therapy for this condition would be
Topical 5-fluorouracil
Topical clotrimazole
Oral griseofulvin
Topical hydrocortisone
Which of the following is a live vaccine ?
Measles
Meningococcal
Pneumococcal
Hapatitis
Palpable purpura may be seen in the following except
Scurvy
Acute meningococcemia
Vasculitis
Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia
Which foot bone does not have any muscle attachment?
Talus
Calcaneum
Navicular
1st metatarsal
The optimum duration of treatment for meningococcal meningitis is ?
2 weeks
3 weeks
10 days
5-7 days
The acid fastness of tubercular bacillus is due to
Teichoic acid
Polysaccharides
Mycolic acid
Pipecolic acid
In the Radius bone , Label B provides attachment to-
Brachialis
Biceps brachii
Triceps
Coracobrachialis
In which group of children indurations follow tuberculin testing 5 mm or more is considered significant and positive
More than 5 years
Close contact with known or suspected tuberci disease
Children with diabetes mellitus
Children with lymphoma
Which of the following muscle cause hip extension and knee flexion ?
Semitendinosus
Gastrosoleus
Psoas major
Tensor Fascia lata
All of the following are true about the root of right lung except-
Azygous vein crosses anteriorly and superiorly
Vagus crosses it anteriorly
Phrenic nerve crosses it anteriorly
SVC is present anteriorly
The site of primary focus in congenital tuberculosis is
Liver
Lungs - Ghon's complex
Brain - Riches focus
Foetal tonsils
The triangle of safety for insertion of a chest tube is defined by
Anterior border of latissimus dorsi, posterior border of pectoralis major, and superior border or 8th rib
Anterior border of latissimus dorsi, lateral border of pectoralis minor, and superior border of 5th rib
Anterior border of latissimus dorsi, posterior border of pectoralis major, and superior border of 5th rib
Anterior border of latissimus dorsi, lateral border of pectoralis minor, and superior border of 8th rib
Typical intercostal space has-
One artery
Two arteries
Three arteries
Four arteries
Supraventricular crest lies between-
Pulmonary orifice and atrioventricular orifice
Atrioventricular orifice and fossa ovalis
SVC and right atrium
Right an dleft coronary artery
Which one of the following is not a contraindication to breastfeeding?
Infection of the breast
Psychiatric illness under treatment
Hepatitis B infection of the mother
Severe cleft palate with harelip
Nerve supply of cervical esophagus -
Vagus
Left recurrent larynageal nerve
Right recurrent larynageal nerve
All of the above
The cervix of the prepubertal female:The cervix of the prepubertal female:
Makes up 2/3rd of entire uterus
Makes up 1/3 of entire uterus
Makes up 1/3rd of entire uterus
Is equal in size to fundus
Which one of the following muscles does not meet and fuse at the perineal body? (AHMS Dec 1995)
Bulbocavernosus
Levator ani
Ischiocavernosus
Superficial transverse perinea
True about relations of thoracic esophagus -
Trachea posteriorly
Aortic arch on right side
Left bronchus anteriorly
Thoracic duct on right side
Which vein is found at the apex of the heart ?
Great cardiac vein
Coronary Sinus
Anterior cardiac vein
Middle cardiac vein
To diagnose detrusor instability (unstable bladder) which investigation is needed
Cystoscopy
Cystometry
Urethral pressure profilometry
Ultrasound of bladder
Sexual precocity as often seen in
Gauchers disease
Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome
Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
Albrights syndrome
Xiphisternum is present at what level ?
T5
T6
T9
T10
Non-specific nuclei of thalamus is related to which sense / function -
Arousal / alerting
Pain & temperature
Olfaction
Posture
For which one of the following types of bleeding patterns are the progestogens not indicated?
Anovulatory cyclical bleeding
Anovulatory prolonged cycles
Ovulatory heavy cycles
Premenstrual spotting
What is the cause of this finding in 14 year old girl presenting with Abdominal pain ?
Atresia of the vagina
Atresia or stenosis of the cervix
Rudimentary uterus
Imperforate hymen
Rate limiting step in facilitated diffiision-
Availability of contransport
Conformational change in transporter
Synthesis of carrier protein
Polarization of solute
Following occurs in living cells only-
Simple diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Osmosis
Active transport
In a case of genital tuberculosis which one of the following features is not suggestive of the disease?
Blue uterus
Perisalpingitis
Vaginal stenosis
Ovarian abscess
In vaginal infection, fishy odor is characteristic of
Trichomonas
Candida
Chlamydia
Gardnerella
Concentration of urea on one side (side A) of permeable membrane is 20 and on other side (side B) is 40. If concentration on side A is increased to 40, what will happen to rate of diffusion-
It will become double
It will become four times
It will become four times
It will be reduced four time
Myelination in CNS is done by-
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Ependymal cells
Microglia
A pregnant woman comes with acute pain in the lower abdomen. The least common diagnosis is
Acute PID
Cystitis
Acute appendicitis
Twisted ovarian cyst
Expectant line of management in a case of placenta previa is contraindicated in
Preterm pregnancy
Intrauterine death
Breech presentation
Previous LSCS
Blood brain barrier is formed by-
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Ependymal cells
Microglia
Which of the following are unmyelinated nerve fibers-
Proprioceptive fibers
Motor neuron to muscle
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
Motor nerve to intrafusal fibers
In the case of in vitro fertilization, for fertilization of oocyte, the most important item is
Nongranular cytoplasm
Expanded corona radiata
Follicular size of 20 x 26 mm
Expanded cumulus mass
Which one of the following drugs is not effective in inducing ovulation?
Clomiphene
Cyclofenil
Gonadotropins
Sensory receptors with delayed recovery and least coverage-
Pacinion corpuscle
RufHni endings
Meissner corpuscle
Merkel'sdisc
Leptin is secreted by-
Ovaries
Adipose tissue
Liver
Hypothalamus
Which extrapyramidal tract act along with lateral spinothalamic tract-
Reticulospinal tract
Rubrospinal tract
Tectospinal tract
Vestibulospinal tract
Threshold level for neuronal action potential-
-70 mv
+70 mv
-55 mv
+55 mv
Position in decorticate rigidity -
Flexion of elbow and extension of knee
Extension of elbow and flexion of knee
Flexion of elbow and knee
Extension of elbow and knee
All are seen in Fight-or-Flight response, except-
Bronchoconstriction
Tachycardia
Mydriasis
Coronary vasodilatation
All are true regarding corticospinal tract except-
Also called pyramidal tract
Maximum fibers arise from primary motor cortex
Forms pyramids in medulla
80% fibers are crossed
All are true regarding corticospinal tract except-
Also called pyramidal tract
Maximum fibers arise from primary motor cortex
Forms pyramids in medulla
80% fibers are crossed
What are the enzymes required for the formation of Phosphoenolpyruvate from Pyruvate?
Pyruvate dehydrogenase and Pyruvate carboxylase
Lactate Dehydrogenase and Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
Pyruvate carboxylase and Phosphoenolpyruvate Carboxykinase
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase and Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
Maximum number of energy rich phosphate is formed from which of the following pathways?
Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis
HMP shunt
Citric acid cycle
Source of ATP in RBCs is -
Glucose
Fatty acid
Aminoacid
Ketonebody
What is the inhibitor of Carnitine PalmitoyI Transferase-1 [CPT-1]-
Omega three fatty acid is-
Linoleic acid
Arachidonic acid
Cervonic acid
Oleic acid
A 45-year-old female with history of postcoital bleeding exhibits a cauliflower growth on anterior lip of cervix. Which biopsy is preferred to make a diagnosis?
Surface biopsy (Pap smear)
Punch biopsy
Wedge biopsy
Cone biopsy
Which one of the following is not included in the medical treatment of Endometriosis?
GnRH analogues
Estrogen and progestins
Progestins alone
RU-486 (mifepristone)
Which 2 additional enzymes required in Beta Oxidation of PUFA?
Dienoyl CoA isorrrerase and Enoyl CoA reductase
Dienoyl CoA isomerase and Dienoyl CoA reductase
Enoyl CoA racemase and Enoyl CoA reductase
Enoyl CoA isomerase and 2,4 Dienoyl CoA reductase
WHO defines adolescent age group as (UPSC 2004II question 32)
14-21 years
13-20 years
10-19 years
10-17 years
On which one of the following parameters is Billings method of contraception based?
Cervical mucus study
Menstrual cycle length
Temperature chart
Combination of cervical mucus and BBT
Carnitine shuttle is involved in -
Fatty acid synthesis
Fatty acid oxidation
Cholesterol synthesis
Bile acid synthesis
With reference to IUCD, which one of the following statements is not correct?
It prevents uterine pregnancy
It increases the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease
It should be advised in women with Mullerian duct anomaly
It prevents sexually transmitted diseases
The effect of Lipotropic agents on fat metabolism is
Increases the rate of fatty acid synthesis in liver
Increases the rate of lipid output from liver
Increases the rate of cholesterol synthesis in liver
Decreases the rate of cholesterol synthesis in liver
Centchroman is a
Hormonal contraceptive
Nonhormonal contraceptive
Spermicidal agent
Subcutaneous implant
Which one of the following is the infective period of measles?
4 days before the onset of symptoms and 5 days thereafter
Few hours to 5 days
16 days from the onset of rash
30 days from the onset of rash
Consider the following: 1. Cervix 2. Breast - 3. Endometrium The risk of carcinoma of which of these is increased by obesity?
1 and 2
1 and 3
2 and 3
1,2, and 3
Example for a conjugated protein is -
Heme
Chylomicron
Albumin
Histone
Intake of high protein diet causes-
Increased gluconeogenesis
Increased beta oxidation
Decreased glycogenolysis
Metabolic alkalosis
The high prevalence of chronic noncommunicable diseases in a society is a direct indicator of
Increased life expectancy
Better utilization of health services
Changes in lifestyle
Improved diagnostic techniques
A mother comes with an infant who was given the first dose of DPT and OPV vaccine 6 months ago. What is to be done regarding vaccination?
No further vaccinations
Repeating the schedule starting afresh
Administering the second dose
Starting with other vaccines due according to age
Prevention of bagassosis includes the spraying of bagasse with
1% acetic acid
2% acetic acid
1% propionic acid
2% propionic acid
Prospective genetic counseling is the application of which level of prevention?
Primordial
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Tyrosine deficiency causes -
Depression
Hyperthyroidism
Hyperpigmentation
Phenylketonuria
Recessive sex-linked traits include the following diseases except
G6PD deficiency
Albinism
Hemophilia
Red-green color blindness
Normally during a social research survey, which one of the following dimensions is not addressed?
Social psychology
Social structure
Social pathology
Social institutions
The entire communication process related to a health issue basically intends to change
Awareness levels
Sensitivity and receptivity thresholds
Behavior
Practices
Mental deterioration may occur due to the deficiency of
Thiamine
Vitamin D
Pyridoxine
Vitamin C
Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunize target population in a village with a population of 5,000, where the birth rate is 30/1,000 and IMR 100/1,000 live births assuming wastage of 50%, is
135
150
240
270
Population usually covered by an anganwadi area is
1,000
2,500
3,000
5,000
Which one of the following is the best medium for transporting cholera patient's stool to the laboratory from the field?
Bile salt agar (BSA)
Cary-Blair medium (CBM)
Modified Venkatraman Ramakrishnan (VR) medium
Peptone water tellurite medium (PWTM)
United Nations General Assembly established "UNICEF" in the year
1946
1952
1958
1960
Which one of the following combinations is of DPT vaccine?
Toxoid, live, and killed
Toxoid, killed, and toxoid
Live, killed, and toxoid
Killed, killed, and toxoid
Regarding growth plate injury labelled C Shown in Figure, which ONE of the following statements is FALSE?
The epiphysis separates completely from the metaphysis
There is tenderness over the growth plate on examination but no radiological abnormality
A displaced epiphysis in type I injury is usually difficult to reduce
Type I injuries are caused by shearing and avulsion forces compared with type V injuries, which are caused by axial compression
Disease-specific human immunoglobulin is not available for
Tetanus
Gas gangrene
Measles
Hepatitis B
Regarding physeal (growth plate) injuries in children, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?
The most common site for the Salter-Harris type III fracture is the distal end of the tibia
Fractures of the lateral condyle of the humerus can be treated conservatively
Injuries to the growth plate occur in one-third of all bony injuries in children
Avascular necrosis of the epiphysis is a complication
Regarding a diagnosis of nerve injuries when assessing a child with a supracondylar fracture of the humerus, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
Inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger and the interphalangeal joint of the thumb indicates injury to the anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve
If the child is able to fully extend the thumb it excludes a radial nerve injury
If the child is able to fully abduct all fingers it excludes an ulnar nerve injury
Inability to make a fist is usually secondary to pain and should not be considered as a median nerve injury
The vector of Brugia malayi is (UPSC 2010II question 90)
Aedes
Anopheles
Culex
Mansonia
Life span of a mosquito ranges
Between 7 and 15 days
Between 15 and 30 days
Between 8 and 34 days
More than 34 days
Regarding emergency department (ED) management of a supracondylar humeral fracture in a child, which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate step?
Immobilisation of the elbow with flexion >90 degrees in all patients
Immediate manipulation in the operating theatre (OT) if the radial pulse is lost during hyperflexion of the elbow for immobilisation
Referral for admission for relevant Gartland type 2 and all type 3 fractures
Immobilisation in flexion when the elbow is significantly swollen
Regarding distal humeral fractures in children, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
A lateral condylar fracture with <2 mm of displacement requires operative management
Medial condylar fractures are rare in children
Medial epicondylar avulsion occurs in children <5 years old
Vascular compromise is common with lateral condylar fractures
In which one of the following conditions are painful, red, raised lesions found on the hands and feet found?
Acute rheumatic fever
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Infective endocarditis
Leprosy
Spinal shock is characterised by which ONE of the following?
Hypotension
Hypovolaemia
Flaccid paralysis
Bradycardia
In adolescence, maximum gain in height for girls is observed during
Postmenstrual stage
Premenstrual stage
Sexual maturity stage—I
Sexual maturity stage—II—III
A change in color of the urine on standing is characteristic of
Cystinuria
Phenylketonuria
Homocystinuria
Alkaptonuria
Regarding ED management of a young adult with an acute spinal cord injury, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
Hypotension should be managed with vasopressors as it is usually secondary to neurogenic shock
Suxamethonium should not be used as a paralytic agent during rapid sequence intubation
There is high-quality evidence to support the early use of corticosteroids
A nasogastric tube should be inserted early during ED management
In which one of the following conditions isSSPEa late complication
Enteric fever
German measles
Herpes zoster
Measles
Regarding zygomatic fractures due to blunt facial trauma, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
The ‘tripod’ fracture involves the infraorbital rim
Diplopia is not a feature, as the orbit is not involved
Associated lateral conjunctival haemorrhages is rare
It causes proptosis
Which ONE of the following is a cause of saline unresponsive metabolic alkalosis?
Thiazide diuretic use
Protracted vomiting
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Cystic fibrosis
In children, the following are true of speech development except
Children pronounce simple sounds such as "da-da" at 8 months
Children voice single, intelligible words at 13 months
Simple 2- to 3-word sentences are composed at 15 months
Children can identify 4 to 5 picture cards at 2 years
The primitive reflex that persists throughout life is
Moro reflex
Tonic neck reflex
Palmar grasp reflex
Parachute reflex
Which ONE of the following conditions is associated with DYELCTROLYTEMIA leading to the ECG Changes shown in Figure?
Beta-blockers
Metabolic alkalosis
Advanced paternal age is associated with
New mutations of autosomal dominant disorders
Autosomal recessive disorders
Cornelia de Lange's syndrome
Down's syndrome
The hallmark of the clinical condition shown in the following 2D Echo on auscultation of heart is diagnosed on clinical finding of
Late systolic click and early systolic murmur
Midsystolic click and early systolic murmur
Midsystolic click and late systolic murmur
Early systolic click and holosystolic murmur
A 3-year-old male child is referred from primary health center to the pediatric emergency with the diagnosis of very severe pneumonia. The following criteria are essential for diagnosis of very severe pneumonia as per ARI programme except
Respiratory rate 48/minute
Central cyanosis
Inability to feed
Extensive crepitations on chest auscultation
A 15-year-old boy presents with weakness in the lower limbs that has progressed to involve the trunk over the last 6 days. Examination shows reduced power in muscles of the lower limbs, abdomen, and chest; deep tendon reflexes are absent. Cerebrospinal fluid examination shows no cells, sugar 80 mg/dL and protein 80 mg/dL.The treatment of choice is
Intravenous methylprednisolone
Intravenous immunoglobulin
Intravenous antithymocyte globulin
Oral cyclosporin and prednisolone
An 8-month-old boy is referred for evaluation following a urinary tract infection. Ultrasound examination of the abdomen is normal. The most appropriate investigation to evaluate his lower urinary tract is
Radionuclide cystogram
Micturating cystourethrogram
Intravenous pyelogram
Cystoscopy
What is the venous hematocrit level at which you will diagnose polycythemia in a newborn?
55%
60%
65%
70%
A 48-year-old alcoholic man presents to the ED after an episode of syncope. . Which ONE of the following electrolyte imbalances would LEAST likely be a cause the ECG shown in Figure ?
Hypomagnesaemia secondary to nutritional deficiency
Hypokalaemia secondary to vomiting
Hyponatraemia secondary to liver cirrhosis
Hypocalcaemia secondary to increased calcium excretion
Which ONE of the following ECG findings would you LEAST expect to see in a patient with hyperkalaemia?
Tall, symmetrical peaked T waves
Shortened PR interval
Shortened QT interval
Widening of QRS complex
Which ONE of the following is NOT a potential complication in the treatment of metabolic acidosis with sodium bicarbonate?
Dehydration
Overshoot alkalosis
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) acidosis
Hypercapnoea and respiratory failure
Regarding disseminated gonococcal infection, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
The typical rash consists of generalized petechiae
It should be suspected in a sexually active person with typical skin rash, tenosynovitis and arthralgia
The diagnosis can be confirmed with culture of organisms from mucosal surfaces such as cervical, vaginal or urethral surfaces
It is often associated with systemic toxicity
Regarding drug eruptions seen in the ED, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Exanthematous drug reactions are more likely in patients infected with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), HIV and patients with leukaemia
Urticaria in a patient, if drug induced, should arise within 1 week from the time of first exposure to the medication
Fixed drug eruptions have solitary or multiple oval plaques with central blisters
Type II and type IV hypersensitivity reactions may cause TEN
Regarding blistering skin disorders that may be encountered in the ED, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
The morphological appearance of a blister depends on the site of intercellular split in the epidermis
Blistering diseases are not due to immunological reactions
Bullous pemphigoid mainly affects children
The diagnosis is complex in blistering disorders in children as a wide differential diagnoses have to be considered
Regarding the infectious condition shown in Figure , which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?
It is caused by both coxackievirus A16 and enterovirus 71
When a rash appears the condition is non-infectious
Erythema multiforme and pustular psoriasis are important differential diagnoses to consider
Infection is usually spread by faeco-oral contamination
Regarding herpes simplex infections in children, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1 is commonly involved in skin infections of the face
Herpetic whitlow is often misdiagnosed as bacterial infection
Eczema herpeticum is the disseminated herpes simplex infection associated with atopic eczema
Typical herpes vesicles
Regarding anticoagulation therapy with warfarin, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
Age is not a risk factor for over-coagulation
The two available brands of warfarin, Coumadin and Marevan, are bioequivalent and interchangeable
About 50% of bleeding episodes occur while the international normalised ratio (INR) is <4.0
Unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin should always be given concurrently until the INR is therapeutic
A 60-year-old male is referred by his general practitioner (GP) with an INR of >10. He has no active bleeding. He is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate action?
He should receive FFP, prothrombinex and 5–10 mg vitamin K intravenously
He should be given 5 mg of the intravenous preparation of vitamin K orally
He should be admitted and observed with daily INR testing
Vitamin K 5–10 mg should be given intravenously
Which ONE of the following is TRUE regarding complications associated with the use of heparin?
Bleeding is a major complication of heparininduced thrombocytopaenia (HIT)
Protamine is not indicated in bleeding associated with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
A drop of 50% or more from baseline is considered evidence of HIT, even if the platelet count is within normal range
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) should be substituted with LMWH if HIT occurs and ongoing anticoagulation is required
Regarding thrombolytic therapy for acute is chaemic stroke, which ONE of the following is TRUE?
Tenecteplase, a third generation fibrinolytic, is approved for treatment of acute ischaemic stroke
Intravenous alteplase (rtPA) is given as a weight-based dose via an infusion over 60 minutes
Aspirin should be given immediately once an intracranial bleed is excluded on CT
After thrombolysis, patients should receive heparin anticoagulation at a reduced dose
Regarding laboratory tests in the evaluation of anaemia, which ONE of the following is FALSE?
Direct Coombs’ test is used to detect antibodies in the serum and is positive in autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
An increased red cell distribution width (RDW) can indicate an early deficiency anaemia (iron, vitamin B12 or folate)
The hallmark of thalassaemia is microcytic, hypochromic haemolytic anaemia
RDW is useful in differentiating iron deficiency from thalassaemia
Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding clinical features that are MOST consistent with the associated underlying cause of acute renal failure (ARF)?
Acute renal artery occlusion is usually asymptomatic
Arthralgia and rash are uncommon with acute interstitial nephritis
Papillary necrosis may present with fever, flank pain and haematuria
An autoimmune aetiology rarely presents with fever
Regarding the causes of ARF, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
Prerenal causes are responsible for 20% of community-acquired ARF
Infection is the most common cause of acute interstitial nephritis
Up to 90% of community-acquired cases have a potentially reversible cause
Glomerular disease is the most common cause of intrinsic renal failure
Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding mortality associated with ARF?
Mortality has improved over the past few decades due to the introduction of dialysis
The most common cause of death associated with ARF is sepsis
Mortality rates are higher in older patients compared with those of young adults
Mortality rates in children with ARF average 5%
Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding mortality associated with ARF?
Mortality has improved over the past few decades due to the introduction of dialysis
The most common cause of death associated with ARF is sepsis
Mortality rates are higher in older patients compared with those of young adults
Mortality rates in children with ARF average 5%
Medications may precipitate renal failure. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
Development of hyperkalemia shortly after initiation of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy is an indicator of imminent renal failure
Volume depletion is a common precipitant of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced ARF but not ACE inhibitor therapy
Angiotensin-receptor blockers, unlike ACE inhibitors, do not precipitate renal failure
Renal effects of selective cyclooxygenase –2 inhibitors (most new generation NSAIDs) are similar to those of non-selective cyclooxygenase inhibitors
Medications may precipitate renal failure. Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
Development of hyperkalemia shortly after initiation of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy is an indicator of imminent renal failure
Volume depletion is a common precipitant of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced ARF but not ACE inhibitor therapy
Angiotensin-receptor blockers, unlike ACE inhibitors, do not precipitate renal failure
Renal effects of selective cyclooxygenase –2 inhibitors (most new generation NSAIDs) are similar to those of non-selective cyclooxygenase inhibitors
The type of anemia associated with orotic aciduria is
Megaloblastic
Microcytic hypochromic
Normocytic hypochromic
Normocytic normochromic
In 10 month old child needing CPR, chest compression should be done with
2 finger technique
Encircling 2 thumb technique
2 palms
One palm
Cardiac lesion associated with Holt-Oram syndrome is
VSD
ASD
PDA
Pulmonary valvular stenosis
Which congenital heart disease is usually associated in Noonan's syndrome ?
Bicuspid aortic valve
Coarctation of aorta
Pulmonary valve dysplasia
Floppy m itral valve
Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy is seen in infants of diabetic mothers ?
Dilated
Hypertrophic
Restrictive
Arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
A child can hop on one foot, can use scissors to cut pictures and tells story but cannot skip on both feet. The most probable age of child would be
2 years
2 years and 6 months
4 years
5 years
The best way to prevent sudden infant death syndrome is to make the infant sleep in
Lateral posture on soft bed
Prone position on soft bed
Prone position on hard bed
Supine position on firm bed
A 7 year old child presented with pneumonia, myringitis bullosa and erythema multiforme. The most likely diagnosis is
Pneumococcal infection
Staphylococcal infection
Tubercular infection
Mycoplasma infection
The management of choice for gynaecomastia in otherwise asymptomatic adolescents is
Wait-watch-spontaneous recovery
Surgical removal of extra breast tissue
Aromatase inhibitor
Antiestrogens
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