Gyneco(1-50)
Gynecology Quiz Challenge
Test your knowledge with our comprehensive Gynecology Quiz designed for students, teachers, and healthcare professionals. This quiz features 50 multiple-choice questions covering various aspects of gynecological health, prenatal care, and common medical treatments.
Join us to enhance your understanding and reinforce your learning!
- 50 Engaging Questions
- Focus on Women's Health
- Ideal for Medical Students and Professionals
A 20-year-old female presents to your office for routine well-woman examination. She has a history of acne, for which she takes minocycline and isotretinoin on a daily basis. She also has a history of epilepsy that is well controlled on valproic acid. She also takes a combined oral contracep- tive birth control pill containing norethindrone acetate and ethinyl estra- diol. She is a nonsmoker but drinks alcohol on a daily basis. She is concerned about the effectiveness of her birth control pill, given all the medications that she takes. She is particularly worried about the effects of her medications on a developing fetus in the event of an unintended preg- nancy. Which of the following drugs has the lowest potential to cause birth defects?
A. Alcohol
B. Isotretinoin (Accutane)
C. Tetracyclines
D. Progesterone
E. Valproic acid (Depakote)
A patient presents for prenatal care in the second trimester. She was born outside the United States and has never had any routine vaccinations. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Tetanus
C. Typhoid
D. Hepatitis B
E. Measles
Your 25-year-old patient is pregnant at 36 weeks gestation. She has an acute urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following medications is contraindicated in the treatment of the UTI in this patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
D. Cephalexin
E. Amoxicillin/clavulanate
You diagnose a 21-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation with gonorrhea cervicitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her infection?
A. Doxycycline
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Tetracycline
D. Minocycline
E. Ceftriaxone
A 36-year-old G0 who has been epileptic for many years is contem- plating pregnancy. She wants to go off her phenytoin because she is con- cerned about the adverse effects that this medication may have on her unborn fetus. She has not had a seizure in the past 5 years. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement to make to the patient?
A. Babies born to epileptic mothers have an increased risk of structural anomalies even in the absence of anticonvulsant medications.
B. She should see her neurologist to change from phenytoin to valproic acid because valproic acid is not associated with fetal anomalies.
C. She should discontinue her phenytoin because it is associated with a 1% to 2 % risk of spina bifida.
D. Vitamin C supplementation reduces the risk of congenital anomalies in fetuses of epileptic women taking anticonvulsants.
E. The most frequently reported congenital anomalies in fetuses of epileptic women are limb defects.
At 1 year of age, a child has six deciduous teeth, which are discolored and have hypoplasia of the enamel. Match the appropriate scenario with the antibiotic most likely responsible for the clinical findings presented.
A. Tetracycline
B. Streptomycin
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Sulfonamides
During routine auditory testing of a 2-day-old baby, the baby failed to respond to high-pitched tones. Match the appropriate scenario with the antibiotic most likely responsible for the clinical findings presented.
A. Tetracycline
B. Streptomycin
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Chloramphenicol
E. Sulfonamides
A 24-year-old primigravida with twins presents for routine ultra- sonography at 20 weeks gestation. Based on the ultrasound findings, the patient is diagnosed with dizygotic twins. Which of the following is true regarding the membranes and placentas of dizygotic twins?
A. They are dichorionic and monoamniotic only if the fetuses are of the same sex.
B. They are dichorionic and monoamniotic regardless of the sex of the fetuses.
C. They are monochorionic and monoamniotic if they are conjoined twins.
D. They are dichorionic and diamniotic regardless of the sex of the twins.
E. They are monochorionic and diamniotic if they are of the same sex.
After delivery of a term infant with Apgar scores of 2 at 1 minute and 7 at 5 minutes, you ask that umbilical cord blood be collected for pH. The umbilical arteries carry which of the following?
A. Oxygenated blood to the placenta
B. Oxygenated blood from the placenta
C. Deoxygenated blood to the placenta
D. Deoxygenated blood from the placenta
During the routine examination of the umbilical cord and placenta after a spontaneous vaginal delivery, you notice that the baby had only one umbilical artery. Which of the following is true regarding the finding of a single umbilical artery?
A. It is a very common finding and is insignificant.
B. It is a rare finding in singleton pregnancies and is therefore not significant.
C. It is an indicator of an increased incidence of congenital anomalies of the fetus.
D. It is equally common in newborns of diabetic and nondiabetic mothers.
E. It is present in 5% of all births.
A 22-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation by LMP presents to labor and delivery complaining of decreased fetal movement. She has had no pre- natal care. On the fetal monitor there are no contractions. The fetal heart rate is 150 beats per minute and reactive. There are no decelerations in the fetal heart tracing. An ultrasound is performed in the radiology department and shows a 28-week fetus with normal-appearing anatomy and size con- sistent with dates. The placenta is implanted on the posterior uterine wall and its margin is well away from the cervix. A succenturiate lobe of the pla- centa is seen implanted low on the anterior wall of the uterus. Doppler flow studies indicate a blood vessel is traversing the cervix connecting the two lobes. This patient is most at risk for which of the following?
A. Premature rupture of the membranes
B. Fetal exsanguination after rupture of the membranes
C. Torsion of the umbilical cord caused by velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord
D. Amniotic fluid embolism
E. Placenta accreta
Healthy 34-year-old G1P0 patient comes to see you in your office for a routine OB visit at 12 weeks gestational age. She tells you that she has stopped taking her prenatal vitamins with iron supplements because they make her sick and she has trouble remembering to take a pill every day. A review of her prenatal labs reveals that her hematocrit is 39%. Which of the following statements is the best way to counsel this patient?
A. Tell the patient that she does not need to take her iron supplements because her prenatal labs indicate that she is not anemic and therefore she will not absorb the iron supplied in prenatal vitamins
B. Tell the patient that if she consumes a diet rich in iron, she does not need to take any iron supplements
C. Tell the patient that if she fails to take her iron supplements, her fetus will be anemic
D. Tell the patient that she needs to take the iron supplements even though she is not anemic in order to meet the demands of pregnancy
E. Tell the patient that she needs to start retaking her iron supplements when her hemoglobin falls below 11 g/dL
A pregnant patient of yours goes to the emergency room at 20 weeks gestational age with complaints of hematuria and back pain. The emer- gency room physician orders an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) as part of a workup for a possible kidney stone. The radiologist indicates the absence of nephrolithiasis but reports the presence of bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter, which is greater on the right side than on the left. Which of the following statements is true regarding this IVP finding?
A. The bilateral hydronephrosis is of concern, and renal function tests, including BUN and creatinine, should be run and closely monitored.
B. These findings are consistent with normal pregnancy and are not of concern.
C. The bilateral hydronephrosis is of concern, and a renal sonogram should be ordered emergently.
D. The findings indicate that a urology consult is needed to obtain recommendations for further workup and evaluation.
E. The findings are consistent with ureteral obstruction, and the patient should be referred for stent placement.
During a routine return OB visit, an 18-year-old G1P0 patient at 23 weeks gestational age undergoes a urinalysis. The dipstick done by the nurse indicates the presence of trace glucosuria. All other parameters of the urine test are normal. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of the increased sugar detected in the urine?
A. The patient has diabetes.
B. The patient has a urine infection.
C. The patient’s urinalysis is consistent with normal pregnancy.
D. The patient’s urine sample is contaminated.
E. The patient has kidney disease.
A 33-year-old G2P1 is undergoing an elective repeat cesarean section at term. The infant is delivered without any difficulties, but the placenta cannot be removed easily because a clear plane between the placenta and uterine wall cannot be identified. The placenta is removed in pieces. This is followed by uterine atony and hemorrhage. Match the descriptions with the appropriate placenta type.
A. Succenturiate placenta
B. Vasa previa
C. Placenta previa
D. Membranaceous placenta
E. Placenta accreta
The shortest distance between the sacral promontory and the symphysis pubis is called which of the following?
A. Interspinous diameter
B. True conjugate
C. Diagonal conjugate
D. Obstetric (OB) conjugate
E. Biparietal diameter
A patient presents in labor at term. Clinical pelvimetry is performed. She has an oval-shaped pelvis with the anteroposterior diameter at the pelvic inlet greater than the transverse diameter. The baby is occiput posterior. The patient most likely has what kind of pelvis?
A. A gynecoid pelvis
B. An android pelvis
C. An anthropoid pelvis
D. A platypelloid pelvis
E. An androgenous pelvis
On pelvic examination of a patient in labor at 34 weeks, the patient is noted to be 6 cm dilated, completely effaced with the fetal nose and mouth palpable. The chin is pointing toward the maternal left hip. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Transverse lie
B. Mentum transverse position
C. Occiput transverse position
D. Brow presentation
E. Vertex presentation
A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet. She is very anxious to find out because she has a history of a previous ectopic pregnancy and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care. Which of the following actions is most appropriate at this time?
A. No action is needed because the patient is asymptomatic, has not missed her period, and cannot be pregnant.
B. Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
C. Listen for fetal heart tones by Doppler equipment.
D. Perform an abdominal ultrasound.
E. Perform a bimanual pelvic examination to assess uterine size
A patient presents for her first initial OB visit after performing a home pregnancy test and gives a last menstrual period of about 8 weeks ago. She says she is not entirely sure of her dates, however, because she has a long history of irregular menses. Which of the following is the most accurate way of dating the pregnancy?
A. Determination of uterine size on pelvic examination
B. Quantitative serum human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) level
C. Crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal ultrasound
D. Determination of progesterone level along with serum HCG level
E. Quantification of a serum estradiol level
A healthy 31-year-old G3P2002 patient presents to the obstetrician’s office at 34 weeks gestational age for a routine return visit. She has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. Her baseline blood pressures were 100 to 110/60 to70, and she has gained a total of 20 lb so far. During the visit, the patient complains of bilateral pedal edema that sometimes causes her feet to ache at the end of the day. Her urine dip indicates trace protein, and her blood pressure in the office is currently 115/75. She denies any other symptoms or complaints. On physical examination, there is pitting edema of both legs without any calf tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the patient’s concern?
A. Prescribe Lasix to relieve the painful swelling.
B. Immediately send the patient to the radiology department to have venous. Doppler studies done to rule out deep vein thromboses.
C. Admit the patient to L and D to rule out preeclampsia.
D. Reassure the patient that this is a normal finding of pregnancy and no treatment is needed.
E. Tell the patient that her leg swelling is caused by too much salt intake and instruct her to go on a low-sodium diet.
A 28-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit secondary to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp and occurring with movement and exercise. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits. She also denies any fever or chills. The application of a heating pad helps alleviate the discomfort. As her obstetrician, what should you tell this patient is the most likely etiology of this pain?
A. Round ligament pain
B. Appendicitis
C. Preterm labor
D. Kidney stone
E. Urinary tract infection
A 19-year-old G1P0 presents to her obstetrician’s office for a routine OB visit at 32 weeks gestation. Her pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes requiring insulin for control. She has been noncompli- ant with diet and insulin therapy. She has had two prior normal ultra- sounds at 20 and 28 weeks gestation. She has no other significant past medical or surgical history. During the visit, her fundal height measures 38 cm. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy between the fundal height and the gestational age?
A. Fetal hydrocephaly
B. Uterine fibroids
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Breech presentation
E. Undiagnosed twin gestation
A 30-year-old G2P1001 patient comes to see you in the office at 37 weeks gestational age for her routine OB visit. Her first pregnancy resulted in a vagi- nal delivery of a 9-lb 8-oz baby boy after 30 minutes of pushing. On doing Leopold maneuvers during this office visit, you determine that the fetus is breech. Vaginal examination demonstrates that the cervix is 50% effaced and 1 to 2 cm dilated. The presenting breech is high out of the pelvis. The esti- mated fetal weight is about 7 lb. The patient denies having any contractions. You send the patient for a sonogram, which confirms a fetus with a double footling breech presentation. There is a normal amount of amniotic fluid present and the head is hyperextended in the “stargazer” position. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Allow the patient to undergo a vaginal breech delivery whenever she goes into labor.
B. Send the patient to labor and delivery immediately for an emergent cesarean section.
C. Schedule a cesarean section at or after 41 weeks gestational age.
D. Schedule an external cephalic version in the next few days.
E. Allow the patient to go into labor and do an external cephalic version at that time if the fetus is still in the double footling breech presentation.
A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to the obstetrician’s office at 41 weeks gestation. On physical examination, her cervix is 1 centimeter dilated, 0% effaced, firm, and posterior in position. The vertex is presenting at –3 station. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Send the patient to the hospital for induction of labor since she has a favorable Bishop score
B. Teach the patient to measure fetal kick counts and deliver her if at any time there are less than 20 perceived fetal movements in 3 hours.
C. Order BPP testing for the same or next day.
D. Schedule the patient for induction of labor at 43 weeks gestation.
E. Schedule cesarean delivery for the following day since it is unlikely that the patient will go into labor.
Your patient had an ultrasound examination today at 39 weeks gestation for size less than dates.The ultrasound showed oligohydramnios with an amniotic fluid index of 1.5 centimeters. The patient’s cervix is unfavorable. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Admit her to the hospital for cesarean delivery.
B. Admit her to the hospital for cervical ripening then induction of labor.
C. Write her a prescription for misoprostol to take at home orally every 4 hours until she goes into labor.
D. Perform stripping of the fetal membranes and perform a BPP in 2 days.
E. Administer a cervical ripening agent in your office and have the patient present to the hospital in the morning for induction with oxytocin.
An 18-year-old G2P1001 with the first day of her last menstrual period of May 7 presents for her first OB visit at 10 weeks. What is this patient’s estimated date of delivery?
A. February 10 of the next year
B. February 14 of the next year
C. December 10 of the same year
D. December 14 of the same year
E. December 21of the same year
A new patient presents to your office for her first prenatal visit. By her last menstrual period she is 11 weeks pregnant. This is the first pregnancy for this 36-year-old woman. She has no medical problems. At this visit you observe that her uterus is palpable midway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. No fetal heart tones are audible with the Doppler stethoscope. Which of the following is the best next step in the manage- ment of this patient?
A. Reassure her that fetal heart tones are not yet audible with the Doppler stetho- scope at this gestational age.
B. Tell her the uterine size is appropriate for her gestational age and schedule her for routine ultrasonography at 20 weeks.
C. Schedule genetic amniocentesis right away because of her advanced maternal age.
D. Schedule her for a dilation and curettage because she has a molar pregnancy since her uterus is too large and the fetal heart tones are not audible.
E. Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the fetus.
A 16-year-old primigravida presents to your office at 35 weeks gesta- tion. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and she has 4+ proteinuria on a clean catch specimen of urine. She has significant swelling of her face and extremities. She denies having contractions. Her cervix is closed and unef- faced. The baby is breech by bedside ultrasonography. She says the baby’s movements have decreased in the past 24 hours. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Send her to labor and delivery for a BPP.
B. Send her home with instructions to stay on strict bed rest until her swelling and blood pressure improve.
C. Admit her to the hospital for enforced bed rest and diuretic therapy to improve her swelling and blood pressure.
D. Admit her to the hospital for induction of labor
E. Admit her to the hospital for cesarean delivery.
A 29-year-old G3P2 presents to the emergency center with com- plaints of abdominal discomfort for 2 weeks. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg, pulse 90 beats per minute, temperature 36.94°C, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute. A pregnancy test is positive and an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a viable 16-week gestation located behind a normal-appearing 10 × 6 × 5.5 cm uterus. Both ovaries appear normal. No free fluid is noted. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Ectopic ovarian tissue
B. Fistula between the peritoneum and uterine cavity
C. Primary peritoneal implantation of the fertilized ovum
D. Tubal abortion
E. Uterine rupture of prior cesarean section scar
A 32-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with the complaint of vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 115/67 mm Hg, pulse 87 beats per minute, temperature 37.0°C, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute. She denies any contraction and states that the baby is moving normally. On ultrasound the placenta is anteriorly located and completely covers the internal cervical os. Which of the following would most increase her risk for hysterectomy?
A. Desire for sterilization
B. Development of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
C. Placenta accreta
D. Prior vaginal delivery
E. Smoking
A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauter- ine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and her vital signs are: blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg, pulse 93 beats per minute, tempera- ture 36.38°C, respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute. She has not had a miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. Her cervix is closed on examination. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?
A. Septic abortion
B. Recurrent abortion
C. Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
D. Future infertility
E. Ectopic pregnancies
A 24-year-old presents at 30 weeks with a fundal height of 50 cm. Which of the following statements concerning polyhydramnios is true?
A. Acute polyhydramnios rarely leads to labor prior to 28 weeks.
B. The incidence of associated malformations is approximately 3%.
C. Maternal edema, especially of the lower extremities and vulva, is rare.
D. Esophageal atresia is accompanied by polyhydramnios in nearly 10% of cases.
E. Complications include placental abruption, uterine dysfunction, and postpartum hemorrhage
A 20-year-old G1 at 32 weeks presents for her routine obstetric (OB) visit. She has no medical problems. She is noted to have a blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg, and her urine dip shows 1+ protein. She complains of a constant headache and vision changes that are not relieved with rest or a pain reliever. The patient is sent to the hospital for further management. At the hospital, her blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg and she is noted to have tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following is indicated in the manage- ment of this patient?
A. Low-dose aspirin
B. Dilantin (phenytoin)
C. Antihypertensive therapy
D. Magnesium sulfate
E. Cesarean delivery
A 32-year-old G5P1 presents for her first prenatal visit. A complete obstetrical, gynecological, and medical history and physical examination is done. Which of the following would be an indication for elective cerclage placement?
A. Three spontaneous first-trimester abortions
B. Twin pregnancy
C. Three second-trimester pregnancy losses without evidence of labor or abruption
D. History of loop electrosurgical excision procedure for cervical dysplasia
E. Cervical length of 35 mm by ultrasound at 18 weeks
Uterine bleeding at 12 weeks gestation accompanied by cervical dilation without passage of tissue. Match above description with the correct type of abortion.
A. Complete abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Missed abortion
E. Inevitable abortion
Passage of some but not all placental tissue through the cervix at 9 weeks gestation. Match above description with the correct type of abortion.
A. Complete abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Missed abortion
E. Inevitable abortion
Fetal death at 15 weeks gestation without expulsion of any fetal or maternal tissue for at least 8 weeks. Match above description with the correct type of abortion.
A. Complete abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Missed abortion
E. Inevitable abortion
Uterine bleeding at 7 weeks gestation without any cervical dilation. Match above description with the correct type of abortion.
A. Complete abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Missed abortion
E. Inevitable abortion
Expulsion of all fetal and placental tissue from the uterine cavity at 10 weeks gestation. Match above description with the correct type of abortion.
A. Complete abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Missed abortion
E. Inevitable abortion
A 20-year-old G1P0 presents to your clinic for follow-up for a suc- tion dilation and curettage for an incomplete abortion. She is asymptomatic without any vaginal bleeding, fever, or chills. Her examination is normal. The pathology report reveals trophoblastic proliferation and hydropic degenera- tion with the absence of vasculature; no fetal tissue is identified. A chest x-ray is negative for any evidence of metastatic disease. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?
A. Weekly human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) titers
B. Hysterectomy
C. Single-agent chemotherapy
D. Combination chemotherapy
E. Radiation therapy
A 22-year-old G1P0 presents to your clinic for follow-up of evacuation of a complete hydatidiform mole. She is asymptomatic and her examination is normal. Which of the following would be an indication to start single-agent chemotherapy?
A. A rise in hCG titers
B. A plateau of hCG titers for 1 week
C. Return of hCG titer to normal at 6 weeks after evacuation
D. Appearance of liver metastasis
E. Appearance of brain metastasis
A 32-year-old female presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago and her pregnancy test is positive. On examination she is tachycardic and hypotensive and her abdominal examination findings reveal peritoneal signs, a bedside abdominal ultrasound shows free fluid within the abdominal cavity. The decision is made to take the patient to the operating room for emergency exploratory laparotomy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Incomplete abortion d. Missed abortion
D. Torsed ovarian corpus luteal cyst
A 27-year-old has just had an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following events would be most likely to predispose to ectopic pregnancy?
A. Previous cervical conization
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C. Use of a contraceptive uterine device (IUD)
D. Induction of ovulation
E. Exposure in utero to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
A 34-year-old G2P1 at 31 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with complaints of vaginal bleeding earlier in the day that resolved on its own. She denies any leakage of fluid or uterine contractions. She reports good fetal movement. In her last pregnancy, she had a low trans- verse cesarean delivery for breech presentation at term. She denies any medical problems. Her vital signs are normal and electronic external monitoring reveals a reactive fetal heart rate tracing and no uterine contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Send her home, since the bleeding has completely resolved and she is experiencing good fetal movements
B. Perform a sterile digital examination
C. Perform an amniocentesis to rule out infection
D. Perform a sterile speculum examination
E. Perform an ultrasound examination
A 34-year-old G2P1 at 31 weeks gestation with a known placenta previa presents to the hospital with vaginal bleeding. On assessment, she has normal vital signs and the fetal heart rate tracing is 140 beats per minute with accelerations and no decelerations. No uterine contractions are demonstrated on external tocometer. Heavy vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Administer intramuscular terbutaline
B. Administer methylergonovine
C. Admit and stabilize the patient
D. Perform cesarean delivery
E. Induce labor
A 40-year-old G2P1001 presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 30 weeks gestational age. Her first pregnancy was delivered 10 years ago and was uncomplicated. She had a normal vaginal delivery at 40 weeks and the baby weighed 7 lb. During this present pregnancy, she has not had any complications, and she reports no significant medical history. She is a non- smoker and has gained about 25 lb to date. Despite being of advanced maternal age, she declined any screening or diagnostic testing for Down syndrome. Her blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70. During her examination, you note that her fundal height measures only 25 cm. Which of the following is a likely explanation for this patient’s decreased fundal height?
A. Multiple gestation
B. Hydramnios
C. Fetal growth restriction
D. The presence of fibroid tumors in the uterus
E. Large ovarian mass
A 26-year-old G1 at 37 weeks presents to the hospital in active labor. She has no medical problems and has a normal prenatal course except for fetal growth restriction. She undergoes an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a female infant weighing 1950 g. The infant is at risk for which of the following complications?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Fever
C. Hypertension
D. Anemia
E. Hypoxia
A 39-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestational age is sent to labor and delivery from her obstetrician’s office because of a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mm Hg obtained during a routine OB visit. Her baseline blood pressures during the pregnancy were 100 to 120/60 to 70. On arrival to labor and delivery, the patient denies any headache, visual changes, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. The heart rate strip is reactive and the toco- dynamometer indicates irregular uterine contractions. The patient’s cervix is 3 cm dilated. Her repeat blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. Hematocrit is 34.0, platelets are 160,000, SGOT is 22, SGPT is 15, and urinalysis is neg- ative for protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Chronic hypertension with superimposed preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
E. Gestational hypertension
A 20-year-old G1 at 36 weeks is being monitored for preeclampsia; she rings the bell for the nurse because she is developing a headache and feels funny. As you and the nurse enter the room, you witness the patient undergoing a tonic-clonic seizure. You secure the patient’s airway, and within a few minutes the seizure is over. The patient’s blood pressure monitor indicates a pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. Which of the following medications is recommended for the prevention of a recurrent eclamptic seizure?
A. Hydralazine
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Labetalol
D. Pitocin
E. Nifedipine
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