Internal medicine
Internal Medicine Quiz
Test your knowledge of internal medicine with our comprehensive quiz designed for medical professionals and students alike. Covering a variety of crucial topics, this quiz challenges your understanding of conditions, treatments, and diagnostic criteria.
Engage with questions on:
- Diabetes and its complications
- Endocrine system disorders
- Diagnostic challenges in internal medicine
1) Features of hypoglycaemia do not include:
A. Drenching sweat
B. Tachycardia
C. Tachypnoea
D. Brisk jerk
4) Earliest changes observed by ophthalmoscope in background retinopathy of diabetes is:
A. Venous dilatation
B. Microaneurysms
C. Increased capillary permeability
D. Arteriovenous shunts
5) Which of the following is not a part of metabolic 'syndrome X'?
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Obesity
C. Ischaemic heart disease
D. Hypertension
7) All are features of diabetic ketoacidosis except:
A. Hyperthermia
B. Drowsiness
C. Dehydration
D. Air hunger
15) Myxoedema coma is characterized by:
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Euthermia
D. Hypoventilation
16) All of the following represent examples of hypothalamic-pituitary negative feedback except:
A. Cortisol on the CRH-ACTH axis
B. Gonadal steroids on the GnRH-LH/FSH axis
C. IGF-1 on the growth hormone–releasing hormone (GHRH)-GH axis
D. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis
19) Which of the following is the most potent stimulus for hypothalamic production of arginine vasopressin?
A. Hypertonicity
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypotonicity
23) Secondary hypothyroidism is not featured by:
A. Normal cholesterol
B. Menorrhagia
C. Low TSH
D. Fine hairs
25) All of the following would be expected to increase prolactin levels except:
A. Chest wall trauma
B. Hyperthyroidism
D. Renal failure
C. Pregnancy
30) Which of the following lung cancers is most commonly associated with the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Small cell (oat cell) carcinoma
C. Large cell carcinoma
D. Adenocarcinoma
31) Cushing's syndrome does not give rise to:
A. Hirsutism
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Purple striae
D. Acne
32) Which of the following proteins is the primary source of bound T4 in the plasma?
A. Albumin
B. Gamma globulins
D. Thyroxine-binding globuli
C. Thyroid peroxidase
34) Which cranial nerve is not involved in acromegaly?
A. VIII
B. III, IV, VI
V
D. Il
35) All of the following are associated with increased levels of total T4 in the plasma with a normal free T4 except:
A. Cirrhosis
B. Pregnancy
C. Euthyroid sick syndrome
D. Familial excess thyroid binding globulin
37) Sheehan's syndrome presents with:
B. Persistent lactation
A. Cardiac failure
D. Striking cachexia
C. Fever
40) Hypocalcemia is produced by all except:
A. Hysterical hypoventilation
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Osteomalacia
41) Gynaecomastia may be produced after treatment with all except:
A. Spironolactone
B. Digitalis
C. Cimetidine
D. Rifampicin
A 47-year-old woman is referred to the endocrine clinic complaining of a two month history of tiredness. Despite wearing several items of clothing, the patient appears intolerant to the room temperature. She has noticed an increase in weight, particularly around her waist. The most appropriate investigation is:
Radioiodine scan
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Total tetraiodothyronine level (T4)
Tri-iodothyronine level (T3)
Ultrasound scan of the neck
Vasopressin secretion is stimulated at what levels of plasma osmolality?
Increases of plasma osmolality of 4 to 5%
Increases of plasma osmolality of 2 to 3%
Increases of plasma osmolality of 1 to 2%
Decreases in plasma osmolality of 1 to 2%
Which of the followings distinguishes secondary toxic goiter from Grave’s disease ?
Rapid onset
Prominent eye manifestations
Prominent CVS manifestations
Prominent CNS manifestations
A 68-year-old woman is noted to have Graves disease, and has a small goiter. Which of the following is the best therapy?
Long-term propranolol
Lifelong oral propylthiouracil (PTU)
Radioactive iodine ablation
Surgical thyroidectomy
One of the following statements is incorrect regarding endocrine glands
The receptors for peptide hormones are located on the cell surface.
In addition to the endocrine glands , hormones are produced by the brain and heart.
The precursor for steroid hormones is cholesterol.
In general suppressions tests are used to evaluate endocrine gland hypofunction.
A 13-year-old girl presents to accident and emergency with severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. On examination, the patient is tachypneic, and she has a dry tongue. While listening to the patient’s lungs, you detect a sweet odor from her breath. The most likely diagnosis is:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Non-ketotic hyperosmolar state
Diabetes insipidus
Adrenal crisis
One of the following statements is incorrect regarding blood glucose levels:
Normal fasting level is less than 100 mg/dl.
Normal 2 hours post prandial is less than 140 mg/dl.
Upper level of impaired fasting level is 125 mg/dl.
Normal level of A1c is from 6-6.5
Diabetes is diagnosed when post prandial level exceeds 200mg/dl.
Patients with diabetes insipidus and inability to concentrate their urine usually present with what manifestations?
Polyuria, polydipsia, and high plasma osmolality.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and dehydration.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and hypernatremia.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and elevated BUN and creatinine.
Polyuria, polydipsia, and normal plasma osmolality, BUN, and creatinine.
A 29-year-old woman is found unconscious by her brother and rushed to accident and emergency. She is a type 1 diabetic and has maintained excellent glucose control using insulin injections. Blood biochemistry results demonstrate normal insulin level of insulin, no detectable C-peptide and very low blood glucose. Her brother mentions she is a lawyer and has been working particularly hard in the last week, eating quick meals and occasionally missing meals. The most likely diagnosis is:
Hyperosmolar coma
Insulin overdose
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Hypoglycemic coma
Which of the following is the most important first step in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis?
Replacement of potassium
Intravenous fluid replacement
Replacement of bicarbonate
Antibiotic therapy
44) Which of the following is not associated with hypothyroidism?
A. Loss of libido
B. Weight loss
C. Cardiac failure
D. Organic psychosis
45) Tetany is characterized by all of the following signs except:
A. Trousseau's
B. Tinel's sign
C. Erb's sign
D. Peroneal sign
47) Hyperparathyroidism is not featured by:
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Nephrocalcinosis
C. Palpable neck swelling
D. Pseudogout
48) Phaeochromocytoma is not associated with:
A. Weight gain
B. Fear of death (angor animi)
C. Paroxysmal hypertension
D. Constipation
50) Features of Addison's disease do not include:
A. Diarrhea
B. Dizziness
C. Dermatitis
D. Dehydration
53) Which of the following is the most important mechanism of action of propylthiouracil in the treatment of Graves’ disease?
A. Inhibition of production of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
B. Inhibition of the function of thyroid peroxidase
C. Reduced peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
D. Reversal of iodine organification
54) Commonest cause of Addison's disease is:
A. Granuloma
B. Idiopathic atrophy
C. Inflammatory necrosis
D. Malignancy
56) Secondary hyperaldosteronism is associated with all except:
A. Congestive cardiac failure
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. SIADH
D. Cirrhosis of liver
59) All of the following are actions of parathyroid hormone except
A. Direct stimulation of osteoblasts to increase bone formation
B. Direct stimulation of osteoclasts to increase bone resorption
C. Increased reabsorption of calcium from the distal tubule of the kidney
D. Inhibition of phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule of the kidney
61) The triad of hyponatraemia, haemodilution and urine hypertonic to plasma suggest diagnosis of:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. SIADH
C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
D. Addison's disease
62) Which is not a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type I ?
A. Phaeochromocytoma
B. Tumour of pituitary
C. Tumour' of pancreas
D. Hyperparathyroidism
65) Which of the following is the most common sign of Cushing’s syndrome?
A. Hirsutism
B. Obesity
C. Purple skin striae
D. Skin hyperpigmentation
69) Commonest enzymatic defect for development of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is:
A. C-21 hydroxylase deficiency
B. 3b dehydrogenase deficiency
C. C-11 hydroxylase deficiency
D. C-17 hydroxylase deficiency
6. The earliest finding of iron deficiency anemia is:
A. Increased TIBC
C. Decreased S. ferritin
B. Decreased S. iron
D. Decreased % saturation
8. A patient present with increased serum iron, decreased TIBC, increased percentage saturation and increased S. ferritin. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. Sideroblastic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Thalassemia major
12. Commonest cause of jaundice in thalassaemia is:
A. Viral hepatitis C
B. Iron deposition in liver
C. Viral hepatitis B
D. Haemolysis
20. Extravascular hemolysis is best characterized by all except:
A. Increased LDH
B. Splenomegaly
C. Jaundice
D. Increased plasma hemoglobin
23. Direct Coomb’s test may be positive in:
A. Immediate post transfusion
B. Thalassemia major
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. PNH
25. Hemoglobinuria is not seen in:
A. PNH
B. G6PD deficiency
C. AIHA
D. Malaria
29. In a patient with haemolytic anaemia, which of the following findings would be most suggestive of intravascular haemolysis?
A. Raised reticulocyte count
B. Haemosiderinuria
C. Raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
D. Splenomegaly
E. Positive direct Coombs test
39. Which one of the following clotting factors does notrequire vitamin K for its activation?
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor IX
E. Factor X
41. In a patient presenting with a bleeding disorder, which of the following clinical features would be most suggestive of a coagulation defect as opposed to a platelet disorder?
A. Epistaxis
B. Haemarthrosis
C. Menorrhagia
D. Prolonged bleeding from superficial cuts
E. Purpura
42. All of the following statements regarding haemophilia A are correct except one. Which is the exception?
A. The condition shows X-linked recessive inheritance
B. There is deficiency of factor VIII
C. Muscle haematomas are a characteristic manifestation
D. Desmopressin aggravates the tendency to bleeding
E. It may be complicated by secondary osteoarthritis
43. Which one of the following statements regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is false?
A. The condition may be precipitated by Gram-negative septicaemia
B. Thrombocytopenia is a characteristic finding
C. Fibrinogen levels are elevated
D. D-dimer levels are elevated
E. There is a significant risk of haemorrhage
50. Which of the following drug does not cause thrombocytopenia?
A. Heparin
B. Gold
C. Amphotericin B
D. Imipenem
E. Paracetamol
53. Bleeding in DIC is due to:
A. Raised thrombin time
B. Low fibrinogen levels
C. Raised FDP levels in blood
D. Prolonged PT
55. Most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children is:
A. Plastic anemia
B. ITP
C. TTP
D. Drug induced
57. Which of the following is not a first line therapy in ITP?
A. IVIg
B. Anti-D
C. Rituximab
D. Steroids
60. A 25 years old girl is brought to the emergency department in the state of altered sensorium with high grade fever. Investigation revealed anemia, thrombocytopenia with fragmented red cells on peripheral blood smear examination. CT•brain is normal and a serum creatinine is 3.0 mg/dl. PT/APTT/TT are normal. Which of the following is the most effective treatment?
A. Plasma exchange therapy
B. Steriods with IVIg
C. Platelet transfusion
D. Broad–spectrum IV antibiotics
The mean cell volume of the patient is 90 fl and the reticulocyte production index is low. Which of the following is the most possible cause of anemia in this patient ?
A. thalassemia
B. vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sideroblastic anemia
E. Iron deficiency anemia
A patient shows prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. Blood test otherwise is normal. Which of the following is the most probably diagnosis for this patient’s condition ?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Von Wille brand factor disease
D. Vitamin K deficiency
E. Hypofibrinogenemia
A patient is presented with pallor, fatigue and dyspnea. Physical examination shows koilonychias and angular cheilosis. Which of the following is not expected in the laboratory finding of this patient ?
A. Low total iron binding capacity
B. High serum transferrin
C. Low iron: total iron binding capacity ratio
D. Low serum ferritin
E. Low transferrin saturation
Mr XY was found to be anaemia. During history taking, he informed his doctor that he was a strict vegetarian who did not consume any meat, fish of milk products.
A. Iron deficiency
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Defects in erythropoietin production
D. Calcium-deficiency
E. Defects in production of transferring
23. Koilonychias is a specific features of
A. Haemolytic anaemia
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Thalassaemia major
D. Iron deficiency anaemia
E. B12 deficiency anaemia
After seven days of treatment with sulfonamides a patient’s haemoglobin had decreased from 14.7 gm/100ml to 10gm/100ml. The most likely cause of hemolysis in this patient is
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Thalassemia minor
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)
Spherocytosis is a common cause of inherited haemolytic anaemia. The most likely cause for spherocytosis is
A. Abnormal antigenic properties of the integral proteins of the cell membrane
B. Defects in the peripheral proteins
D. Formation of sickle shaped cells
E. Decrease in the size of the red blood cells
Oral iron supplements are given for iron deficiency aneamia. Which of the statement is true regarding the absorption of oral iron supplements?
A. Absorption occurs in the large intestine
B. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the iron absorption
C. Ascorbic acids reduces iron absorption
E. Absorption is better in the ferrous form than in ferric form
A 28-year-old woman complains of excessive bleeding from her gums and has petechiae. Here CBC shows a platelet count of 22,000/mm3 with a hemoglobin of 8.9 g/dL and a WBC count of 87,000/mm3. » Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute leukemia
B) Immune thrombocytopenia purpura
c) Drug-induced thrombocytopenia
DIC
Autoantibodies specific for the following antigen are specific for SLE:
A. Ro
B. Centromere
E. Sm
D. Scl70
41. Psoriasis is characterized by except :
A) Well defined scaly ertythematous papules and plaques
B) Systemic steroid is the treatment of choice
C) Bilateral and symmetrical
D) Extensor aspects of limbs are the favorite sites
44. Urticarial wheals characteristically:
A- Affect the mouth and other mucus membranes
D- Have a circular outline
B- Itch rather than burn
E- Burn rather than itch
B- Are deep and poorly defined
36. Histologically, lesions of psoriasis vulgaris may demonstrate all of the following except:
Parakeratosis
D- Granular zone of the epidermis decreased or absent
B- Regular elongation of the rete ridges
E- Damage to the basal cell layer
C- Dilated spiraled capillaries in dermal papillae
26. Favus infection is caused by: **e
A- Trichophyton tonsurans
B- Trichophyton violaceum
C- Microsporum canis
D- Microsporum audouinii
- Trichophyton schoenleinii
28. A boy -6-year-old- presented with a boggy swelling covered with crust on his scalp. 3 months later healing occurs with scar and subsequently cicatricial alopecia. Your diagnosis is:
Kerion
Impetigo
C) Scaly type tinea capitis
D) Black dot type tinea capitis
19. The following statements are true regarding herpes zoster except:
A) Caused by re-activation of latent varicella zoster virus in dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglion cells
B) Unilateral in a dermatomal distribution
C) Healing occurs without scar formation
D) Treatment with systemic antiviral is mandatory in cases of herpes zoster ophthalmicus or cases associated with malignancy
He treatment of choice of multiple plane warts on the face of a 6 year old child is:
A- Electric cautery
B- Podophyllin
C- Topical tretinoin (retinoic acid)
E- Trichloroacetic acid 40%
24. A 6 year old child presented with multiple shiny white papules on the trunk and extremities, showing central umbilication, the most probable diagnosis is:
A- Chicken pox
B- Impetigo contagiosum
C- Pityriasis rubra pilaris
D- Popular urticaria
25. The primary lesion of molluscum contagiosum is:
A- Macule
B- Papule
C- Plaque
D- Vesicle
15. Lepromatous leprosy is characterized by:
A- High immunity and low infectivity
B- Low immunity and low infectivity
C- High immunity and high infectivity
D- Low immunity and high infectivity
16. All are diagnostic features of tuberculoid leprosy, except:
A- Few skin lesions
C- Red or hypopigmented
- Symmetrical lesion
B- Well defined margins
12. Impetigo contagiosum is caused by:
A- Pseudomonas aerginosa
B- Staphylococcus aureus
C- b & e only
E- Beta-haemolytic streptococcus
D- Streptococcus pyogenes
. Ecthyma is:
A- Crusted impetigo
B- Bullous impetigo
C- Ulcerative impetigo
E- Circinate impetigo
B- Bullous impetigo
7. Sebaceous glands are not present in:
A-Face
B- Chest
C- Palms & Soles
D- Back
4. Melanocytes are present among the keratinocytes of:
A) Basal cell layer
B) Spinous layer
) Granular cell layer
D) Horny layer
1- Delusion is a disorder of
1. Thought
2. Perception
Personality
Cognition
2- Which of the following is not a symptom of depression?
1) Feelings of sadness
2) Sleep disturbans
3) Delusions of grandeur
4) Suicidal thinking
4- Extrapyramidal symptoms are most commonly caused by which of the following classes of drugs?
1. Typical antipsychotics
2. Antidepressants
3. NSAIDs
4. All of the above
6- Which of the following substances cannot cause addiction?
1. Antidepressants
2. Sedative Hypnotics
3. Stimulants
4. Alcohol
8- The main neurotransmitter affected in schezopherenia is
1. GABA
Serotonin
NA
DOPAMIN
9- All are seen in mania except.
A) Elated mood.
C) Increased psychomotor activity
Flight of ideas.
D) loosening of association.
6) The temperature & pin sense loss usually develops with disease in:
A. Anterior horns of spinal cord
B. Posterior horns of spinal cord
C. Lateral horns of spinal cord
D. Posterior columns of spinal cord
17) Hemiplegia, hemianesthesia & hemianopia develop together with disease in the:
A. Spinal cord
B. Internal capsule
C. Thalamus
D. Brainstem
20) Regarding acute transverse myelitis, which is false?
A. Viral or post-vaccinal
B. Bladder involvement is very late
C. Definite upper level of sensory loss
D. Absence of root pain
23) The presence of ptosis suggests damage to cranial nerve:
A. IV
B. V
C. III
D. VII
24) The presence of dysphagia suggests damage to cranial nerves:
A. V-VII
B. IX-X
C. VII-XI
D. III-VI
25) The presence of dysarthria suggests damage to cranial nerve:
A. V
B. XI
C. XII
D. VIII
28) The damage to IX, X & XII cranial nerves produce:
A. Bulbar palsy
B. Pseudobulbar palsy
C. Brown-Sequard syndrome
D. Argyle-Robertson syndrome
11. Complement C3 is characteristically low in all except:
A. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
B. SLE
C. Focal glomerulosclerosis
D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
25. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities in venous blood is least-likely to be present in a patient with untreated chronic renal failure?
A. Reduced bicarbonate
B. Elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C. Reduced phosphate
D. Elevated cholesterol
E. Reduced calcium
27. In patients with hypertension and proteinuria, which of the following classes of drug has been shown to be most effective in retarding the progression of chronic renal failure?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Nitrates
E. Thiazide diuretics
36.A 25-year-old man has a renal biopsy due to worsening renal function. This reveals linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Systemic lupus erythematous
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Minimal change disease
D. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
E. Goodpasture's syndrome
1. Reactive arthritis is associated with which one of the following HLA antigens?
A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-A3
C. HLA-DR4
D. HLA-B5
E. HLA-DR3
9. A 56-year-old lady is referred to rheumatology clinic due to severe Raynaud's phenomenon associated with arthralgia of the fingers. On examination you note shiny and tight skin of the fingers with a number of telangiectasia on the upper torso and face. She is also currently awaiting a gastroscopy to investigate heartburn. Which one of the following antibodies is most specific for the underlying condition?
A. Anti-Jo 1antiobodies
B. Rheumatoid factor
C. Anti-Scl-70 antibodies
D. Anti-centromere antibodies
E. Anti-nuclear factor
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