Final MS 3

What are included in the guidelines of delegation? SATA

What is an effect that could happen if suddenly stopped TPN?

Which medications are utilized for DVT prophylaxix?

Which diagnostic tests are used for Crohns disease? (SATA)

Prodromal phase of hepatitis has the distinguishing symptom of jaundice.

What is the treatment for a client with bradycardia of HR of 45 BPM and BP of 82/60, reporting dizziness?

Client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardiac, shows signs of air hunger, and begins to cough up pink frothy sputum. What is the patient experiencing?

Cardiac monitor shows a change in clients rhythm: no "P" waves, "QRS" complexes are wide, and rate is over 140 bpm. What is client experiencing?

Cardiac monitor shows a change in clients rhythm: no "P" waves, "QRS" complexes are wide, and rate is over 140 bpm. What should be the nurses first intervention?

What are the discharge instructions for a pacemaker placement? (SATA)

Which below can cause an elevation in "T" wave in V3,V4 (SATA)

Hoarseness, cough, wheezing, stridor, and smoky breath are all signs of what?

S/S: decreased BP, increased HR, narrow pulse pressure, decreased O2 saturation, increased urine output, cool skin, pallor/cyanosis, dusky skin, thirst, decreased LOC, and weakness.

HR >90, Respirations >20, WBC >12 or <4, or 10% bands (Left shift).

Treatment for shock?

If you assess a client for triage and they have the following symptoms: Resp <30, cap refill <2 sec, and is following commands

If triaging patients at a scene what catagory would you place a client that needs treatment within 30 min - 2 hours

When triaging and a client needs to be treated with in 2 hr to 4 hours which tag would you give them?

While triaging patients you come across a patient that has a massive head trauma and even though you repositioned airway they still are not breathing appropriately what would you tag them?

Which are some causes for an acute kidney injury? (SATA)

Cleaning around the peritoneal dialysis catheter is considered what type of procedure?

Which of the following is considered part of an AKI diet? (SATA)

If you skip a meal you should not take nateglinide/repaglinide (meglitinides)

Hypoglycemia, DKA, and HHNS are chronic complications of diabetes

Spinal cord developing autonomic dysreflexia: which are the 4 B'S to help prevent?

Which are inclusions for TPA (alteplase) treatment?

What stage of HIV/AIDS is a patient if their CD4 T-cell count is between the ranges of 200-499?

What stage of HIV/AIDS is a patient if they CD4 T-cell count is greater than 500?

What stage of HIV/AIDS is a patient if they CD4 T-cell coun?t is less than 200

S/S of what? Hemiplegia, side to side discrimination, aphasia, slow performance, anxiety/depression

Spinal shock can occur anytime from incident up to 6 weeks post injury

Flaccid, lack of sensation, lack of reflexes, decreased BP/HR/Resp are all symptoms of what?

Hypoxemia refractory to oxygen therapy is a classic symptoms of what?

What is the most important action before and after suctioning a client is to:

VAP - Ventilator associated pneumonia: which below can help prevent? (SATA)

SIMV-spontaneous trials, CPAP, and CPAP w/ PS are all what?

Which are NOT s/s of SVCS? (superior vena cava syndrome) (SATA)

A patient in DKA would have which complication?

All of the following could be given to an unresponsive hypoglycemic patient except:

Which test needs to be monitored closely for patients on TZD's for glucose control?

Meglitinide should...

Which statement is true of HHNS?

Which of the following would you NOT find in a patient with DKA?

Which statement is true regarding hemodialysis?

Which HTN medication category best prevents renal failure?

What would be an ideal goal to minimize the risk of pulmonary edema?

A kidney transplant 4 days postop is showing signs of rejection. What does the nurse anticipate?

Example of a post-renal AKI cause:

What type of diet would a client in renal failure be placed on if not on dialysis?

TPN does not need to be started gradually or weaned down?

CVP is a helpful tool used to measure/monitor what?

Which lab is used in diagnosing CHF?

This medication is often used for symptomatic bradycardia

A contraindication for administering nitroglycerine would be:

DVT/PE patients are often on both heparin and coumadin simultaneously?

The intended effect of dopamine is:

Bubbling is normal in the suction control chamber when:

The best initial option for a patient in respiratory distress with minimal respiratory effort is:

Air trapped under the skin tissue is called:

"Barrel Chest" is a normal finding in which condition?

Which type of shock would the nurse anticipate antibiotic use?

Burns to the head and face pose the biggest risk of:

What is the first sign of hypovolemic shock:

How would you classify an A&O woman with rib fractures and SOB who did not get up when called?

Which lab value would likely be the cause of the patients diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy?

Common lab findings for the patient with acute pancreatitis?

What is the diagnostic test to confirm Crohns or ulcerative colitis?

What is seen more in ulcerative colitis?

Immunosuppressants are given to Crohn's or UC patients. What would a nurse intervention be?

Hemianopsia is defined as:

Which of the following is present in spinal shock

A patient who attempts to converse in a normal fashion but does not understand simple commands:

Activity to avoid for patients experiencing autonomic dysreflexia:

Which lab is the most concerning for someone with HIV?

You could expect to find all of the following for a patient admitted with a STEMI except:

Which ABG would diagnose respiratory acidosis:

What is the most important intervention for a patient on neutropenic precautions?

Which home med would you investigate that a patient is on if they are having visual disturbances and GI upset?

You notice that a patient with a pacemaker has a pacer spike but is not followed by a QRS. What does this indicate?

The nurse knows that the patient on hormone therapy is most at risk for:

The nurse knows that the patient in ARDS is tolerating the prone position when:

The nurse will instruct the pos-op pacemaker patient to:

HHNS usually will seen BS <600, dry mouth, tachycardia, hypotension, thirsty, frequent urination, altered CNS - Confusion, slurred speech,or coma

The nurse is the first responder to the scene of a school bus accident. The nurse needs to triages the victims from highest to lowest priority

The registered nurse is planning the client assignments for the day. Which is the most appropriate assignment for the AP?

The nurse employed in a long-term care facility is planning assignments for the clients on a nursing unit. The nurse needs to assign four clients and has a licensed practical nurse and three AP's on a nursing team. Which client would the nurse most appropriately assign to LPN?

The charge nurse is planning the assignments for the day. Which factors would the nurse remain mindful of when delegating task? (SATA)

Client is at risk for developing a potassium deficit if which situation is documented?

Hypokalemia - what patterns would you see on EKG? (SATA)

The nurse is caring for a client with DKA and documents that the client is experiencing kussmauls respirations. What patterns did the nurse observe? (SATA)

What is the normal ranges for Sodium (NA+)

What is the normal ranges for calcium (Ca)

What is the normal ranges for chloride (Cl)

What is the normal ranges for potassium (K+)

What are the normal ranges for phosphorus (Ph)

What are the normal ranges for ABG PH

What are the normal ranges for ABG PcCO3

What are the normal ranges for magnesium (MG)

What are the normal ranges for ABG PaO2

What are the normal ranges for ABG HCO3

What are the normal ranges for RBC (CBC)

What are the normal ranges for HGB

What are the normal ranges for HCT

What are the normal ranges for WBC (CBC)

What are the normal ranges for ESR

What are the normal ranges for cholesterol total

What are the normal ranges for LDL

What are the normal ranges for HDL

What are the normal ranges of triglycerides

What are the normal ranges of PT

What are the normal ranges of aPTT

What are the normal ranges of PTT

What are the normal ranges of INR w/o anticoagulation

What are the normal ranges of INR if on anticoagulants

What are the normal ranges of platelets (PLT)

What are the normal ranges of albumin

What are the normal ranges of ammonia

What are the normal ranges of total protein

What are the normal ranges of creatinine (Cr)

What are the normal ranges of BUN

What are the normal ranges glucose-fasting

What are the normal ranges of HbA1C

A nurse is planning dietary teaching for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and a current blood sugar of 48. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who sustained a fall off a roof. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a basilar skull fracture?

A nurse is providing discharge teaching about improving gas exchange to a client who has emphysema. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse in the ED is caring for a client who has fruity breath odor, dry mouth, and extreme thirst. What assessment should the nurse make priority?

A nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who has two chest tubes in place following a lobectomy. The client asks the nurse the reason for having two chest tubes. The nurse should inform the client that the lower tube is placed for the following reason?

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is not adequately draining. What action should the nurse take?

HIV patient taking antiretroviral medications should never miss a dose and if they do they risk building up an intolerance.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a fractured left femur and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Client is scheduled to have his chest tube removed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nurse is teaching about a low-cholesterol diet to a client who had a MI. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicated an understanding of the teaching?

What assessment findings indicate to the nurse that a client taking warfarin may have decreased clotting? (SATA)

A client reports increasing diffuse pain in the entire right leg. What is the nurses priority action at this time?

Which of the following factors does the nurse recognize as being a risk for altered sensory perception in the older adult client?

The nurse performs an initial health assessment of an older adult. Which assessment findings indicate that the client may be at risk for falls? (SATA)

The nurse is caring for a 25-year old client with a new spinal cord injury resulting in tetraplegia. The client states, "I wont be able to do any activities that I enjoy now." What is the priority nursing intervention?

On entry to the ED of a client who fell from a roof, what is the nurse's priority action?

After a mass casualty event, which client will the nurse triage with a yellow tag?

Which clinical indicators are most relevant for the nurse to monitor during IV fluid replacement for a client with dehydration? (SATA)

With which client does the nurse remain alert for and assess most frequent for signs/symptoms of hypokalemia to prevent harm

The client on combination antiretroviral therapy calls the nurse to report that he is on vacation and the bag of his medications was accidentally left on the plane, so he missed all of yesterday's dosages. What action does the nurse recommend?

What is the most important question for the nurse to ask before giving the first dose of fosamprenavir to a client newly prescribed this drug?

Which activities can the nurse postpone or eliminate for a HIV client who is extremely fatigue (SATA)

Which dietary change does the nurse suggest for the HIV client who has esophageal candidiasis

When assessing the client 2 hrs post-thoracentesis, the nurse notes the skin around the puncture site is swollen and crackling is felt and heard when pressure is applied to area. What is the nurse's best action?

Which respiratory side effect does the nurse teach the client who is now prescribed and ACE inhibitor to expect?

The SPo2 of a client receiving oxygen therapy by nasal cannula at 6/L min has dropped from 94% to 90%. Which action does the nurse perform first to improve gas exchange before reporting the changes to the PCP?

A client with history of type 2 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with chest pain and scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the procedure?

A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats per minute and BP of 82/60 mmHg, reports dizziness. Which intervention would the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

A client with myocardial infraction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which finding would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds?

A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Which potential condition would the nurse anticipate and monitor the client for to detect cardiogenic shock?