(OUV) Anes-Réa + Onco + Mala Inf + Chir Dige + Psy + Ophtha

L’état de choc est caractérisé par :
Un état collapsus
Une hypotension isolée
Une hypoperfusion tissulaire
Une chute rapide de la pression artérielle
Une réversibilité spontanée.
Le mécanisme physiopathologique de l’état de choc au stade compensé est basé sur :
Diminution de la fréquence cardiaque (FC)
Augmentation de la FC
Vasodilatation veineuse
Mise au repos du système réninine-angiotensine (SRA)
Augmentation de la filtration glomérulaire.
La physiopathologie des états de choc au stade de décompensation, il y a :
Libération des substances cardio ou vasoactives
Intervention du métabolisme aérobie
Apparition de l’alcalose métabolique
Hyperoxie tissulaire rapide
Augmentation de la filtration glomérulaire.
Dans l’état de choc, parmi les signes suivants, lequel est la conséquence tissulaire?
Diminution du taux de créatine phosphokinase (CPK)
Chute des facteurs prothrombiniques
Ulcère du stress
Destruction cellulaire
Défaillance cardiaque
Devant un patient présentant une plaie du cuir chevelu avec une fracture ouverte du fémur gauche et à l’arrivée aux urgences une pâleur, agitation, PA = 60/40mmHg – pouls=130c/mn. Quel examen biologique faites-vous en premier ?
Gaz du sang
Hémogramme avec groupage
Lipasémie
Troponine
Transaminases
Dans le diagnostic clinique des états de choc, quel est le signe qui caractérise l’hypoperfusion tissulaire ?
Tachycardie
Hypersudation
Bradycardie
Marbrures
Hypotension artérielle
Aux urgences, en face de vous un patient dyspnéique, tachycarde avec chute tensionnelle qui tousse et frisonne depuis 7 jours. Quel examen paraclinique à demander en priorité ?
Bronchoscopie
Electro cardiogramme ( E.C.G )
Cliché thoracique
Abdomen sans préparation (ASP)
Echocardiographie
Devant une douleur abdominale diffuse avec contracture , arrêt des matières et de gaz. En plus l’examen révèle une instabilité hémodynamique avec trouble de la conscience. Quel bilan paraclinique en 1ère intention ?
Pression veineuse centrale (PVC)
Echographie abdominale
Scanner abdominal
Abdomen sans préparation
Mesure du débit cardiaque (Qc)
Quel est l'examen paraclinique qui permet d'évaluer le profil hémodynamique dans un choc quel qu'il en soit ?
Electro cardiogramme ( ECG )
Echographie trans thoracique (ETT)
Echo doppler des carotides
Mesure de la pression veineuse centrale (PVC)
Mesure de la pression de l'artère pulmonaire (PAP)
En cas de choc septique , quel bilan infectieux en priorité , avant toute antibiothérapie ?
Echocardiaque
Cathétérisme cardiaque
Examen du crachat
Hémoculture
Frottis sanguin
Dans le choc cardiogénique ,il y a :
Diminution du débit cardiaque (Qc )
Augmentation du débit cardiaque (Qc)
Augmentation du volume circulant
Augmentation du tonus vasculaire
Augmentation de l'extraction d'oxygène
Une dame de 30 ans est arrivée au service des urgences pour douleur abdominale diffuse , pâleur , agitation et tachycardie à 120c/mn . Sa pression artérielle (PA) est 50/20mmHg . Quel est le diagnostic le plus probable ?
Choc cardiogénique
Choc hémorragique
Choc anaphylactique
Choc septique
Choc vasoplégique
Le traitement symptomatique de tout état de choc est :
Perfusion des colloïdes
Transfusion
Oxygénation 10 - 15 L / mn
Injection Ephédrine
Ventilation artificielle
Dans un type de choc il ne faut pas effectuer le remplissage vasculaire , lequel ?
Choc cardiogénique
Choc hypovolémique
Choc anaphylactique
Choc septique
Choc vasoplégique
Quelle amine est à utiliser en première intention dans le choc cardiogénique ?
Adrénaline
Noradrénaline
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Ephédrine
Quelle catécholamine est à utiliser en première intention dans le choc septique ?
Adrénaline
Noradrénaline
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Ephédrine
Quelle amine est à utiliser en première intention dans le choc anaphylactique ?
Adrénaline
Noradrénaline
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Ephédrine
Quelle catécholamine est à utiliser en première intention dans le choc hypovolémique ?
Adrénaline
Noradrénaline
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Ephédrine
Quel est le traitement spécifique d'urgence d'un choc septique ?
Oxygénation
Anti inflammatoires
Antibiotiques
Anti histaminiques
Anti oedèmateux
L'élément de choix d'une antibiothérapie de probabiliste en urgence dans le choc septique est basé sur :
Age du patient
Poids du patient
Etat hémodynamique
Tolérance à l'effort
Site d'infection
Quelle mesure à prendre dans les suites d'un choc anaphylactique ?
Eviction à vie de l'allergène
Corticothérapie
Vaccination
Prévention par Adrénaline
Cure thermale
Dans le choc anaphylactique , parmi les médicaments suivants , lequel qui est responsable de l'aggravation du collapsus ?
Bêta bloquants
Catécholamines
Inhibiteurs de l'enzyme de conversion (IEC)
Inhibiteurs calciques
Diurétiques
Devant un état de choc, parmi les signes ci dessous, lequel caractérise sa gravité ?
Extrémités moites
Bradypnée
Sueurs
Extrasystoles
Palpitations.
Quel élément obtenu sur les gaz du sang qui est un reflet de la gravité d’un choc (quelque soit le type de choc) ?
Acide lactique
Bicarbonate
Kaliémie
Natrémie
Hémoglobine
La surveillance clinique de l’efficacité des états de choc est marquée par :
Persistance des troubles de la conscience
Bradycardie extrême
Bradypnée
Diurèse horaire ≤0,5ml/kg
Régression des marbrures
Le coma est une souffrance cérébrale qui se traduit par :
Abolition de la vigilance
Absence constante des déficits moteurs
Hperréflexie tendineuse
Maintien de la fonction du tronc cérébral.
Abolition de la fonction végétative
Dans la physiopathologie du coma, l’Aggravation Cérébrale Secondaire d’Origine Systémique (ACSOS) est augmentée par:
Hyperhydratation
Hyperosmolarité
Hyperglycémie
Sédation
Etat de choc
Le diagnostic positif du coma est basé sur :
Le bilan circonstantiel
Le bilan biologique
Le bilan entrée et sortie
Le degré de mydriase
L'examen du fond d’oeil.
Vous êtes en face d’un patient confus qui a une ouverture des yeux et une flexion anormale des membres supérieurs en réponse à la stimulation douloureuse. Evaluez la profondeur du coma de ce patient en utilisant le score de Glasgow (E-M-V)
GCS : 10/15 ( E3 M3 V4 )
GCS : 10/15 ( E2 M4 V4 )
GCS : 9/15 ( E2 M3 V4)
GCS : 9/15 ( E2 M4 V3)
GCS : 11/15 (E3 M4 V4 )
Quel signe clinique en faveur d'un engagement temporal ?
Trouble de la vigilance
Hémiplégie homolatérale
Myosis avec ptosis
Paraplégie
Aphasie
Une jeune fille de 25A est emmenée aux urgences par leurs parents pour trouble de la conscience, fièvre depuis 3 jours avec céphalée et vomissements. Quel examen paraclinique en priorité ?
Frottis sanguin
Ponction lombiare
Imagérie
Hémoculture
Uroculture
Un patient comateux est emmené au service des urgences par ses voisins. Quel examen paraclinique en première intention ?
Glycémie capillaire
Imagérie
Recherche des toxiques
Ponction lombaire ( PL )
Electro encéphalogramme ( EEG )
L’électroencéphalographie (EEG) est particulièrement importante dans :
Méningites
Traumatisme crânien
Hypoglycémie
Etat de mal épileptique
Intoxication alcoolique.
La mesure de prise en charge immédiate d’un patient comateux avec GCS 7/15 est :
Pose d'une sonde vésicale
Pose d’une voie centrale
Intubation
. Prélèvement du sang
TDM cérébrale
Le traitement étiologique du coma toxique par benzodiazépine est :
Naloxone
Atropine
Flumazénil
Thiamine
Oxygène
Le traitement spécifique d’un patient comateux post traumatique avec altération progressive de la conscience et signe de localisation est :
Antibiothérapie
Chirurgie
Oxygénothérapie
Transfusion
Anti oedèmateux
Quel principe thérapeutique chez un patient alcoolique en état comateux ?
Thiamine
Flumazénil
Naloxone
Atropine
Dopamine
Aux urgences vous avez un patient comateux qui a une intoxication par les organo phosphorés . Quelle conduite thérapeutique spécifique ?
Epinéphrine
Caféine
Atropine
Acétyl cystéine
Narcan
Sur le scanner cérébral d'un patient dans le coma vous trouvez une tumeur cérébrale avec hydrocéphalie majeure . Quelle conduite thérapeutique d'urgence à discuter ?
Ponction lombaire de décharge
Diurétiques
Antihypertensuers
Anti convulsivants
Dérivation ventriculaire
Quel examen paraclinique qui peut poser le diagnostic de mort cérébrale ?
Ondes lentes à l'EEG avec des pauses
2 EEG plats de 10 mn séparés de 4h
EEG plat de 30mn suivi des ondes irrégulières
Absence de flux sanguin à l'angiographie cérébrale
Ralentissement du flux sanguin à l'artériographie des carotides
Quel est l’étiologie de Leucémie aiguë?
Chimiothérapie
Tabac
Thalasémie
Alcool
Amiante
Quelle est la présentation clinique plus fréquence de leucémie aiguë?
Syndrome Infectieux
Splénomégalie importance
Hépatomégalie précose
Envahissemant méningé
Atteinte osseuse
Dans numération formule sanguin, quel élément orientent vers Leucémie aigue?
Blast> 10%
Myélémie
Thrombopénie
Hyperleucocytose
Bicytopénie
Définition des leucémie aigue selon OMS?
Blast médullaire > =20%
Hyperleucocytose > 20K
Blast périphérique > = 20%
Hyperneutrophilie > 20k
Hyperlymphocytaire > 20k
Syndrome infectieux dans leucémie aigue est causé par:
Neutropénie < 500/ml
Hyperleucocytose
Thrombopénie < 10 000/ml
Blast péripérique
Anémie, Hb < 5
Quel est le principe de traitement des Leucémies aigue?
Radiothérapie + chimiothérapie
Que transfusion
Chimiothérapie+ transpantation médullaire
Medicament traditinnelle
Pas de taitement spécifique
En cas urgence, dans syndrome de lyse post chimiothérapie, il faut:
Hyperhydratation + médicament hypohérécimiante
Les hépatoprotecteurs + corticoïde
Corticoïde à forte dose + antibiothérapie
Pas de traitement spécifique
Hydratation + corticoïde à forte dose
Quel est le pronostic post traitement de leucémie aigue lymphoblastique?
80% de guérison chez l’enfant, 40% chez aldult
80% suivie à 2ans puis décé
20% de guérison chez l’enfant, 20% chez aldult
100% de guérison si transpantation médullaire
100% sont décés, jamais guérir
Quel est l’indication de la corticothérapie dans les leucémes aiguë?
Essentielle dans le traitement des LAL
Essentielle dans le traitement des LAM1
Essentielle dans le traitement des LAM3
Il n’y a pas indication dan le tratement des LA
Essentielle dans le traitement des LA secondaire
Neutropénie fébrile post chimiothérapie,dans leucémie aiguë, il faut:
Commencer les antibiotique à large spect
Pas d’antibiotique avant le résultat hémoculture
Trasfèrer au service de réamination
Facteur de croissance à fort dose
Transfusion de sang total
5. Le dépistage du cancer du côlon est particulièrement justifié dans toutes les situations suivantes sauf une. Laquelle?
Antécédent de polypose familiale
Antécédents personnels de rectocolite hémorragique
Antécédent personnel de polype colique solitaire
Antécédents familiaux de cancers rectocoliques
Utilisation prolongée de Laxatif
La courbe de croissance des cellules tumorales est :
Linéaire
Gaussienne
Exponentielle
Aléatoire
Gompertzienne
La tumeur primitive maligne la plus fréquemment observée au niveau du rectum est :
Un carcinome épidermoïde
Un Lymphome malin
Un carcinoide
Un leiomyosarcome
Un adénocarcinome
Une femme de 40 ans, qui a eu ses premières règles à 11 ans et a eu un enfant qu’elle n’a pas allaité à l’âge de 29 ans, est particulièrement exposée à présenter un des cancers suivants. Lequel ?
Carcinome épidermoïde du col utérin
Adénocarcinome du sein
Adénocarcinome du corps de l’utérus
Sarcome de l’utérus
Sarcome du sein
En France, le cancer le plus fréquent chez la femme est :
Le cancer du col utérin
Le cancer du poumon
Le cancer du corps utérin
Le cancer du colon
Le cancer du sein
Parmi les cinq cancers suivants, quel est celui qui tire un bénéfice statistiquement démontré d’une chimiothérapie adjuvante ?
Pancréas
Thyroïde
Prostate
Rein
Sein
Le symptôme révélateur le plus fréquent d’un cancer du rein de l’adulte est :
La découverte d’une masse abdominale
Fièvre inexpliquée
Une hématurie totale
Douleur pelvienne
Anémie
Par convention, la « Chirurgie de principe » répond en cancérologie à l’une des définitions suivantes :
Chirurgie d’urgence
Chirurgie palliative pour le confort du malade
Chirurgie de propreté
Chirurgie à visée fonctionnelle
Chirurgie enlevant une région anatomique apparemment saine
Dans un cancer du sein, la présence de récepteurs hormonaux :
A une signification pronostique favorable
Constitue une contre-indication chirurgicale
Permet de prévoir une bonne chimiosensibilité
Indique que la malade est encore réglée
Permet de prévoir une bonne radiosensibilité
Dans les tableaux métastatiques suivants, quel est celui qui répond à une dissémination hématogène de type porte ?
Adénopathie sus-claviculaire gauche d’un adénocarcinome gastrique
Carcinose péritonéale d’un adénocarcinome de l’ovaire
Métastase pulmonaire d’un carcinome testiculaire
Métastases hépatiques d’un carcinome épidermoïde bronchique
Métastase hépatique d’un carcinoïde du grêle
Parmi les tumeurs osseuses malignes primitives suivantes, quelle est celle qui est d’origine hématopoïétique ?
Ostéosarcome
Angiosarcome
Chondrosarcome
Chondrome
Lymphome
Lors d’une irradiation transcutanée pour épithélioma du col utérin, des complications précoces liées à cette irradiation sont à craindre surtout au niveau de :
Rectum et vessie
Uretère pelvien
Vagin
Anus
Corps de l’utérus
Les œstrogènes tiennent une place importante dans le traitement des cancers de la prostate. Mais leur utilisation peut être déconseillée chez les patients présentant l’une des altérations suivantes. Laquelle ?
Rénale
Digestive
Cardio-vasculaire
Hépatique
Pulmonaire
Parmi les modifications suivantes, quelle est la plus évocatrice de métastases de la moelle osseuse chez un cancéreux connu ?
Une anémie
A) Une hypercalcémie
Une myélémie
Une thrombopénie
Une douleur osseuse
Dans ce groupe, la tumeur considérée comme la plus radiosensible est :
L’épithélioma bronchique anaplasique à petites cellules
L’adénocarcinome
Le cancer épidermoïde
Le gliome malin
Le mélanome malin
Quel est le site métastatique le plus fréquent dans les ostéosarcomes ?
Foie
Cerveau
Poumon
Moelle hématopoïétique
Os
Patient 66A, tabagisme actif 20PA, alcoolisme (1 bouteille de VR/j) sans d’autres comorbidités particulières, hospitalisé pour une dysphagie haute d’apparition progressive et perte du poids (10kg en un mois). Il ne présente aucun antécédent. A l’examen clinique, nous ne trouvons que des adénopathies jugulo-carotidiennes gauches supérieures et moyennes, la plus grande mesurée 3cm. Quel examen d’imagerie le plus important pour faire le bilan loco-régional et d’extension ?
Echographie cervicale
Scanner cervico-facial et thoracique
IRM cervico-faciale et thoracique
Panendoscopie
Actuellement, la thérapeutique généralement conseillée en France dans un cancer du sein survenant chez une femme de 45 ans, porteuse d’un cancer inférieur à 1 cm du quadrant supéro-externe sans ganglion axillaire palpable:
Mastectomie radicale et irradiation post-opératoire
Tumorectomie seule
Mastectomie simple seule
Tumorectomie, vérification axillaire et radiothérapie loco-régionale
Mastectomie radicale seule
Chez une femme de 35 ans présentant une tumeur du sein de 3 cm de diamètre, le seul examen permettant d’affirmer avec certitude le diagnostic de cancer est :
La mammographie
L’examen clinique
L’échographie
Prélèvement pour examen anatomo-pathologique
La cytologie
Parmi les propositions suivantes, une seule est exacte. Laquelle ? Une chimiothérapie adjuvante désigne :
Une chimiothérapie associée à une radiothérapie et/ou une hormonothérapie
Une chimiothérapie après traitement radical chez un malade qui présente un risque élevé de récidive ou de métastase
Une chimiothérapie suivant un traitement ayant entrainé une rémission incomplète
Une deuxième chimiothérapie après l’échec d’une première
Une chimiothérapie pratiquée avant la résection chirurgicale pour réduire le volume tumoral et faciliter l’exérèse
Un jeune garçon de 13ans, sans antécédent personnel et familial particulier, est adressé à l’hôpital pédiatrique de Phnom Penh pour des douleurs osseuses diffuses et une fièvre persistante. Il est à 2 mois de son traitement de tuberculose ganglionnaire diagnostiqué à Siem Reap devant une fièvre chronique et une adénopathie médiastinale sur le scanner thoracique. L’examen clinique retrouve une pâleur cutanéomuqueuse, purpuras pétéchiales au niveau du tronc et membres, des polyadénopathies cervicales millimétriques, une hépatomégalie de 3cm sous rebord costale droit et une splénomégalie de 2cm sous rebord costale gauche. Les testicules sont normaux. L’examen neurologique est sans particularité. La TA est à 110/70mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 100/mn, la température est à 38.7C, le poids à 37kg, la taille à 140cm. Quel est le diagnostic le plus probable devant ce tableau ?
Leucémie aigue
Thalassémie
Tuberculose ganglionnaire
Drépanocytose
Purpura Thrombopénique idiopathique
Un jeune garçon de 13ans, sans antécédent personnel et familial particulier, est adressé à l’hôpital pédiatrique de Phnom Penh pour des douleurs osseuses diffuses et une fièvre persistante. Il est à 2 mois de son traitement de tuberculose ganglionnaire diagnostiqué à Siem Reap devant une fièvre chronique et une adénopathie médiastinale sur le scanner thoracique. L’examen clinique retrouve une pâleur cutanéomuqueuse, purpuras pétéchiales au niveau du tronc et membres, des polyadénopathies cervicales millimétriques, une hépatomégalie de 3cm sous rebord costale droit et une splénomégalie de 2cm sous rebord costale gauche. Les testicules sont normaux. L’examen neurologique est sans particularité. La TA est à 110/70mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 100/mn, la température est à 38.7C, le poids à 37kg, la taille à 140cm. Vous demandez un hémogramme qui montre une Hb à 79g/l, VGM 82fl, CCMH 33g/dl, Réticulocyte 70G/l, Plaquette 30G/L, GB 113G/L dont 40 % de PNN, 55% de lymphocyte. Quelle interprétation faites-vous de cet hémogramme ?
Anémie hypochrome microcytaire non régénérative avec hyperleucocytose et thrombocytose
Anémie macrocytaire d’origine périphérique avec thrombopénie et hyperleurcocytose
Hémogramme normale
Anémie normochome normocytaire avec neutropénie et thrombopénie
Anémie normochrome normocytaire non régénérative, thrombopénie, Hyperleucocytose à prédominant lymphocytaire
Un jeune garçon de 13ans, sans antécédent personnel et familial particulier, est adressé à l’hôpital pédiatrique de Phnom Penh pour des douleurs osseuses diffuses et une fièvre persistante. Il est à 2 mois de son traitement de tuberculose ganglionnaire diagnostiqué à Siem Reap devant une fièvre chronique et une adénopathie médiastinale sur le scanner thoracique. L’examen clinique retrouve une pâleur cutanéomuqueuse, purpuras pétéchiales au niveau du tronc et membres, des polyadénopathies cervicales millimétriques, une hépatomégalie de 3cm sous rebord costale droit et une splénomégalie de 2cm sous rebord costale gauche. Les testicules sont normaux. L’examen neurologique est sans particularité. La TA est à 110/70mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 100/mn, la température est à 38.7C, le poids à 37kg, la taille à 140cm. L’examen biochimique montre un Na à 138 mmol/l, K 6 mmol/l, Ca 65mg/l, Ph 1.8mmol/l, Acide urique 120mg/l , LDH 850UI/l , créatininémie à 120mg/l. Quelle est la cause de cette anomalie ?
Infection chronique
Malnutrition
Inflammation chronique
Syndrome de lyse
Déshydratation
Un jeune garçon de 13ans, sans antécédent personnel et familial particulier, est adressé à l’hôpital pédiatrique de Phnom Penh pour des douleurs osseuses diffuses et une fièvre persistante. Il est à 2 mois de son traitement de tuberculose ganglionnaire diagnostiqué à Siem Reap devant une fièvre chronique et une adénopathie médiastinale sur le scanner thoracique. L’examen clinique retrouve une pâleur cutanéomuqueuse, purpuras pétéchiales au niveau du tronc et membres, des polyadénopathies cervicales millimétriques, une hépatomégalie de 3cm sous rebord costale droit et une splénomégalie de 2cm sous rebord costale gauche. Les testicules sont normaux. L’examen neurologique est sans particularité. La TA est à 110/70mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 100/mn, la température est à 38.7C, le poids à 37kg, la taille à 140cm. Deux heures plus tard, il se plainte de céphalée intense avec hypotonie de membre supérieur gauche. En plus, il devient dyspnéique avec SaO2 à 90%. Cette situation urgente est causée par quel mécanisme ?
Trouble ionique
Anémie
Syndrome de leucostase
Pneumonie grave
Embolie pulmonaire
Un jeune garçon de 13ans, sans antécédent personnel et familial particulier, est adressé à l’hôpital pédiatrique de Phnom Penh pour des douleurs osseuses diffuses et une fièvre persistante. Il est à 2 mois de son traitement de tuberculose ganglionnaire diagnostiqué à Siem Reap devant une fièvre chronique et une adénopathie médiastinale sur le scanner thoracique. L’examen clinique retrouve une pâleur cutanéomuqueuse, purpuras pétéchiales au niveau du tronc et membres, des polyadénopathies cervicales millimétriques, une hépatomégalie de 3cm sous rebord costale droit et une splénomégalie de 2cm sous rebord costale gauche. Les testicules sont normaux. L’examen neurologique est sans particularité. La TA est à 110/70mmHg, la fréquence cardiaque à 100/mn, la température est à 38.7C, le poids à 37kg, la taille à 140cm. Votre sénior explique aux parents les principes de traitement qui reposent sur la corticothérapie et la chimiothérapie avec la possibilité d’allogreffe en cas de réponse insuffisant aux chimiothérapies. Ils pleurent parce qu’ils croient que son fils va mourir comme sa voisine de 65ans qui a la même maladie. Que dites-vous pour les rassurer ?
Il va mourir de cette maladie dans un peu de temps
Il va guérit 100%
Le pronostic est différent que ce de sujet âgé même si la pathologie est pareil
Guérison possible avec handicap majeur
Le traitement peut prolonger sa vie un peu plus
Quelle est la proposition exacte concernant la particularité épidémiologique des cancers de l’enfant ?
L’enfant n’est jamais atteint de cancer
Il ne faut jamais penser au cancer devant une masse abdominale de nouveau-née
Il n’existe pas de cancer chez l’enfant au Cambodge
L’incidence de cancer de l’enfant < 15ans est environ 130 nouveaux cas par million par an
La leucémie aigue est une maladie de l’adolescence
Lequel entre les cancers si dessous est un cancer chez l’enfant ?
Carcinome hépatocellulaire
Carcinome épidermoide de l’œsophage
Cholangiocarcinome
Néphroblastome
Carcinome à petite cellule du poumon
3/Concernant la particularité des cancers de l’enfant :
Grande chimio sensibilité
Radiorésistance
Multiplication lente
Chimiorésistance
Cellules cancéreuses sont souvent matures
La prise en charge de cancer de l’enfant est faite par :
Pédiatre
Radiothérapeute
Oncologue
Chirurgien
Équipe pluridisciplinaire
Le pronostic de cancers de l’enfant :
Maladies non curables
Même pronostic que les cancers de l’adulte
Taux de guérison 75-80%
Evolution lente
Pronostique péjoratif
Un donneur du groupe B+ peut donner son sang à :
Un receveur du groupe B+
Un receveur du groupe A+
Un receveur du groupe B-
Un receveur du groupe A-
Un receveur du groupe AB-
Un patient ayant un groupe sanguin O est porteur :
D’antigène A
D’antigène A et antigènes B
D’anticorps anti-B
D’antigènes B
D’aucun anticorps
Mme X, est de groupe O rhésus positif phénotype C+, E-, c+, e+, K- et doit etre transfusée en concentrés de globules rouges phénotypés. Quel est celui que l’on peut lui transfuser ?
O positif C+, E+, c+, e+, K-
O positif C+, E-, c+ e+, K-
O positif C+, E-, c-, e+, K+
O positif C+, E+, c-, e-, K-
Le contrôle ultime pré-transfusionnel:
Permet de prévenir les accidents par l’incompatibilité ABO lors de transfusions globulaires rouges
Conservation de la carte de contrôle ultime pré-transfusionnel jusqu’à 48h après la transfusion puis la jette
Dans la salle de soins, sur le plan de travail, uniquement sur la 1ère poche
Réaliser uniquement le test de compatibilité si le test de concordance a été réalisé par une autre personne.
Chez un receveur adulte de groupe sanguin O, les anticorps anti A, anti B
Ne sont présente qu’à la suite d’une transfusion ABO incompatible
N’entrainent la destruction des hématies de groupe A, B, AB qu’après plusieurs immunisation par plusieurs transfusions incompatibles
Peuvent entrainer une hémolyse des hématies de groupes A, B, AB dès la première transfusion
Sont mis en evidence lors d’une recherche d’agglutinines irrégulières.
En cas de suspicion d’effet indésirable receveur, on doit :
Arrêter tout de suite la transfusion et appeler le médecin
Poursuivre la surveillance
Retirer la voie veineuse et
Enlever le sac sanguin et l’emporter à la banque de sang
Corticothérapie et antihistaminique
Au cours d’une intervention pour traitement d’un anévrisme aortique abdominale, une femme de 61 ans a reçu un culot globulaire de groupe A rhésus négatif. Son groupe sanguin est O rhésus positif. Cinq minutes après le début de la transfusion, sa température monte à 39oC et sa pression artérielle chute de 100/60 mmHg a 60/20 mmHg. Quelle est l’explication la plus probable de ces phénomènes?
Destruction des globules rouges médiée par le complément
Interaction entre leucocytes du donneur et antigène du receveur
Incompatibilité rhésus
Formation de microthrombi et agrégation plaquettaire
Anticorps du donneur contre antigène O du receveur
Lors de la transfusion de plaquettes :
Durée de la transfusion est entre 1h-2h
Pour but de restaurer l’hémostase primaire et secondaire
Règle de compatibilité : ABO souhaitable et obligatoire
Risque important et fréquent sont l’immunisation antileucocytaire anti-HLA et l’infection.
Règle de compatibilité : Rhésus est souhaitable (immunoglobuline anti-D), anticorps anti-HLA, plaquettes HLA compatibles.
L’ordonnance d’une transfusion plaquettaire doit préciser :
La numération plaquettaire pré-transfusionnelle et le poids
2 déterminations de groupe ABO
L’Hb et hématocrite du patient avant la transfusion
L’âge du patient et le poids du patient
Au moment de la transfusion de plasma frais congelé déleucocyte :
Délivrance suit la décongélation < 2h a la capacité de préserver les facteurs de la coagulation
Règles de compatibilité ABO est adaptées aux plasmas.
L’indication est dans les conditions où l’hémorragie est gravissime.
Les éléments importants à préciser dans l’ordonnance de demande de plasma sont : le poids du patient, NFS.
Quel est le diagnostic d’un patient avec état dyspnéique fébrile après 48h d’hospitalisation? (QRU) (SBA)
Pneumonie Inhalation
Pneumonie nosocomiale
Pneumonie communautaire
Bronchite aigue
Pneumocystose
Devant un tableau de Pneumonie au cours d’hospitalisation, quel examen clinique faites-vous? (QRU) (SBA)
Auscultation cardiaque
Regardez sur son état veineux
Examen neurologique
Regardez son Sonde Urinaire
Intérogatoire pour savoir s’il y a des troubles de déglutition
Examen clinique montrait une toux avec des crachats verdâtres avec des crépitants basale droite, quel examen paraclinique demandez-vous pour confirmer le diagnostic ? (QRU) (SBA)
CRP + NSF + VS
Radiographie pulmonaire
Tubage gastrique
Échographie abdomino-pelvienne
Bronchoscopie
La Radio pulmonaire montrait une opacité floue basale droite. Le diagnostic est confirmé pour une Pneumonie nosocomiale, quel est le germe le plus souvent peut responsable dans cette pathologie? (QRU) (SBA)
Streptococcus susi
Staphylococcus Méti-Résistant
Streptococcus pneumoniae à SDP
Staphylococcus Blanc
Pseudomonase spp
Quel est le traitement proposez-vous pour une Pneumonie nosocomiale (germe indéterminé)? (QRU) (SBA)
Ceftazidime
Amoxicilline + Acide clavulanique
Ceftazidime +/- Vancomycine
Cabarpenem
Ceftriaxone + Moxifloxacine
Quel sont les examens para-cliniques nécessares pour diagnostiquer d`une infection à cryptocoque chez patients VIH+: (QRU) (SBA)
Tx.CD4
LCR culture
PCR et VS
Coloration de Ziel
LCR test à l`encre de Chine
Quand peut on débuter le traitement par des ARV chez d`une méningite tuberculeuse (QRU) (SBA)
1 mois après induction des anti TB.
Quand le patient à tolérer avec des anti TB
A la fin du traitement d`attaque par des anti-TB.
Une semaine après induction des anti-TB
Deux semaines après induction des anti TB
Le but d`utilisation des corticoïdes dans le traitement de méningite à TB. (QRU)
Lutte contre oedème cérébrale
Aider les effets des Antibiotiques
Effet sinergique avec les anti-TB
Lutte contre la réaction paradoxale
Amélioration des effets indésirables des Anti-TB
Etude des LCR: Quel sont les arguments possible pour diagnostiquer le méningite à TB (QRU) (SBA)
Hypo-albuminorrachie.
Lymphocyte prédominante
Normoglycorrachie
PMN prédominante
Hyperglycorrachie.
Quand peut on débuter des AVR chez le patient VIH ? (QRU) (SBA)
Tx CD4>500/mm3
Stade de clinique 4 (OMS classification)
Tx CD4≤350/mm3
Stade de clinique de SIDA ou stade C (CDC classification)
Tx CD4<250/mm3
Définition d’une infection nosocomiale : (QRU) (SBA)
Avant d’être hospitalisé
Après une semaine d’hospitalisation
Au cours d’une hospitalisation
Après avoir réalisé des gestes invasifs (intubé ventilé, FOGD, Sonde urinaire…)
Après 48h d’hospitalisation
Quelle antibiotiques anti-staphylococcique à choisir devant une infection due au Staph Méti-R: (QRU) (SBA)
OXACILLINE
CEFTRIAXONE
VANCOMYCINE
CEFTAZIDIME
AMOXICILLINE
Quelle antibiotique peut-on donner pour une infection dû au group de Pseudomonas : (QRU) (SBA)
BACTRIM
ACIDE FUSIDIQUE
OFLOXACINE
CEFTAZIDIME
CEFTRIAXONE
Quelles sont les infections nosocomiales le plus rencontrée au Cambodge : (QRU) (SBA)
Infection digestive
Infection sur cathéter
Infection respiratoire
Infection de la plaie post opéré
Infection urinaire
Quel est le cause de l’hyper-éosinophilie le plus rencontré au Cambodge: (QRU) (SBA)
Cause allergique
Cause Parasitaire
Utilisation des Antibiotiques
Maladie du sang
Cause néoplasique
Devant une hyperéosinophilique, quel examen demander vous en premier intention: (QRU) (SBA)
CRP + NSF + VS
Coproculture
Les auto-anticorps
Examen parasitologie des selle
BOM
Dans quel l’instant pouvez-vous faire en association les antibiotiques (QRU) (SBA)
Pneumopathies communotaires graves et hypoxémiantes
Abcès amibienne du foie
La pyélonéphrite aigue simple,
Fièvre chez le sujet lymphopénie
Infections Streptococcique
Quels sont les points suivient de l’echec antibiothérapie: (QRU)
Persistance des signes > 48h
Réapparition au cours de la convalescente
Nouvelle infection
Disparition de métastase septique
Pas d’ extension localisé
Le choix de l’antibiothérapie tenir compte selon: (QRU)
Le site de l’infection,
Le patient a présenté une fièvre aigue seule.
Le tarif
Les laboratoires
Le diagnostic bactériologique sans signe Clinique,
Chez un malade adulte en état de choc hypovolémique par déshydratation suite à des pertes digestives, quel est le principe de votre expansion volémique initiale ? (QRU)
1 à à 1,5 ml/kg de cristalloïdes / 20 minutes
1 à à 1,5 ml/kg de colloïdes / 20 minutes
10 à à 15 ml/kg de cristalloïdes / 20 minutes
100 à 150 ml/kg de colloïdes / 20 minutes
100 à 150 ml/kg de cristalloïdes / 20 minutes
Vous êtes appelé au lit d’un patient de 57 ans aux antécédents de BPCO qui présente une DRA avec des signes d’ACR imminent. Vous suspectez un pneumothorax (distension thoracique + silence + tympanisme unilatéral). Que faites (QRU)
Vous augmentez l’O2 à 6l/min
Vous transferer au Rea
Vous appelez un réanimateur pour exsuffler le PNO
Vous appelez les autres
Vous vérifiez la coagulation avant d’exsuffler
Chez quel(s) patients la prescription d’O2 est-elle potentiellement iatrogène ? (QRU)
Chez tous les BPCO
Chez tous les patients hypoxiques chroniques
Chez tous les Insuffisants respiratoires chroniques obstructifs
Chez tous les patients hypercapniques chroniques
Chez tous les insuffisants respiratoires chroniques restrictifs
Chez un patient fébrile hospitalisé, les arguments suivant pour ne pas commencer tout de suite une ATB-thérapie sont corrects, sauf un : (QRU)
Sa température n’est pas très élevée à 37.8°C
Il n’y a pas de signes de gravité clinique ni biologique
BIl présente une déshydratation intra-cellulaire qui peut expliquer sa fièvre
Il existe des arguments pour une infection virale
Il n’y a pas de syndrome inflammatoire biologique
Vous prenez en charge un malade en ACC à l’hôpital. Il était en détresse respiratoire depuis plusieurs heures auparavant. Avant de poser un scope, quelle est votre hypothèse pour son tracé ECG ? (QRU)
Asystolie
Tachycardie Ventriculaire
Dissociation Electro-Mécanique
Torsade de Pointe
Fibrillation Ventriculaire
Vous réalisez une RCP de base chez un patient en ACC. Dans quel ordre réalisez-vous les gestes ? A = Airways (LVAS) ; B = Breathing = ventilation ; C = Circulation = MCE (QRU)
A-B-C
C-A-B
B-C-A
C-B-A
B-A-C
Patient VIH avec crise convulsive généralisée cédant spontanément, Quel est votre diagnostic neurologique? (QRU)
Criseépileptique partielle simple.
Criseépileptique partielle generalize tonico-clonique.
Criseépileptique partielle complexe.
Etat de mal épileptique.
Criseépileptique partielle secondairement généralisée.
Patient VIH avec crise convulsive fébrile, CD4 à a20/mm3, quel diagnostic évoquezvous en priorité? (QRU)
Hypoglicémie.
Toxoplasmosecérébrale.
Métastasecérébrale.
LEMP.
AVC hémorragique.
Quelsont les éléments typiques que vous recherchez sur le scanner pour conforter votre diagnostic? (QRU)
Abcès cérébro unique
Edème péri-lésionnel.
Image en cocarde multiple
Dilatation quatriventriculaire.
Hyperdensité spontanée parenchymateuse, non systématisé.
Les Streptocoques sont:
Cocci gram negatives
Batéries à croissants lentes
Bacci gram positives
Cocci gram positives
Cocco-Bacci gram positives
Le dermohypodermite est souvent cause par une infection à:
Staphylocoque méticilline sensible
Streptocoque pneumoniea
Staphylocoque méticilline resistant
Streptocoque
Staphylocoque d’auré
Comment traite-t-on la rage? (SBA)
Sérum anti-rabique
Pas de traitement spécifique, traitement symptomatique (Réanimation etc)
Vaccination anti-rabique
Anti-viraux
Antibiotique de large spectre
Quel est la principale source qui donne la rage aux humaines?
Chauffes-souris
Singes
Chiens
Poules
Chats
Comment peut-on faire avec la plaie mordue en suspicion de la rage?
Laver la plaie et puis suturer
Laver la plaie avec de savon mais il ne faut pas suturer. Donner une Vaccination anti-rabique et anti-tétanique en même temps avec donner d’antibiothérapie si necessaire
Laver la plaie avec de Bétadine et suturer puis donner des antibiotiques
A. Laisser la plaie à l’aire et ne rien faire
Laisser la plaie en air mais il ne faut pas donner des antibiotiques
Quel est le germe qui donne le plus une infection sur une cathétère perfusée?
Streptocoque
Staphylocoque
Pseudomonase
E-colie
Leptospirose
Les staphylocoques méticilline resistant:
Peut être traité par de Cloxacilline
Vancomycine est le meilleur traitement
Toujours sensible aux Penicilline M
Ceftriaxone est aussi efficace
Les quinolones peuvent être utilisée en monothérapie
Comment pour lutter contre une infection nosocomiale?
Séparer des patients
Hygiène des mains
Utiliser des antibiotiques de larges spectres
Laver les vêtements des patients
Utiliser des antibiotiques en association
Les hémocultures
Peuvent être fait après les antibiotiques
Ne jamais fait sur le membre perfusé de patient
Peuvent être fait sur les cathétère perfusées
Fait même s’il n’ y a pas de temperature
Une foie seullement
L’ECBC
Examen des crachats pour rechercher des BK
Les batériologies des crachats pour bien identifier les cause de pneumonie
Examen des crachats pour rechercher des Melioidose
Test rapide pour Leptospirose
Peut être fait seulement une fois par jour
Melioidose est causé par
Burkhodelia cepacia
Pseudomonase aeroginosa
Burkhodelia thailandensis
Acinetobacter baumanei
Burkhodelia pseudomallei
Infection de la dengue
Il y a 3 sérotype de la dengue
Le PCR de la dengue est le test le plus fiable pour confirmer le diagnostique
Seulement pour les enfants
Peut donner une fièvre avec foyer pulmonaire
Peut être traité par des antibiotique
Choléra
Jamais entendu au Cambodge
Peut eviter par des moyens hygièniques
Seulement en Afrique
Pas besoin des antibiotique
Non traitable
Tuberculose pulmonaire
Non traitable
La durée totale pour la culture de BK est de 2 semaines
Gen X-pert est le test pour détecter les BK
La recherche de PCR BK est le test le plus pratique au Cambodge
Culture de BK est fait par le milieu de culture Ashdown
Tuberculose pulmonaire
Si resistant au Rifampicine, on peut utiliser seullement INH + PZA + ETH pendant 6 mois
Streptomycine doit être ajouté dans une méningite tuberculose
Les quinolones ne peuvent pas être utilisé dans la deuxième ligne
B. Il ne faut pas donner des corticoids
Streptomycine doit être ajouté dans une méningite tuberculose
Une infection urinaire
Leuccyturie > 105
Leuccyturie > 104 avec Batiurie > 105
Leucocyturie < 105 avec Bactiruie positive
Leucocyturie negative mais presence des germes
Leuccyturie > 105 avec Bactiurie negative mais nitrite positive
Quel le germe le plus rencontré dans une infection urinaire?
Staphylocoque
E-coli
Streptocoque
Samonella
Klebsiella
Quel le germe le plus rencontré dans une infection respiratoire bas?
Streptocoque
Burkhodellia pseudomallei
Klebseilla
H-Influenza
Pseudomonas
Le germ le plus rencontré pour une méningite au Cambodge
Streptocoque pneumonia
H-Influenza
Streptocoque suis
E-coli
Cryptocoque
Leptospirose
Fièvre ictéro-hémorragique
Pas de traitement specifique
Infection virale
Maladie contagieuse
Pas de moyen diagnostiquer
Rickettiose
Causé par une piqure d’insecte
Pas de moyen diagnostiquer
Doxicycline est le traitement le plus efficace
Maladie contagieuse
Ceftriaxone est le meilleur medicament
Endocardite infectieuse
Souvent d’origine virale
Pas besoins de faire les hémoculture
Diagnostique se fait par une ETT + ETO avec une hémoculture positive
Si les hémocultures sont negatives, on peut éliminer le diagnostique d’endocardite
Diagnostique se fait par une ETT +/- ETO avec une hémoculture positive
Vascularisation du gros intestin :
Le coecum est vascularise par l’artere mesenterique inferieure
Les arteres coliques s’anastomosent en une seule arcade colique bordante
L’artere mesenterique superieur vascularisent le colon droit et l’intestin grele
Colon transverse est vascularise par le tronc coeliaque
Le rectum est vascularise par une seule branche de l’artere mesenterique inferieure
Quels elements cliniques peuvent faire suspecter l’existence d’un cancer colorectal ?
Une jeune fille en bonne sante, presence une rectorrhagie et douleur de la marge anale
Une femme age de 55 ans, a presente dans son histoire de douleur epigastrique, nause et sells noiratre de temos en temps, avec perte de poids remarquable
Un home de 65 ans ayant presenter le syndrome rectal depuis 2 mois, rectorrhagie , anemie et amaigrissement progressif
Une jeune femme avec l’etat general conserve et presente une masse abdominale palpable et mobile sus pubienne
Un home de 36 ans a presente un abces peri-anal depuis un an et qui a persiste d’ecoulement purulant jusqu'à maitenant
Quel est le type histologique le plus frequent d’un cancer colorectal »
Cystadenocarcinome
Carcinome neuro-endocrine
Adenocarcinone
Gastro-intestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
Sarcome
Quel examen paraclinique qui nous aide de diagnostiquer d’un cancer colorectal ?
Scanner abdominal avec injection
Colonoscopie total avec biopsie et examen anatomopathologique
Lavement baryte a double contrast
IRM abdomino-pelvien
Tumeur marqueur ACE
Quel est l’examen d’imagerie de reference a prescrire pour explorer un cancer du rectum ?
Ultrasonographie
IRM abdomino-pelvien
Lavement baryte a double contrast
CTscan abdominal avec injection
Echo-endoscopie
Quelle est la proposition la plus correcte devant un cancer obstructif du colon sigmoide chez un home de 65 ans
Quelle est la proposition la plus correcte devant un cancer obstructif du colon sigmoide chez un home de 65 ans
Demander la coloscopie total et biopsie de la masse tumorale pour l’examen anatomopathologique
A. Admis le patient au service de reanimation et traitement medical
Completer le bilan preoperatoire et bilan d’extention, puis transferer le patient au bloc pour faire la sigmoidectomy et colostomie terminale gauche
Faire la sigmoidectomie et anastomose colo-rectale en premier temps
Un home age de 60 ans, a presente une rectorrhagie depuis un mois, syndrome rectal avec selles glaireuse et perte du poid. Quel est le diagnostic le plus probable ?
Hemorrhoide interne
Fissure anale
Cancer du Coecum
Cancer du rectum
Polype rectal
Quelle est la chirurgie realisee en cas de cancer du rectum base avec envahissement du sphincter anal ?
Operation de Hartmann
La resection anterieure avec resection complete du meso-rectum et anastomose colo-rectale base
La sigmoidectomie
La proctectomie avec resection complete du meso-rectum et anastomose colo-anale
L’amputation abdomino-perineale avec colostomie gauche definitive
Quel est le type anatomopathologique le plus frequent dans les cancers du pancreas ?
Cystadenocarcinome
Cancer neuro-endocrine
Lymphome malin
Adenocarcinome canalaire
Sarcome
Le cancer du pancreas exocrine se trouve frequament dans
La tete du pancreas
Le corp
La queuse du pancreas
L’hisme du pancreas
Cancer diffuse
Quels sont les signes cliniques les plus classiquement retrouves dans un cancer de la tete du pancreas ?
Ictere, gros vesicule palpable et non douloureuse
Ictere, Fievre et signe de Murphy possitif
Ictere,colique hepatique avec l’etat general conserve
Ictere, fievre-frission et splenomegalie
Ictere, fievre-frission et splenomegalie
Quel examen qui a un valeur de diagnostic du cancer de la tete du pancreas ?
Le TDM abdominal avec injection de produit de contrast
Le Bili-IRM
CPRE
Echo-endoscopie
Laparoscopie
Quel est le marqueur tumoral du cancer exocrine du pancreas ?
ACE
CA125
AFP
CA19.9
CA15.3
Quel est le traitement chirurgical a vise curratif du cancer de la tete du Pancreas ?
Pancreatectomie total
Pancreatectomie cephalique
Duodeno-pancreatectomie cephalique
Spleno-pancreatectomie caudale
Double derivation interne (Biliaire et Gastrique)
Quel est le moyen palliatif le moins aggressif pour prolonger la survie d’un cancer de la tete du pancreas ?
CPRE avec sphincterotomie
CPRE avec mise une prothese du choledoque (si faissable)
Laparotomie et derivation biliaire interne
Drainage percutanee et transhepatique de la bile
La Radiotherapie
5. Si un cancer de la tete du pancreas est inoperable (non resecable), le traitement palliatif peut prolonger la survie dupatient :
Plus de 5 ans
Entre 3 et 5 ans
Entre 1 et 3 ans
Entre 1 et 3 ans
< un mois
Angiocholite se définit comme:
Une lithiase cholédocienne
Une infection de la voie bilaire principale
Une thrombose de l’artère cystique
Une suppuration vésiculaire
Une colite infectieuse
Toutes les affirmations suivant concernant angiocholite sont justes, sauf une:laquelle?
Les voies biliaire ne sont pas obligatoirement dilatées à l’’echographie
Les hémoculture sont souvent positives
Une insuffisace rénale est une complication possible
L’ictère peut obtenir rapidement à une insuffisance hépatocellulaire aiguë
L’ictère peut être retardé par rapport aux autre signes
En chirurgie le drian de kehr est place:
Dans la lit vésiculaire après cholécystectomie
Dans le canal cystique après cholécystectomie
Dans la vésicule
Dans le cholédoque à travers la paroi abdominal
Dans le cholédoque vers le duodenum à travers la papille
Au cours d’une cholécystectomie on découvre un calcul du cholédoque enclave dans l’ampoulle de vater.Le cholédoque est de petite diameter, quell traitement opératoire proposeriez-vous?
Anastomose cholédoco-duodénale
Anastomose cholédoco-jéjunale
Sphintérotomie chirurgicale
Mise en place d’un drian de Kehr uniquement
Aucune de ses réponses n’est exacte
Le cholécystite aiguë , sur le plan pathogénique, est habituellement en rapport avec:
Un reflux duodéno-biliaire
Une infection par voie hématogène
Le blocage d’un calcul dans le siphon vésiculaire
Un calcul cholédociene
Une dyskinésie vésiculaire
A propose de la pathologie des voies biliaires il est exact que:
Une lithiase vésiculaire est le plus souvent symptomatique
L’hydrocholécyste est une indication opératoire formelle
Le risqué de cancerisation justifie la cholécystectomie de toute vésicule lithiasique
L’échographie visualize plus aisément une lithiase de la VBP qu’une lithiase vésiculaire
La cholangiographie peropératoire n’est indiquée que lors de suspicion de lithiase cholédocinne
Parmi les propositions de traitement d’une cholécystite aiguë chez un adult jeune sans tare visceral, quelle est celle qui est exacte?
Antibiothérapie + cholécystectomie
Cholédocotomie
Cholécystotomie
Anastomose cholédoco-duodénale
Ponction de la vésicule sous échographie
Un patient de 75 ans a subi une cholécystectomie il y a un an.On découvre maintenant un calcul cholédocien résiduel de 7 mm.Quel est le traitement que vous proposeriez parmi les proposition suivantes?
Réintervention pour cholédocotomie et extraction calcul
Lthotrithie extra-corporelle
Sphintérotomie endoscopique
Traitement medical par Ursolvan
Pas de traitement
Parmi les signes Clinique suivants, quell est le seul permettant au cours d’une cholécystite aiguë de suspecter une lithiase de la voie biliaire principale?
Grosse vésicule
Fièvre
Ictère
Douleur provoquée de l’HCD
Douleur à irradiation scapulaire
Une crise douleureuse de l’HCD accompagnée de fièvre et suivie d’un subictère conjontival évoque:
Un cancer de la tête du pancreas
Un cancer de la vésicule biliaire
Une lithiase cholédocienne
Une lithiase vésiculaire
Un cancer du confluent biliaire supérieur
Chez une femme de 40 ans ayant fait une première crise de colique hépatique régressive sous traitement symptomatique, l'échographie abdominale montre une lithiase vésiculaire simple. Quelle est la conduite à tenir ?
La prise régulière de Spasfon
Un traitement dissolvant par l'acide ursodésoxycholique (Delursan 250 3 cp/j) pendant 6 mois
Un cathétérisme rétrograde avec sphinctérotomie endoscopique
Une cholécystectomie
L'abstention thérapeutique
Parmi les propositions suivantes concernant la crise de colique hépatique, une est inexacte. Laquelle ?
La douleur peut siéger dans l'hypochondre gauche
La douleur peut être soulagée par la pression profonde du creux épigastrique
L'irradiation de la douleur à l'épaule droite est fréquente
La douleur est liée à la mise en tension brutale des voies biliaires
Une douleur épigastrique de survenue brutale sans défense péritonéale doit faire évoquer en premier lieu une colique hépatique
Le traitement habituel de la crise de colique hépatique non compliquée est représenté par la prescription de :
L'acide urso ou chénodésoxycholique
Un antibiotique
Un antispasmodique
Une sphinctérotomie endoscopique
Une cholécystectomie
Chez un vieillard , la Lithiase Vésiculaire peut se réveler par :
Une colique hépathique
Un malaise
Des troubles psychiques
Aucun symptôme ou une symptomatologie modérée
Toutes les réponses sont justes
A propos de la pathologie des voies biliaires (V.B.) il est exact que :
Une lithiase vésiculaire est le plus souvent symptomatique
L'hydrocholécyste est une indication opératoire formelle
Le risque de survenue d'un cancer justifie la cholécystectomie systématique de toute vésicule lithiasique
L'échographie visualise plus aisément une lithiase de la VBP qu'une lithiase vésiculaire
La cholangiographie per-opératoire n'est indiquée, au cours de la cholécystectomie. Qu'en cas de suspicion de lithiase cholédocienne
A l'occasion d'un syndrome douloureux de l'hypochondre droit chez une femme de 30 ans en excellent état général, vous découvrez une lithiase biliaire vésiculaire à l'échographie. En cholécystographie, la vésicule est perméable, les calculs font entre 5 et 8 mm. Que pensez-vous devoir proposer ?
Rien
Un traitement cholérétique
Un traitement dissolvant par l'acide ursodésoxycholique
Une cholécystectomie
Un régime hypocholestérolemiant
Quel est l'examen le plus sensible pour la détection de la lithiase vésiculaire ?
Scanner abdominal
échographie abdominale
Cholécystographie orale
ASP
Biligraphie intraveineuse
Parmi les affections suivantes, quelle(s) est (sont) celle(s) qui est (sont) susceptible(s) de donner un ictère à bilirubine conjuguée ?
Lithiase du cholédoque
Maladie de Gilbert
Lithiase vésiculaire non compliquée
 
Une femme de 56 ans, sans antécédents notables, présente des crises de colique hépatique qui se répètent de façon rapprochée. Un cliché de l'abdomen sans préparation montre trois images radio-opaques dont l'échographie confirme qu'il s'agit de calculs mobiles dans la vésicule biliaire.
Vous conseillez une cholécystectomie
Vous prescrivez une cure d'acide ursodésoxycholique
Vous proposez une sphinctérotomie endoscopique
Vous prescrivez une antibiothérapie et un régime
Vous conseillez l'abstention de toute thérapeutique
Le prurit au cours d'une Choléstase est en liaison avec:
Une élévation des phosphatases alcalines
Une malabsorption des vitamines liposolubles
Une élévation des transaminases
Un dépôt sous cutané des sels biliaires
L'hyperbilirubinémie
Une angiocholite se définit comme:
Une lithiase cholédocienne
Une infection de la voie biliaire principale
Une thrombose de l'artère cystique
Une suppuration vésiculaire
Une colite infectieuse
19. Parmi les signes cliniques suivants, quel est le seul permettant au cours d'une cholecystite aiguë de suspecter une lithiase de la voie biliaire principale ?
Grosse vésicule
Fièvre
Ictère
Douleur provoquée de l'hypochondre droit
Douleur à irradiation scapulaire
20. Chez une patiente de 35 ans, en bon état général, jamais opérée et présentant deux calculs dans la VBP, totalement asymptomatique, quelle est la meilleure attitude à adopter ?
Abstention et surveillance.
Traitement dissolvant par acide ursodésoxycholique.
Cholécystectomie+ extraction des calculs de la voie biliaire principale par cholédocotomie.
Sphinctérotomie endoscopique.
Cholédocotomie avec extraction des calculs
La lithiase de la voie biliaire principale:
Se manifeste typiquement par un ictère douloureux et fébrile à rechute
S’accompagne toujours d’une dilatation des voies biliaires à l’échographie
Est souvent autochtone
L’échographie abdominale est l’examen le plus sensible pour le diagnostic
Prédispose aux cancers de la VBP
Le signe de Murphy correspond à :
Un empattement douloureux de l’hypochondre droit.
Un ébranlement hépatique douloureux.
Une hyperesthésie sous costale droite.
Une défense élective de l’hypochondre droit.
Une douleur provoquée sous costale droite inhibant l’inspiration.
Quelle complication n'est pas en rapport avec un calcul de la voie biliaire principale?
Cholangite sclérosante.
Angiocholite.
Ictère rétentionnel.
Cirrhose biliaire
Syndrome de Mirizzi.
A 25 years old woman with a history of schizoaffective disorders, she did not sleep, irritable, spoke nonsense, want to run away. She was by the general doctor from the emergency unit. She is six weeks pregnant. Her BP: 120/80mmgh, pulse: 102/mn. The medical illness reveals no pathology noted. Which is the following medication need to be most urgently for the treatment?
Carbamazepine
Fluoxetine
Clonazepam
Olanzapine
Sodium valproate
A 33 years old woman with a history of schizoaffective disorders is referred for assessment the obstetric team. She has just giving birth to a healthy baby and wishes to breastfeed. They are seeking immediately advice regarding her medication and the risk of breast feeding. Which is of the following medications needs to be the most urgently treated?
Carbamazepine
Fluoxetine
Diazepam
Olanzapine
Sodium valproate
A 35 years old man with a history of schizoaffective disorders comes with urinary retention. Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible?
Carbamazepine
Clomipramine
Clonazepam
Haloperidol Decanoate
Lithium
A 32 years old woman with a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder being treated with clozapine was found to have mild neutropenia on routine blood investigation. Which of these psychotropic drug is the most likely to have a beneficial effect in correcting this patient’s neutropenia?
Olanzapine
Risperidone
Lithium
Sodium valproate
Haloperidol
A 65 years old woman is referred for assessment the cardiology therapist. He has a history of unstable angina and has become depressed. Which of the following antidepressants would be the most suitable for treating this patient?
Clomipramine
Amitriptyline
Nortriptyline
Imipramine
Fluoxetine
A 44 years old woman is attending for treatment of bipolar affective disorders. A routine blood investigation reveals a raised ALP and gamma GT. Which of the following drug is the most caused this abnormality?
Carbamazepine
Lithium
Sodium valproate
Clonazepam
Haloperidol
A 50 years old woman with a diagnosis of bipolar affective disorder and epilepsy has been well maintained on sodium valproate. She recently has a relapse both illnesses after a second medication was introduced. Which of these medication is the most likely responsible for her relapse?
Diazepam
Clonazepam
Risperidone
Carbamazepine
Olanzapine
Which of following statements regarding lithium is most true?
A serum peak level is reached 12 hours after ingestion
Absorbed rapidly from the upper gastrointestinal tract
Extensively metabolized by the liver
Bound to serum protein (pharmacokinetic)
Poor correlation between serum level and side effect
Which of following scenarios is lithium least likely to be effective?
Treatment of mania
Prophylaxis for bipolar disorder
Prophylaxis for unipolar disorder
Maintenance treatment bipolar disorder
Treatment resistant of depression
A 35 years old man on lithium for one year for the treatment of bipolar is brought to emergency by his family due to disorientation in his mental state. Following examination give the suspect lithium toxicity. Which of the following would be the most concern?
Diarrhea
Tremor
Apathy
Polydipsia
Urine retention
A 35-year-old man, married, 2 children, accountant with no previous psychiatric history is referred by his family physician for psychiatric evaluation. The physician found that he had mild hyperlipidemia. About 2 months ago, the man began to feel very blue, with a drop in his desire to play with his children and to compete in his usual volleyball. He reports that he has lost most of his libido and is having difficulty sleeping. Which of the following is the most information needed?
Experience of the traumatic event
Experience of the anxiety situation
Experience of the trigger object
Experience of the problem at work and family
A 35-year-old man, married, 2 children, accountant with no previous psychiatric history is referred by his family physician for psychiatric evaluation. The physician found that he had mild hyperlipidemia. About 2 months ago, the man began to feel very blue, with a drop in his desire to play with his children and to compete in his usual volleyball. He reports that he has lost most of his libido and is having difficulty sleeping. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Schizoaffective disorders
Bipolar affective disorders
Depressive disorders
Schizophreniform
A 35-year-old man, married, 2 children, accountant with no previous psychiatric history is referred by his family physician for psychiatric evaluation. The physician found that he had mild hyperlipidemia. About 2 months ago, the man began to feel very blue, with a drop in his desire to play with his children and to compete in his usual volleyball. He reports that he has lost most of his libido and is having difficulty sleeping. Which would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Clozapine
Fluoxetine
Diazepam
Carbamazepine
Serena is 27 years old, accountancy. She complaints of head cold and poor quality sleep. He blood pressure is 105/ 75 mmgh, pouls is 96/ mn. Those symptoms are likely to be symptoms of:
Distress
Eustress
Allostasis
Learned helplessness
Regarding central serotonergic neurotransmission, which of the following serotonin receptors is most likely to operate presynaptic?
5HT-1A
5HT-2A
5HT-2C
5HT-1D
5HTY
Recent evidence suggests that at least some phobias is closely associated with the emotion of:
Anger
Sadness
Irritable
Disgust(dislike)
Euphoric
Individuals experience concerns about embarrassment and is afraid that others will judge them to be anxious, weak, “crazy”, or stupid. The emotional will be:
Fear of going out alone
Fear of crowd place
Fear of performance
Fear of panicky
Fear of dangerous
A 20 years old man comes with the symptoms of the emotional excessive checking his door most of the time. Which is the symptoms below could explain his emotional?
The ambivalence of thinking
The compulsion behavior
The Blocking thought
The disorders thinking
The arousal stage
Anxiety disorder is the psychological response which could be biological explain as:
Excessive chloride ion in synaptic cleft
Low chloride ion in synaptic Cleft
Excessive sodium ion in synaptic Cleft
Low sodium ion in synaptic Cleft
Low sodium and chloride ion in synaptic cleft
Anxiety disorder is biological change in GABA A receptor which can be explained as:
Decrease an activity of GABA A receptor
Increase an activity of GABA A receptor
Open the channel chloride ion of GABA A receptor
Increase an activity of GABA A receptor
Open the channel sodium ion of GABA A receptor
Mrs S is 40 years old, married, 2 children, teacher, from Kandal province. She comes to Psychiatric OPD alone and complains of palpitation, chestiness, cold extremities and fear of stay home alone but no symptoms of panic attacks with 6 months onset. BP= 120/75 mmhg, Pouls= 102/mn and Temperature=36.5 C: What is the most important family’s information you need to explore:
Family history of Psychotic disorders
Family history of mood disorders
Family history of medical condition
Family history of an anxiety disorders
Family history of personality disorders
Mrs S is 40 years old, married, 2 children, teacher, from Kandal province. She comes to Psychiatric OPD alone and complains of palpitation, chestiness, cold extremities and fear of stay home alone but no symptoms of panic attacks with 6 months onset. BP= 120/75 mmhg, Pouls= 102/mn and Temperature=36.5 C: What is the most important patient’s information you need to explore:
Study problem in childhood stage
Escape class in adolescent stage
School phobia in child hoodstage
Parent separate in young adulthood
Psychological development stage.
Mrs S is 40 years old, married, 2 children, teacher, from Kandal province. She comes to Psychiatric OPD alone and complains of palpitation, chestiness, cold extremities and fear of stay home alone but no symptoms of panic attacks with 6 months onset. BP= 120/75 mmhg, Pouls= 102/mn and Temperature=36.5 C: What is the common symptoms you need to explore:
Feeling of guilty
Feeling of anxious
Feeling of excused.
Feeling of hopelessness
Feeling of being kills
Mrs S is 40 years old, married, 2 children, teacher, from Kandal province. She comes to Psychiatric OPD alone and complains of palpitation, chestiness, cold extremities and fear of stay home alone but no symptoms of panic attacks with 6 months onset. BP= 120/75 mmhg, Pouls= 102/mn and Temperature=36.5 C: What is the probably diagnosis of this patient:
Social phobia
Specific phobia
Generalized anxiety disorders
Panic disorder
Agoraphobia
Mr. A 22 years old, single, worker, from Kg Speu province, come at psychiatric OPD by feeling of fearfulness, woke up often at midnight with fearful feeling, difficulty to concentrate with daily work and palpitation. He noted those symptoms happen in several days after saw the serious traffic accident which some people died and continue around one months. BP= 110mmhg/ 70mmhg, Pouls= 92/mn and Temperature=37 C: What is the most important symptoms you need to explore:
Feeling of guilty with reminding this event
Feeling of helplessness with reminding this event
Feeling of panicky with reminding this event
Feeling of depression with reminding this event
Feeling of being crazy with reminding this event
Mr. A 22 years old, single, worker, from Kg Speu province, come at psychiatric OPD by feeling of fearfulness, woke up often at midnight with fearful feeling, difficulty to concentrate with daily work and palpitation. He noted those symptoms happen in several days after saw the serious traffic accident which some people died and continue around one months. BP= 110mmhg/ 70mmhg, Pouls= 92/mn and Temperature=37 C: What is the main evidence that he has psychological problem:
Heart about the traffic accident
Saw the people die by this event
Experienced of panicky
Experienced of being judge
Experienced of fearful
Mr. A 22 years old, single, worker, from Kg Speu province, come at psychiatric OPD by feeling of fearfulness, woke up often at midnight with fearful feeling, difficulty to concentrate with daily work and palpitation. He noted those symptoms happen in several days after saw the serious traffic accident which some people died and continue around one months. BP= 110mmhg/ 70mmhg, Pouls= 92/mn and Temperature=37 C: What is the main symptoms for the psychiatric diagnosis :
Woke up often at midnight with fearful feeling
Difficulty to concentrate with daily work
Experienced of palpitation even before the event
Experienced of fearful even before the event
Experienced of difficulty in coping daily problem
Mr. A 22 years old, single, worker, from Kg Speu province, come at psychiatric OPD by feeling of fearfulness, woke up often at midnight with fearful feeling, difficulty to concentrate with daily work and palpitation. He noted those symptoms happen in several days after saw the serious traffic accident which some people died and continue around one months. BP= 110mmhg/ 70mmhg, Pouls= 92/mn and Temperature=37 C: Which is the relevant psychological symptoms could be follow by the above event:
Worry over others event
Reliving meeting this event
Flight of idea about this event.
Ambivalence thought to this event.
Thought blocking by this event.
Mr. A 22 years old, single, worker, from Kg Speu province, come at psychiatric OPD by feeling of fearfulness, woke up often at midnight with fearful feeling, difficulty to concentrate with daily work and palpitation. He noted those symptoms happen in several days after saw the serious traffic accident which some people died and continue around one months. BP= 110mmhg/ 70mmhg, Pouls= 92/mn and Temperature=37 C: What is the probably diagnosis of this patient:
Phobic Disorders
Depressive disorders
Post traumatic stress Disorders
Acute stress disorders
Adjustment Disorders
A 18 female patient, student, lives in Phnom- Penh, come to Psychiatric OPD and complains of palpitation, fearful, difficulty falling asleep, trembling and feeling numbness, especially crossing the bridge. What is the emotional response of this patient?
A persistent fear of social situations.
A triggered by a specific object
An abnormal sensitivity to the high.
An excessive worry of going out home.
An excessive worry of crowd
A 18 female patient, student, lives in Phnom- Penh, come to Psychiatric OPD and complains of palpitation, fearful, difficulty falling asleep, trembling and feeling numbness, especially crossing the bridge. What is the probably diagnosis of this patient?
Social phobia.
Agoraphobia.
Specific phobia
Panic disorders
Generalized anxiety Disorders
Mrs. B 36 years old, married, seller, lives in Kandal province come to emergency because of suddenly emotional disturbance for 2-3 times/ month, such as: perspiring, heart palpitation, difficulty to breath in (dyspnia), difficulty to control this emotion and fear of dying for around 4 weeks. She had BP= 130/80mmgh, Pouls= 102 /mn, other medical investigation reveal no abnormality related to the medical illness noted. What are the additional important symptoms you need to explore
Depressive symptoms
Hypomania symptoms
Psychotic symptoms
Mania symptoms
Anxiety symptoms
Mrs. B 36 years old, married, seller, lives in Kandal province come to emergency because of suddenly emotional disturbance for 2-3 times/ month, such as: perspiring, heart palpitation, difficulty to breath in (dyspnia), difficulty to control this emotion and fear of dying for around 4 weeks. She had BP= 130/80mmgh, Pouls= 102 /mn, other medical investigation reveal no abnormality related to the medical illness noted What is the laboratory test you need to ask for:
Vitamin B12
Vitamin D and Vitamin E
Calcium in blood
Albumin in blood
SGOT/ SGPT
Mrs. B 36 years old, married, seller, lives in Kandal province come to emergency because of suddenly emotional disturbance for 2-3 times/ month, such as: perspiring, heart palpitation, difficulty to breath in (dyspnia), difficulty to control this emotion and fear of dying for around 4 weeks. She had BP= 130/80mmgh, Pouls= 102 /mn, other medical investigation reveal no abnormality related to the medical illness noted What is the common feature that the patient had those symptoms:
Dysfunction of the body cells.
Oxygen is less in body cells
Decreas blood pH level.
Small side of the red blood cells .
Less number of red blood cells.
Mrs. B 36 years old, married, seller, lives in Kandal province come to emergency because of suddenly emotional disturbance for 2-3 times/ month, such as: perspiring, heart palpitation, difficulty to breath in (dyspnia), difficulty to control this emotion and fear of dying for around 4 weeks. She had BP= 130/80mmgh, Pouls= 102 /mn, other medical investigation reveal no abnormality related to the medical illness noted What is the probably diagnosis of this patient:
Social phobia
Agoraphobia
Panic disorders
Others anxiety disorders
GAD, MAD
- Patient SK 23 years old man, live in Kandal province, single, come to psychiatric OPD because of changing behavior such as concerned every things. Especially turned on the light, refrigerator, fan and other 2 -3 times before getting out home. His behavios happen for 2 months ago. What is the problem of the psychological symptoms of SK?
Distractive thought
Obsession thought
Thought blocking
Thought broadcasting
Thought insertion
Patient SK 23 years old man, live in Kandal province, single, come to psychiatric OPD because of changing behavior such as concerned every things. Especially turned on the light, refrigerator, fan and other 2 -3 times before getting out home. His behavios happen for 2 months ago. What is the probably diagnosis of SK?
OCD with panic attack
OCD without panic attack
OCD with agoraphobia
OCD with social phobia
OCD without anxiety symptoms
LB is a 18 years old female, single who comes to the psychiatric out patient department because she doesn’t want to participate in team activities and shows an extreme sensitive to rejection. She is shy and needs strong guarantees of uncritical acceptance. These issue have been worse for 1year. What is the most striking aspect in the clinical interviews?
The patient’s anxiety about talking
The patient’s fearfulness about talking
The patient’s aloofness about talking
The patient’s ambitiousness about talking
LB is a 18 years old female, single who comes to the psychiatric out patient department because she doesn’t want to participate in team activities and shows an extreme sensitive to rejection. She is shy and needs strong guarantees of uncritical acceptance. These issue have been worse for 1year. What is a pervasive pattern of LB?
Grandiosity
Social inhibition
Social detachment
Perfectionism
LB is a 18 years old female, single who comes to the psychiatric out patient department because she doesn’t want to participate in team activities and shows an extreme sensitive to rejection. She is shy and needs strong guarantees of uncritical acceptance. These issue have been worse for 1year. What is the feeling of LB?
Fantasy
Enviousness
Inadequacy
Coldness
LB is a 18 years old female, single who comes to the psychiatric out patient department because she doesn’t want to participate in team activities and shows an extreme sensitive to rejection. She is shy and needs strong guarantees of uncritical acceptance. These issue have been worse for 1year. What is the most important history you need to explore?
Present history
Past psychiatric history
Personal history
Family history
LB is a 18 years old female, single who comes to the psychiatric out patient department because she doesn’t want to participate in team activities and shows an extreme sensitive to rejection. She is shy and needs strong guarantees of uncritical acceptance. These issue have been worse for 1year. What is the most important patient’s information you need to explore?
Study information
Development information
Personality information
Relationship information
1- A 7 years old boy cannot control his own sphincter. He cannot communicate effectively with his parents and family members even simple calculation. As a result, his parents do not allow him to go to school. Which below diagnosis should he be considered?
Mild mental retardation
Moderate mental retardation
Severe mental retardation
Profound mental retardation
Autistic disorder
A 5 years old girl seems not sensitive to parent’s sound. She rarely gives eye contact and facial expression toward her parents and others family member. She is unable to perceive responses of other around her. These patterns of behavior have been noticing since she was 12 months old. Which below diagnosis should he be considered?
Mild mental retardation
Moderate mental retardation
Severe mental retardation
Profound mental retardation
Autistic disorder
A 5 years old child is comfortable to write letter by left hand. Even though his mother tried to encourage him but it wasn’t successful. Which is the main intervention should be done?
Discouraged
Made to write with the right hand
Allow his preference
Send to seek medical help
4- A systematic change in the mental processes that underlie all learning and performance is:
Moral maturation
Cognitive development
Social emotional development
Intellectual development
A 9-year-old boy has had persisting difficulties in language and interpersonal relationships since the age of 2 years, and, although he can barely read, he is able to perform arithmetic calculations at the fifth-grade level. Which it is most likely diagnosis to be associated? The
Childhood depression
Conduct disorder
Childhood schizophrenia
ADHD
Infantile autism
An 11-year-old girl has become uncharacteristically and markedly withdrawn in the past 8 months, staying in her room so that she can “talk to the ghosts in the attic.” which it is most likely diagnosis to be associated?
Childhood depression
Childhood schizophrenia
Conduct disorder
ADHD
Infantile autism
An 11-year-old girl has become markedly withdrawn in the past 8 months and has complained of persisting abdominal pain and constipation, for which no organic cause has been found. Which it is most likely diagnosis to be associated?
Childhood depression
Childhood schizophrenia
Conduct disorder
ADHD
Infantile autism
A6-year-old boy is reported by his kindergarten teacher to be easily distracted, impulsive, in need of continual supervision, but not hyperactive. Which it is most likely diagnosis to be associated?
Childhood depression
Childhood schizophrenia
Conduct disorder
ADHD
Infantile autism
A 3-year-old boy spends hours rocking in a chair or spinning the blades of a toy windmill; his parents say he never cries when he falls. Which it is most likely diagnosis to be associated?
Childhood depression
Childhood schizophrenia
Conduct disorder
ADHD
Infantile autism
After a mother and her young child are playing and interacting with each other as they so often do, the mother suddenly leaves. The observer witnesses the child crying and upset, and when the mother returns, the child will not let go of her. The child is said to be
Securely attached
Anxiously attached
Avoidantly attached
Completely attached
- A 5 years old child (preschool age), studies at school for 5 months was brought by his mother with learning problem. Which is the following classroom scheduling practice would be developmentally appropriate for this child?
Providing frequent variations in routine
Each day with half-hour circle time
Introducing new learning each week
Alternative physically and quiet activities
A 5 years old child (preschool age), studies at school for 5 months was brought by his mother with learning problem Which of the following is an example of a specific learning disability for this child?
Mental retardation
Dyslexia
Autistic spectrum disorders
ADHD
A 5 years old child (preschool age), studies at school for 5 months was brought by his mother with learning problem Which of the following is an example of an intellectual disability for this child?
Mental retardation
Dyslexia
Autistic spectrum
ADHD
A 23 year old man, who comes to the OPD because of long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust of people in general. He is often hostile, irritable and angry. He refuses responsibility for his own feeling and assign responsibility to others. The symptoms have been worse in the last 6 months. What is the essential feature of this man?
An impression of being cold and aloof
A pervasive and unwarranted tendency
A charming and ingratiating exterior
A grandiose sense of self importance
A 23 year old man, who comes to the OPD because of long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust of people in general. He is often hostile, irritable and angry. He refuses responsibility for his own feeling and assign responsibility to others. The symptoms have been worse in the last 6 months. What is the most important history you need to look for?
A present history
A past history
A personal history
A family history
A 23 year old man, who comes to the OPD because of long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust of people in general. He is often hostile, irritable and angry. He refuses responsibility for his own feeling and assign responsibility to others. The symptoms have been worse in the last 6 months. What is the most important man’s information you need to know?
A delivery information
A developmental information
A personality trait information
A study information
A 23 year old man, who comes to the OPD because of long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust of people in general. He is often hostile, irritable and angry. He refuses responsibility for his own feeling and assign responsibility to others. The symptoms have been worse in the last 6 months. What is the most important family history you need to explore?
Family history of mood disorder
Family history of schizophrenia
Family history of anxiety disorders
Family history of personality disorders
A 23 year old man, who comes to the OPD because of long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust of people in general. He is often hostile, irritable and angry. He refuses responsibility for his own feeling and assign responsibility to others. The symptoms have been worse in the last 6 months. What is the main symptoms of the man?
Detachment from social relationship
Social and interpersonal deficits
Distrust and suspiciousness of others
Instability of interpersonal relationships
A 23 year old man, who comes to the OPD because of long-standing suspiciousness and mistrust of people in general. He is often hostile, irritable and angry. He refuses responsibility for his own feeling and assign responsibility to others. The symptoms have been worse in the last 6 months. What is the tentative diagnosis of the patient?
Delusional disorder
Paranoid schizophrenia
Paranoid personality disorder
Manic with psychotic symptoms
A girl is 20 years old who comes at psychiatric out-patient department with her mother because she almost always appears to be in a state of crisis. She can be argumentative at one moment and depressed at the next and then complain of having no feeling at another time. Her behavior is highly unpredictable. Her live is reflected in repetitive self-destructive acts. What is the pervasive pattern of this girl?
Disregards for and violation of the rights of others
Instability of interpersonal relationships
Excessive emotionality and attention seeking
Social and interpersonal deficits
A girl is 20 years old who comes at psychiatric out-patient department with her mother because she almost always appears to be in a state of crisis. She can be argumentative at one moment and depressed at the next and then complain of having no feeling at another time. Her behavior is highly unpredictable. Her live is reflected in repetitive self-destructive acts. What is the feeling of the patient?
Irritability and aggressiveness
Chronic feelings of Emptiness
Coldness and detachment
Lack of remorse
A girl is 20 years old who comes at psychiatric out-patient department with her mother because she almost always appears to be in a state of crisis. She can be argumentative at one moment and depressed at the next and then complain of having no feeling at another time. Her behavior is highly unpredictable. Her live is reflected in repetitive self-destructive acts. What is the most prominent behavior of the girl?
Repeated physical fights behavior
Self-mutilating behaviour
Eccentric behavior
Self-dramatization behavior
A girl is 20 years old who comes at psychiatric out-patient department with her mother because she almost always appears to be in a state of crisis. She can be argumentative at one moment and depressed at the next and then complain of having no feeling at another time. Her behavior is highly unpredictable. Her live is reflected in repetitive self-destructive acts. What is the most important girl’s information you need to know?
Her delivery information
Her personality information
Her development information
Her study information
A girl is 20 years old who comes at psychiatric out-patient department with her mother because she almost always appears to be in a state of crisis. She can be argumentative at one moment and depressed at the next and then complain of having no feeling at another time. Her behavior is highly unpredictable. Her live is reflected in repetitive self-destructive acts. What is the tentative diagnosis of the patient?
Bipolar Affective disorder
Schizophrenia
Borderline personality disorder
Depression
- KD is 25 years old, comes to Psychiatric Out Patient department because she subordinate her own needs to those of others, gets others to assume responsibility for major areas in her live. She lacks of self- confidence and may experience intense discomfort when alone for more than a brief period. What is a pervasive pattern of KD?
Preoccupation with perfectionism
Hypersensitivity to negative evaluation
Excessive need to be taken care of
Interpersonal control
- KD is 25 years old, comes to Psychiatric Out Patient department because she subordinate her own needs to those of others, gets others to assume responsibility for major areas in her live. She lacks of self- confidence and may experience intense discomfort when alone for more than a brief period. What is the most prominent behaviour of KD?
Shows rigidity and stubbornness
Needs others to assume responsibility for
Shows arrogant attitudes
Is reluctant to take personal risk
- KD is 25 years old, comes to Psychiatric Out Patient department because she subordinate her own needs to those of others, gets others to assume responsibility for major areas in her live. She lacks of self- confidence and may experience intense discomfort when alone for more than a brief period. What is the most important feeling of the girl?
Is preoccupied with fear of being left
Is reluctant to delegate tasks to others
Requires excessive admiration
Is unwilling to get involved with people
- KD is 25 years old, comes to Psychiatric Out Patient department because she subordinate her own needs to those of others, gets others to assume responsibility for major areas in her live. She lacks of self- confidence and may experience intense discomfort when alone for more than a brief period. What is the tentative diagnosis of the patient?
Bipolar Affective disorder
Schizophrenia
Dependent personality disorder
Depression
A 23 year – old, male living in Pursat, he come to see the Doctor at KSFH on 30.6.16 This patient brought to the hospital by his mother because of strange behavior, poor sleep, spoke nonsense, irritable. These problem stated for 1 week after he had conflict with his neighbor. BP : 12/70 , T : 37, Pulse : 60/mn. What is the most likely appropriate treatment for this patient ?
Conselling
Antidepressant
Antipsychotic
Rehabilitation
Psychotherapy
A 23 year – old, male living in Pursat, he come to see the Doctor at KSFH on 30.6.16 This patient brought to the hospital by his mother because of strange behavior, poor sleep, spoke nonsense, irritable. These problem stated for 1 week after he had conflict with his neighbor. BP : 12/70 , T : 37, Pulse : 60/mn. What is the most probably diagnosi for this patient ?
Acute stress disorders
Severe depression
Bipolar affective Disorders
Acute psychosis
Schizophrenia
A 23 year – old, male living in Pursat, he come to see the Doctor at KSFH on 30.6.16 This patient brought to the hospital by his mother because of strange behavior, poor sleep, spoke nonsense, irritable. These problem stated for 1 week after he had conflict with his neighbor. BP : 12/70 , T : 37, Pulse : 60/mn. Which is the suitable medicine for managing this patient ?
Diazepam
Haloperidol
Flooxetine
Lithium
Carbamazepine
A 35 years old woman complaint of fatigue for 1 year. At this time, she had frequently cold and sore throats; sometime she had leg, back, arm pain. The physical examination reveal abnormality in the last 1 year. The excessive preoccupation with having an undiagnosed medical condition could be the clinical feature of:
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder
Psychotic disorder
Illness anxiety disorder
Conversion disorder
- A 35 years old woman complaint of fatigue for 1 year. At this time, she had frequently cold and sore throats; sometime she had leg, back, arm pain. The physical examination reveal abnormality in the last 1 year. Excessive thought, feeling, and behavior to physical complaints could be the symptom of:
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder
Illness anxiety disorder
Somatic symptom disorder
Conversion disorder
A 30-year-old unemployed man, believes that he suffers from AIDS. He needs to go to a hospital for monthly HIV test despite negative results. What is the most information you need to explore?
Duration of his belief
Somatic symptoms
Laboratory test
Abdominal echography
Brain CT Scan
A 30-year-old unemployed man, believes that he suffers from AIDS. He needs to go to a hospital for monthly HIV test despite negative results. What is the main clinical feature list below?
Worry about insecurity
Worry about somatic delusion
Worry about a serious illness
Worry about somatic symptoms
Worry about economic
A 30-year-old unemployed man, believes that he suffers from AIDS. He needs to go to a hospital for monthly HIV test despite negative results. What is the probable diagnosis?
Conversion disorder
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Delusional disorder
Somatic symptom disorder
Illness anxiety disorder
A 27-year-old beer promotion woman presents constipation sometime. She believes that her bowel was cut into several pieces and always tells her relatives or friends despite they always confirm that it is impossible. What is the most information you need to explore?
Other somatic symptoms
Other laboratory test
Symptoms of illusion
Abdominal echography
Drug abused history
A 27-year-old beer promotion woman presents constipation sometime. She believes that her bowel was cut into several pieces and always tells her relatives or friends despite they always confirm that it is impossible. What is her clinical features?
Worry about living situation
Worry about somatic delusion
Worry about a serious illness
Worry about somatic symptoms
Worry about her finacial
A 27-year-old beer promotion woman presents constipation sometime. She believes that her bowel was cut into several pieces and always tells her relatives or friends despite they always confirm that it is impossible. What is the probable diagnosis?
Conversion disorder
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Psychotic disorder
Somatic symptom disorder
Illness anxiety disorder
A 31-year-old widower, farmer, 3 children, had a chronic dysfunctional uterine bleeding, upper abdominal pain and back pain with alternating diarrhea and constipation, urinary frequency and dysuria. GPs could not found any physical illness related. What is the most information you need to explore?
Other somatic symptoms
Abdominal echography
Other laboratory test
Traumatic event history
Medication misused history
A 31-year-old widower, farmer, 3 children, had a chronic dysfunctional uterine bleeding, upper abdominal pain and back pain with alternating diarrhea and constipation, urinary frequency and dysuria. GPs could not found any physical illness related. What is the probable diagnosis?
Conversion disorder
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Psychotic disorder
Somatic symptom disorder
Illness anxiety disorder
A 43 years old man complaints of irritable, insomnia, hypervigilance, poor concentration, fearful and palpitation. The symptoms developed 1 week after meeting a man died by traffic accident. What is the probably diagnosis of this patient?
Posttraumatic stress disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder
Acute psychotic disorder
Acute stress disorder
A 43 years old man complaints of irritable, insomnia, hypervigilance, poor concentration, fearful and palpitation. The symptoms developed 1 week after meeting a man died by traffic accident. If the symptoms continue until 6 months, what is the probably diagnosis?
Posttraumatic stress disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder
Acute psychotic disorder
Acute stress disorder
A 19 years old boy, stopped study at grade 6, accompanied by his mother because of convulsion 1- 2times/ months and followed by unconscious for 5-6 minutes. He told the therapist that he felt uncomforted before the convulsion. He had convulsion for nearly 5 years. In the previous 6 months, he changed behavior such as irritable, destroyed things, cried without any reason and sometimes he spoke to himself. He has no history of head trauma. What is the main psychiatric symptom should be considered?
Guilty symptoms
Hallucination
Euphoric symptoms
Anxiety symptoms
A 19 years old boy, stopped study at grade 6, accompanied by his mother because of convulsion 1- 2times/ months and followed by unconscious for 5-6 minutes. He told the therapist that he felt uncomforted before the convulsion. He had convulsion for nearly 5 years. In the previous 6 months, he changed behavior such as irritable, destroyed things, cried without any reason and sometimes he spoke to himself. He has no history of head trauma. What is the main symptom of convulsion could be considered?
Partial seizure
General seizure
Anxiety attack
Absence seizure
A 19 years old boy, stopped study at grade 6, accompanied by his mother because of convulsion 1- 2times/ months and followed by unconscious for 5-6 minutes. He told the therapist that he felt uncomforted before the convulsion. He had convulsion for nearly 5 years. In the previous 6 months, he changed behavior such as irritable, destroyed things, cried without any reason and sometimes he spoke to himself. He has no history of head trauma. What is the mental health disorder comorbidity with convulsion symptoms of this patient?
Convulsion with Panic disorder
Convulsion with Anxiety disorder
Convulsion with depressive disorder
Convulsion with Psychotic disorder
A 19 years old boy, stopped study at grade 6, accompanied by his mother because of convulsion 1- 2times/ months and followed by unconscious for 5-6 minutes. He told the therapist that he felt uncomforted before the convulsion. He had convulsion for nearly 5 years. In the previous 6 months, he changed behavior such as irritable, destroyed things, cried without any reason and sometimes he spoke to himself. He has no history of head trauma. What is the following medication should be given to this patient?
Valproate acid with antipsychotic
Valproate acid with antidepressant
Valproate acid with Anxiolytic
Valproate acid with Benzodiazepine
A 70-year-old female with chronic paranoid schizophrenia presents to the emergency room acutely confused with visual hallucinations. Her skin is warm and dry and her heart rate is 110 beats per minute. He complained of dry mouth and difficulty initiating urination this past week. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?
Psychotic exacerbation
Urinary tract infection
Alzheimer dementia
Anticholinergic delirium
Myocardial infection
A 70-year-old female with chronic paranoid schizophrenia presents to the emergency room acutely confused with visual hallucinations. Her skin is warm and dry and her heart rate is 110 beats per minute. He complained of dry mouth and difficulty initiating urination this past week. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for this patient’s acute condition?
Haloperidol
Clopromazine
Respiridone
Fluoxetine
A 32-year-old patient is being interviewed in his physician’s office. He eventually answers each question, but he gives long answers with a great deal of tedious and unnecessary detail before doing so. Which of the following symptoms best describe this patient’s presentation?
Blocking
Tangentiality
Circumstantiality
Looseness of associations
Flight of ideas
A patient with a chronic psychotic disorder is convinced that she has caused a recent earthquake because she was bored and wishing for something exciting to occur. Which of the following symptoms most closely describes this patient’s thoughts?
Thought broadcasting
Magical thinking
Echolalia
Nihilism
Obsession
An 18-year-old male is brought to hospital by his parents because they have noticed that he has been acting strangely recently. His parents say that the patient has just ‘lost it’ since failing his final examinations. The patient was noted to be giggling to himself, spending almost all his time in his room, making unusual gestures with his hands, speech has been incomprehensible and nonsense. What is the most probably diagnosis of this patient?
Acute and transient psychotic disorder
Bipolar affective disorder
Catatonic schizophrenia
Hebephrenic schizophrenia
Simple schizophrenia
A 30-year-old female is brought to hospital as she has been violent and hostile to her neighbors. According to the patient, her grandfather was a successful writer and she acquired his fortunes recently. However, she believes that her neighbors have found out about it and claims that she has heard them talking about stealing her money. What is the most probably diagnosis of this patient?
Paranoid schizophrenia
Residual schizophrenia
Schizoaffective disorder
Schizotypal disorder
Bipolar affective disorder
A 37-year-old male is brought to hospital by his wife as he has become increasingly irritable and restless over the last 2 weeks. His wife reported that he did not sleep well and woke up all night planning business ventures and wrote letters to celebrities, claiming that they are his friends. On examination, the patient is highly aroused with marked pressure of speech and flight of ideas. Select the most likely diagnosis from the following statements:
Acute stress reaction
Agoraphobia
Akathisia
Manic episode
Social phobia
A 22-year-old male is admitted to hospital for a psychotic illness and was commenced on an antipsychotic medication. Few days later, he complains of feeling anxious and restless. He is unable to keep his legs from moving and has been pacing up and down the corridors. He is distressed by his symptoms and has been expressing suicidal thoughts. His urine drug screen was negative. Select the most likely diagnosis from the following answer:
Acute stress reaction
Agoraphobia
Akathisia
Anxious personality disorder
Benzodiazepine withdrawal
During a clinical interview with a 25 male patient. He said that ‘I don’t really do the things. I used to be an active person and enjoyed running. I even played tennis competitively and really liked it. but I don’t get any joy out of my hobbies now.’ Select the most appropriate correct answer from the following
Alexithymia
Anhedonia
Labile mood
Tangentially
Circumstantiality
During a clinical interview with a 22 female patient. She said that ‘I’m not eating anymore, and I constantly feel guilty for everything. I feel like I’m in a deep trench and I’m suffering down below. Select the most appropriate correct answer from the following
Appearance
Behavior
Thought form and speech
Mood
Affect
During a clinical interview with a 22 female patient. She said that ‘I’m not eating anymore, and I constantly feel guilty for everything. I feel like I’m in a deep trench and I’m suffering down below .The following illnesses or syndromes, which is most related to genetic factors?
Schizophrenia
Panic disorder
Bipolar disorder
Alcoholism
Antisocial personality
Mrs. W is 33 years old, lives in Svay Rieng province, married, garment worker. The previous 4 years, she had been seeking at medical setting because she believed she was having a heart attack. The disorder began 2 months after the delivery of her only child. She suddenly increase in her heartbeat, chest pain and had difficulty breathing. She started 1-2 times a month of sweating and trembling and feared of dying from a heart attack and currently unable to leave home alone. BP140/ 86- 150/ 90 mmhg, Pulse= 92/mn. Which is the most emergency parameter checkup first?
Electrocardiographic
Calcium parameters.
Electroencephalographic.
Glucose parameters.
The thyroid parameters
Mrs. W is 33 years old, lives in Svay Rieng province, married, garment worker. The previous 4 years, she had been seeking at medical setting because she believed she was having a heart attack. The disorder began 2 months after the delivery of her only child. She suddenly increase in her heartbeat, chest pain and had difficulty breathing. She started 1-2 times a month of sweating and trembling and feared of dying from a heart attack and currently unable to leave home alone. BP140/ 86- 150/ 90 mmhg, Pulse= 92/mn. Which is the differential diagnostic should be consider?
Generalized anxiety disorders
Post-traumatic stress disorders
Social phobia with panic disorders
Agoraphobia with panic disorders
Panic disorders
Mrs. W is 33 years old, lives in Svay Rieng province, married, garment worker. The previous 4 years, she had been seeking at medical setting because she believed she was having a heart attack. The disorder began 2 months after the delivery of her only child. She suddenly increase in her heartbeat, chest pain and had difficulty breathing. She started 1-2 times a month of sweating and trembling and feared of dying from a heart attack and currently unable to leave home alone. BP140/ 86- 150/ 90 mmhg, Pulse= 92/mn. Which is the most probably diagnosis for Mrs. W?
Generalized anxiety disorders
Post-traumatic stress disorders
Social phobia with panic disorders
Agoraphobia with panic disorders
Panic disorders
Ms.S is a 17-year-old, student, lives in Phnom-Penh. Her heart started racing, and she became so dizzy that she felt she was going to faint while the teacher asked her a question in the classroom. 4 months before prior, she had not been able to join other students at lunchtime because she felt terribly anxious. She always felt like hiding from others (behaving in an embarrassing). Her medical condition has been no abnormal detected. Her BP= 120/70mmhg Pulse= 84/mn. Which is the differential diagnostic should be consider?
Generalized anxiety disorders
Post-traumatic stress disorders
Social phobia
Agoraphobia
Panic disorders
Ms.S is a 17-year-old, student, lives in Phnom-Penh. Her heart started racing, and she became so dizzy that she felt she was going to faint while the teacher asked her a question in the classroom. 4 months before prior, she had not been able to join other students at lunchtime because she felt terribly anxious. She always felt like hiding from others (behaving in an embarrassing). Her medical condition has been no abnormal detected. Her BP= 120/70mmhg Pulse= 84/mn. Which is the most probably diagnosis for Ms. S?
Generalized anxiety disorders
Post-traumatic stress disorders
Agoraphobia
Social phobia
Panic disorders
Mr. J is a 23-year-old, single, farmer, lives in Takeo province. He came to general practitioner because of extreme slowness and indecision. His condition had grown gradually worse over the preceding 6 months. He felt a need to spend a lot of time checking his behavior to make sure that he had caused no harm. He felt compelled to keep checking that he had shut off the water or switched off the light and the electrical appliances. His BP= 125/70 mmhg Pulse= 80/mn. Which is the most suitable thought should be consider?
Causal thinking
Convergent thinking
Critical thinking
Obsessional thinking
Divergent thinking
Mr. J is a 23-year-old, single, farmer, lives in Takeo province. He came to general practitioner because of extreme slowness and indecision. His condition had grown gradually worse over the preceding 6 months. He felt a need to spend a lot of time checking his behavior to make sure that he had caused no harm. He felt compelled to keep checking that he had shut off the water or switched off the light and the electrical appliances. His BP= 125/70 mmhg Pulse= 80/mn. Which is the most probably diagnosis for Mr. J?
Generalized anxiety disorders
Post-traumatic stress disorders
Obsessive compulsive disorders
Adjustment disorders
Somatoform disorders
Mrs. H is 38-year-old lives in P-Penh with four children. She is a Muslim. She was restless, frightened, apprehensive, sweating on both hands, and breathing rapidly. He explained that the preceding day there had been a quarrel with some neighbors, during which the husband had been seriously threatened with a knife. She was immediately taken to a general practitioner, who gave her an intravenous injection of diazepam. Her BP= 135/85 mmhg Pulse= 92/mn. Which is the differential diagnostic should be consider first?
Generalized anxiety disorders
Adjustment disorders
Social phobia / Agoraphobia
Panic disorders
Obsessive compulsive disorders
Mrs. H is 38-year-old lives in P-Penh with four children. She is a Muslim. She was restless, frightened, apprehensive, sweating on both hands, and breathing rapidly. He explained that the preceding day there had been a quarrel with some neighbors, during which the husband had been seriously threatened with a knife. She was immediately taken to a general practitioner, who gave her an intravenous injection of diazepam. Her BP= 135/85 mmhg Pulse= 92/mn. Which is the most probably diagnosis for Mrs. H?
Generalized anxiety disorders
Post-traumatic stress disorders
Obsessive compulsive disorders
Adjustment disorders
Acute stress disorders
Mrs. H is 38-year-old lives in P-Penh with four children. She is a Muslim. She was restless, frightened, apprehensive, sweating on both hands, and breathing rapidly. He explained that the preceding day there had been a quarrel with some neighbors, during which the husband had been seriously threatened with a knife. She was immediately taken to a general practitioner, who gave her an intravenous injection of diazepam. Her BP= 135/85 mmhg Pulse= 92/mn. What is the intervention should do after an intravenous injection of diazepam?
Keep in the medical room few days
Let the patient go home after 1hour
Refer to psychiatric care after 1 hour
Refer to psychiatric care after 1 day
Refer to psychiatric care after few days
Mrs. M is a 32-year-old, garment worker, married and has just given birth to a child. She was angry excitement couple, accused her husband of went out at night. Mrs. M began talking and scolding incessantly, showed hyperactivity; extreme talkativeness that had developed after her delivery 10 days. BP= 120/70 mmhg, Pulse= 80/mn. Which is the most suitable mood should be consider
Euphoric mood
Dysphoric mood
Expansive mood
Depressive mood
Labile mood
Mrs. M is a 32-year-old, garment worker, married and has just given birth to a child. She was angry excitement couple, accused her husband of went out at night. Mrs. M began talking and scolding incessantly, showed hyperactivity; extreme talkativeness that had developed after her delivery 10 days. BP= 120/70 mmhg, Pulse= 80/mn. Which is the differential diagnostic should be consider first?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymic disorders
Manic with psychotic disorders
Manic without psychotic disorders
Acute and transient psychosis
Mrs. M is a 32-year-old, garment worker, married and has just given birth to a child. She was angry excitement couple, accused her husband of went out at night. Mrs. M began talking and scolding incessantly, showed hyperactivity; extreme talkativeness that had developed after her delivery 10 days. BP= 120/70 mmhg, Pulse= 80/mn. Which is the most probably diagnosis for Mrs. M?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymic disorders
Manic with psychotic disorders
Manic without psychotic disorders
Acute and transient psychosis
Mr. T is 36 years old and married, with two children. He was admitted at the general hospital after he had taken an overdose of diazepam. For some weeks he had felt overwhelmed by his workload. He felt tired and had difficulties in concentrating, and experienced feelings of inadequacy. Since that age of 26, he had experienced constantly recurring upset mood. He sometimes he had trouble falling asleep. Mr.T had occasionally seen his general practitioner for a prescription of diazepam to help him get to sleep, Which is the differential diagnostic should be consider first?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymic disorders
Dysthymic disorders Depressive disorders
Cyclothymic disorders
Hypomanic disorders
Mr. T is 36 years old and married, with two children. He was admitted at the general hospital after he had taken an overdose of diazepam. For some weeks he had felt overwhelmed by his workload. He felt tired and had difficulties in concentrating, and experienced feelings of inadequacy. Since that age of 26, he had experienced constantly recurring upset mood. He sometimes he had trouble falling asleep. Mr.T had occasionally seen his general practitioner for a prescription of diazepam to help him get to sleep, Which is the most probably diagnosis for Mr. T?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymic disorders
Depressive disorders
Cyclothymic disorders
Hypomanic disorders
Ms. D is a 27-year-old nurse in a surgical ward, lives alone in a rented house. She had tried to cut her wrists superficially. The symptoms started since she was 16 years old, her mood was ups and downs in the current period of 2-3 months. She had difficulty keeping pace with her colleagues and lost her self-confidence. She did not want to go out and thoughts of suicide. BP= 110/70 mmhg, Pulse= 64/mn. Which is the most suitable mood should be consider?
Fluctuated mood
Dysphoric mood
Expansive mood
Depressive mood
Euphoric mood
Ms. D is a 27-year-old nurse in a surgical ward, lives alone in a rented house. She had tried to cut her wrists superficially. The symptoms started since she was 16 years old, her mood was ups and downs in the current period of 2-3 months. She had difficulty keeping pace with her colleagues and lost her self-confidence. She did not want to go out and thoughts of suicide. BP= 110/70 mmhg, Pulse= 64/mn. Which is the differential diagnostic should be consider first?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymia
Cyclothymia
Mania
Hypomania
Ms. D is a 27-year-old nurse in a surgical ward, lives alone in a rented house. She had tried to cut her wrists superficially. The symptoms started since she was 16 years old, her mood was ups and downs in the current period of 2-3 months. She had difficulty keeping pace with her colleagues and lost her self-confidence. She did not want to go out and thoughts of suicide. BP= 110/70 mmhg, Pulse= 64/mn. Which is the most probably diagnosis for Ms. D?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymia
Cyclothymia
Mania
Hypomania
A is a 40-year-old male, worker, married and lives in Kampong Speu province, 3 children. For 3 months he had been very sad, especially in the morning. At times he had guilty and wished to die because his wife left him. He had gradually lost interest and enjoyment. His appetite gradually decreased and epigastric pain. He had become irritable and headaches. BP= 120/74 mmhg, Pulse= 84/mn. Which is the differential diagnostic should be consider first?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymia
Cyclothymia
Depression
Hypomania
A is a 40-year-old male, worker, married and lives in Kampong Speu province, 3 children. For 3 months he had been very sad, especially in the morning. At times he had guilty and wished to die because his wife left him. He had gradually lost interest and enjoyment. His appetite gradually decreased and epigastric pain. He had become irritable and headaches. BP= 120/74 mmhg, Pulse= 84/mn. Which is the most probably diagnosis for Mr. A?
Bipolar affective disorders
Dysthymia
Cyclothymia
Depression
Hypomania
Distichiasis is:
Misdirected eyelashes
Accessory row of eyelashes
Downward drooping of upper lid
Outward protrusion of lower lid
Corneal sensations are diminished in:
Herpes simplex
Conjunctivitis
Fungal infections
Marginal keratitis
The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:
Yellow
Blue
Green
Royal blue
A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat topped cobble stone papillae raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:
Trachoma
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium?
Strept pyogenes
Staph aureus
Pseudomonas pyocyanaea
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is:
Posterior subcapsular cataract
Retinopathy of prematurity
Optic neuritis
Vitreous hemorrhage
A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The most probable diagnosis is:
Trachoma
Staphylococal conjunctivitis
Adenoviral conjunctivitis
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Patching of the eye is contraindicated in:
Corneal abrasion
Bacterial corneal ulcer
Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
After glaucoma surgery
In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is usually:
Copious purulent discharge
Copious muco-purulent discharge
Excessive watery lacrimation
Mucoid ropy white discharge
A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to
Bulbar spring catarrh.
Episcleritis.
Vascular pterygium.
Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is:
Arlt's line
Herbert's pits
Post-trachomatous concretions.
Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can be:
Acute anterior uveitis.
Bacterial corneal ulcer.
Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
Acute congestive glaucoma
Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of:
Secondary glaucoma
Cortical cataract.
Corneal perforation
Secondary viral infection.
The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is
Ciliary injection
Blepharospasm
Miosis
Positive fluorescein test.
The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is:
Surface anesthesia
Local corticosteroids
Systemic corticosteroids
Acyclovir ointment
Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium:
Neisseria gonorrhea.
Staphylococcal epidermidis
Moraxella lacunata.
Staphylococcal aureus
Advanced keratoconus is least to be corrected when treated by:
Hard contact Lens,
Rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lens
Spectacles.
Keratoplasty.
Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of
Meibomian gland
Zies’s gland
Sweat gland
Wolfring’s gland
Deep leucoma is best treated by:
Tattooing
Lamellar keratoplasty
Keratectomy
Penetrating keratoplasty
The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:
Moraxella
Gonococcus
Pneumococcus
Staphylococcus
Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from:
Trochlear nerve
Optic nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Ciliary injection is not seen in:
Herpetic keratitis
Bacterial ulcer
Chronic iridocyclitis
Catarrhal conjunctivitis
Acute iridocyclitis
Most of the thickness of cornea is formed by:
Epithelial layer
Substantia propria
Descemet's membrane
Endothelium
A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be the most likely pathology?
Anterior uveitis
Conjunctivitis
Fungal corneal ulcer
Corneal laceration
Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in:
Facial palsy
Peripheral neuritis
Oculomotor palsy
Sympathetic palsy
Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is:
Glaucoma
Retinal detachment
Iridocyclitis
High myopia
In DCR, the opening is made at:
Superior meatus
Middle meatus
Inferior meatus
Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:
Dry eye
Infective keratitis
Watering eyes
Horner’s syndrome
3 months old infant with watering lacrimal sac on pressing causes regurgitation of mucopus material. What is the appropriate treatment?
Dacryocystorhinostomy
Probing
Probing with syringing
Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months
Dacryocystectomy
Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis
Thyroid orbitopathy
Metastasis
Lymphoma
Meningioma
. Evisceration is:
Excision of the entire eyeball
Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
Photocoagulation of the retina
Removal of orbit contents
The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is
Thyroid eye disease
Lacrimal gland tumour
Orbital cellulitis
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally:
Of normal size
Constricted
Dilated
Koeppe’s nodules are found in:
Cornea
Sclera
Iris
Conjunctiva
Aqueous humour is formed by:
Epithelium of ciliary body
Posterior surface of iris
Lens
Pars plana
The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes:
Keratic precipitates
Hypopyon
Posterior synechiae
Aqueous flare
Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:
Fistulizing operation
Cataract extraction
Cyclo-destructive procedure
Miotics and Beta blockers
Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in:
Intumescent cataract.
Anterior lens dislocation,
Posterior subcapsular cataract
Posterior lens dislocation
Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with:
Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
Intracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
Extracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
Small incision cataract extraction
After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be:
Secondary glaucoma.
Anterior uveitis.
Bacterial endophthalmitis.
Acute conjunctivitis
The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is:
Surgical peripheral iridectomy
Yag laser iridotomy
Trabeculotomy
Trabeculectomy
Topical atropine is contraindicated in:
Retinoscopy in children
Iridocyclitis
Corneal ulcer
Primary angle closure glaucoma
.A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is:
Congenital dacryocystitis
Interstitial keratitis
Keratoconus
Buphthalmos
You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following would be an important point in diagnosing the case?
Shallow anterior chamber
Optic disc cupping
Narrow angle
Visual acuity and refractive error
Number of layers in neurosensory retina is:
9
10
11
12
In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:
Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.
Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.
A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is:
Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Diabetes Mellitus
Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in:
Papilloedema
Retinoblastoma
Papillitis
Retinitis
Night blindness is caused by:
Central retinal vein occlusion
Dystrophies of retinal rods
Dystrophies of the retinal cones
Retinal detachment
A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He might have:
Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Cystoid macular edema
Vitreous hemorrhage
Central retinal vein occlusion
Optic disc diameter is:
1 mm
1.5 mm
2 mm
3 mm
In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the primary position is:
Inward
Outward and up
Outward
Outward and down
The action of superior rectus is:
Elevation, intorsion, abduction
Elevation, intorsion, adduction
Elevation, extorsion, adduction
Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
The action of inferior oblique is:
Depression, extorsion, abduction
Depression, extorsion, adduction
Elevation, extorsion, adduction
Elevation, extorsion, abduction
The best treatment for amblyopia is:
Orthoptic exercises
Occlusion
Surgery
Best treat after age 10 years
Which one of systemic disease is NOT affect to the eye:
TB
Syphilis
Thyroid
Sarcoidosis
Gastritis
Which one of following is NOT adverse risk factors develop of diabetic retinopathy
Long duration retinopathy
Poor metabolic control
Pregnancy
Weightand diet control
High blood pressure
Which one of equipment used for fundusexamination:
Ophthalmoscope
Retinoscope
Keratoscope
CT scan
Radiography
What is NOTthe treatment option of thyroid ophthalmopathy
Systemic steroid
Enucleation
Radiotherapy
Surgical decompression
Immunosupresor
Which one of most commonvirus affect to the eye in HIV patient
Estain bar virus
Adenovirus
Herpes simplex
CMV
Herpes zoster
Extraocular muscles (EOMs) have:
3
5
4
 
6
Nerve supply EOMs: Identify the correct answer
Lateral rectus innervated by III nerve
Medial rectus innervated by VI nerve
Superior rectus innervated by IV nerve
Superior oblique innervated by IV nerve
The length of EOMs: Which one is the shortest?
Medial rectus
Lateral rectus
Inferior rectus
Superior rectus
Function of EOMs: select the correct answer
MR – Abduction
LR – Abduction
SR – Depression
IR – Elevation
Arteries supply to EOMs: select the correct answer
LR has 1
SR has 1
MR has 1
IR has 1
Identify the incorrect answer about the EOMs:
Inferior oblique is longest.
Superior oblique is longest and thinnest
Medial rectus is the largest muscle
Are approximately 40mm in length
Esotropia is:
Eye turns inward
Eye turns outward
Eye turns up
Eye turns down
Exotropia is:
Eye turns inward
Eye turns outward
Eye turns up
Eye turns down
Hypertropia is:
Eye turns inward
Eye turns outward
Eye turns up
Eye turns down
Hypotropia is:
Eye turns inward
Eye turns outward
Eye turns up
Eye turns down
Strabismus caused by, except:
Congenital
Accommodative
Overcorrection
Keratitis
Esotropia caused by, except:
Congenital
Accommodative
Deprivation
III nerve palsy
Exotropia caused by, except:
Congenital
Deprivation
VI nerve palsy
Ambyopia
Esotropia can be treated by, except:
Surgery
Glasses
Eye drops
Botox injection
Exotropia can be treated by, except:
Surgery
Antibiotics
Botox injection
Prism glasses
Congenital esotropia is:
Onset before 6 months of age
Onset after 6 months of age
Small angle of deviation < 20 PD
Never associated with nustagmus
Accommodative esotropia is:
Onset before 6 months of age
Not related to refractive errors
Related to refractive errors
Is caused by birth trauma
Strabismus may lead to:
Amblyopia
Refractive errors
Cataract
Infection
 
 
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