Embryology and Histology Midterm Review
Embryology and Histology Midterm Review
Test your knowledge and understanding of embryology and histology with this comprehensive midterm review quiz. Designed for students and educators alike, this quiz covers critical concepts and facts related to fetal development and anatomical structures.
Get ready to challenge yourself with questions about:
- Heart development
- Pharyngeal arches
- Facial anatomy
- Cellular processes
The heart begins beating at the end of which week?
Second
Fourth
Sixth
Eighth
The muscles of facial expression arise from the hyoid arch.
True
False
Sutures are fibrous joints and are named for the 2 or more bones which they articulate.
True
False
Which pharyngeal archs form the hyoid bone?
I and II
II and III
III and IV
IV and V
The mandible is formed from which pharyngeal arch?
First
Second
Third
Fourth
Facial muscles develop from which pharyngeal arch?
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
The mandible develops from the second branchial arch.
True
False
The face develops in the _______ prenatal weeks.
First to third
Fourth to seventh
Eighth to eleventh
Twelfth to fourteenth
Which significant change occurs in the fifth prenatal week?
The heart begins to beat
The bilateral placodes develop into nostrils
The palatine shelves grow medially and contact the tongue
The eyes move from side of the face to the front of the face.
Bilateral nasal placodes appear in the seventh week of gestation
True
False
The second pharyngeal arch is also known as the _________ arch.
Hyoid
Inferior
Superior
Mandibular
Auricular hillocks develop near which location?
External ear canal
Tuberculum impar
Medial nasal process
Oronasal optic groove
The eyes move to the front of the face in the sixth week of prenatal development.
True
False
The word for programmed cell death during palatal shelf elevation and closure is
Fusion
Merging
Apoptosis
Migration
Palatal development occurs during the ________ weeks of gestation.
First to third
Fourth to sixth
Seventh to ninth
Tenth to twelfth
A cleft may occur in the ________
Lip
Palate
Mandible
Lip, palate, and mandible
In the fifth week, the frontal process becomes known as the:
Frontonasal process
Philtrum
Medial nasal process
Lateral nasal process
Which defines the term synchondrosis?
A union of two bones that have been separated by cartilage
A band of connective tissue containing osteogenic cells.
The rod-shaped cartilage of the hyoid arch. The center of all growth and fun
None of the above
Which type of bone protects the brain?
Short
Dermal
Sesamoid
Membrane
In the first 20 weeks, the prenatal mandible articulates with which bone(s)?
Incus
Malleus
Stapes
Both, Incus and Malleus
Dentinogenesis always occurs before amelogenesis
True
False
The stomodeum first appears in the __________ week of prenatal development.
Second
Sixth
Fourth
Seventh
Development of the upper lip depends on fusion of the philtrum and maxillary processes.
True
False
Which best defines the term fusion?
A separation of tissues
An enzymatic action that results in self-destruction
A merging of adjacent tissues during orofacial development
The period of growth in which the face becomes recognizably human
Which best defines the term nasal fin?
Oblique groove extending from the nostrils to the eyes
Medial nasal process that composes part of the upper lip
Zone of fusion that binds the maxillary and medial processes
Wedge-shaped process that assists in the formation of the palate
Posttranslational modifications to proteins produced by the rough endoplasmic reticulum are accomplished by __________.
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Messenger RNA
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Fertilization takes place in the distal part of the uterine tube.
True
False
The _______ provides an ideal environment for the implantation and growth of the embryo.
Ovary
Uterine tube
Myometrium
Endometrium
Which best describes diapedesis?
Programmed cell death and fragmentation
A protective mechanism in the immunologic defense of the body
The development of a cartilage disk in the neck of each long bone
The migration of leukocytes between endothelial cells to the site of infection
Which phase of the cell cycle is characterized as the initial resting stage?
S phase
G1 phase
G2 phase
Prophase
Which chemical is called the second messenger
ADNA
MRNA
DGMP
CAMP
Which organelle produces microtubules?
Nucleus
Centriole
Golgi apparatus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Each tissue originates from mesoderm, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
Bone
Liver
Blood
Muscle
Which of the following is not a major function of the urinary system?
Controls blood volume
Controls blood pressure
Controls testosterone levels
Controls urine composition
Which body system relies on neural stimuli to function?
Vascular
Digestive
Endocrine
Respiratory
Which is true regarding the central nervous system (CNS)?
The CNS is composed of the brain and the spinal cord.
The CNS is composed of the brain, but not the spinal cord.
The efferent system carries information from the peripheral nervous system to the CNS
The somatic nervous system carries impulse from the CNS to involuntary muscles.
All body sensations are relayed to the ______ and the _______.
Brain; spinal cord
Afferent; efferent systems
Voluntary; involuntary muscles
Sympathetic; parasympathetic divisions
Internal organs (viscera) receive most of their neural impulses from which nervous system?
Somatic
Sensory
Afferent
Autonomic
What are the three types of muscle tissue?
Cardiac, skeletal, and smooth
Striated, voluntary, and smooth
Cardiac, skeletal, and voluntary
Voluntary, involuntary, and striated
The information in mRNA is translated by ribosomes located on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
True
False
Developmental abnormalities are not associated with which number of chromosomes?
44
45
46
47
Neuroglia cells are __________ numerous than neurons.
Slightly less
Slightly more
Significantly less
Significantly more
The spinal cord consists of how many segments?
21
22
30
31
Which term represents a single layer of cells?
Simple
Stratified
Cuboidal
Columnar
Which epithelium consists of several layers, with only the basal cell layer in contact with the basal lamina?
Simple
Stratified
Squamous
Pseudostratified
Cleft lip is the most common facial malformation
True
False
What are the causes of facial and palate clefts?
Environmental
Genetic
Poor brushing
Environmental and genetic
What tissues support the human dentition?
Cementum
Alveolar bone
Periodontal ligament
All of the above
The three stages of tooth development are bud, cap and bell.
True
False
What cranial nerves innervate the tongue?
5th, 7th, 9th, 11th, and 12th
5th, 7th, 9th, 10th, and 12th
3rd, 4th, 5th, 10th, and 12th
7th, 8th, 9th, 10th, and 11th
Which statement is true?
Tubular defects are associated with enamel lamellae.
Lamellae provide increased resistance to dental caries.
Breathing cold air is a risk factor in developing enamel lamellae.
Enamel Lamellae are microscopic cracks in the surface of enamel.
In the Hunter-Schreger phenomenon, adjacent rod groups lie at right angles to each other.
True
False
Ameloblasts deposit 4 um of enamel rods daily.
True
False
Which of the following best defines the neonatal line?
An accentuated incremental line.
A defect caused by the misdirection of enamel rods
Light and dark enamel rod groups, made visible with light
A series of dark growth rings noticable in the cross section of enamel
A developmental defect at the DEJ of enamel that is filled with organic material is called a/an?
Enamel rod
Enamel tuft
Enamel lamellae
Enamel spindle
Enamel rods extend from the DEJ to the enamel outer surface.
True
False
Enamel is composed of 96% of hydroxyapatite.
True
False
Perikymata are found in which location?
Cusp tip
Cervical third of the root
Middle third of the crown's lingual aspect
Cervical third of the crown's facial aspect
Primless enamel is characterized by numerous and pronounced HunterSchreger bands.
True
False
Ameloblasts travel along parallel paths to produce straight enamel rods.
True
False
Lamellae are cracks in the surface of enamel and are visible to the naked eye
True
False
The organic component of enamel is called.
Hydroxyapatite
Enamelin
Gnarled enamel
Perikymata
The three parts of the tongue tissue is:
Tuberculum impar
Two lateral lingual swellings
Only A
Both A and B
As ameloblasts migrate they produce enamel rods.
True
False
Enamel is how many mm at the occlusal and incisal surfaces?
3.5
2.5
4.5
1.5
Enamel spindles are not extensions of the odontoblast process in enamel.
True
False
What type of cell forms the enamel organ?
Ectodermal
Endodermal
Mesenchyme
Epithelial
The dental lamina degenerates after the enamel organ differentiates
True
False
The lymphoid organs include the:
Thymus
Spleen
Lymph Nodes
All of the above
The palate develops from which tissue(s)?
Anterior wedge-shaped medial palate
2 lateral palatine processes
A and B
None of the above
Which of the following does not facilitate the spread of dental caries?
Enamel Tufts
Enamel Lamellae
Incremental lines
Prismless enamel
Buccal mucosa is replenished every _________ days?
10-14
7-10
5-8
3-4
Sensations received anywhere in the body are relayed to the brain and the spinal cord.
True
False
Which are types of cartilage?
Hyaline
Elastic
Fibrous
All of the above
Connective tissue proper is classified as:
Loose
Dense
Loose connective tissue with special properties
All of the above
What event in facial development occurs in the 5th week?
Bilateral nasal placodes appear in the upper border of the lip
Frontal process becomes known as the frontalnasal process
Eyes become prominent on the sides of the head
All of the above
The myelin sheath protects and insulates axons located ouside the CNS?
True
False
What arch do the common carotid arteries originate from?
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
What replaces Meckel's cartilage?
Bony mandible
Hyoid bone
Hyoid bone
Maxilla
The internal carotid supplies blood to
Face
Neck
Brain
All of the above
Which of the following is muscles of mastication?
Masseter
Medial and Lateral Pterygoid
Temporalis
All of the above
The name of the primitive mouth is called the stomodeum.
True
False
Embryology is the study of
Prenatal development prior to birth
Structure and function at the microscopic level
Cell development
Postnatal development prior to age 1
The _________ separates the oral and nasal cavities.
Throat
Palate
Tongue
Teeth
Type of tissue that covers oral cavity
Mucous membrane
Epithelia
Squamous
Stratified
What covers the crown of the tooth in the oral cavity
Enamel
Dentin
Cementum
Non
What is the name of the process by which teeth move into a functional position in the oral cavity?
Eruption
Exfoliation
Proliferation
Histodifferentiation
Odontoblasts are derived from which type of cell?
Follicular
Neural crest
Ectodermal
Oral epithelial
Tooth development relies on an interaction between the ectoderm and mesenchyme.
True
False
Enamel forms from which type of cells
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Dental Papilla
Tomes processes develop in which stage of ameloblast differentiation?
Secretion
Protection
Maturation
Organization
The successional lamina is vital to the development of primary teeth.
True
False
Enamel is an impermeable tissue
True
False
_______________ produce ATP for intracellular energy
Golgi aparatus
Ribosomes
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Cardiac muscles is the only type of muscle with intercalated disks which facilitate the involuntary contractions of the heart.
True
False
__________ synthesize protein.
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi aparatus
_____________ facilitate the breakdown of intracellular and extracellular substances.
Free ribosomes
Centrioles
Lysosomes
Proteins
The __________________provides a protective barrier and regulates the transport of substances to and from the cell.
Plasma membrane
Membrane proteins
Plasmalemma
Protein receptors
The bone marrow is the site of the formation of T cells, B cells, NK cells, and macrophages, which are all immune system cells.
True
False
Junctional epithelium of the gingival renews every ______ days.
2-3
10-14
4-6
8-12
Nutrient absorption takes place in the _____________
Large intestines
Small intestine
Pancreas
Kidney
The cell body of the neuron is called
Perikaryon
Axon
Dentrite
None of the above
The __________ conducts nerve impulses away from the perikaryon; the ____________ receives nerve impulses.
Axon; nerve
Nerve; perikaryon
Axon; perikaryon
Axon; dendrite
The period/s of growth for a developing human is/are:
Proliferate
Embryonic
Fetal
All of the above
Tissues are more susceptible to defective development when they begin to differentiate in the embryonic period (2-8 weeks).
True
False
_______ transmits information to the intracellular organelles when activated by surface receptors on the plasma membrane.
Proteins
MRNA
CAMP
RRNA
The largest organ system in the human body is the _________________ system
Cardiac
Respiratory
Nervous
Integumentary
The respiratory system functions to exchange oxygen (inspiration) and carbon dioxide (expiration).
True
False
A major function of the skin is:
Regulate temperature
Immune defense
Excretion of waste products
None of the above
What pharyngeal groove does the external auditory canal develop from?
1st pharyngeal
2nd pharyngeal
3rd pharyngeal
4th pharyngeal
What arch forms the maxillary processes and what forms these maxillary processes?
2nd pharyngeal and forms the oral cavity
1st pharyngeal and forms the cheeks
3rd pharyngeal and forms the philtrum
1st pharyngeal and forms the lips
Incremental lines result from the rhythmic, recurrent deposition of enamel.
True
False
Predentin calcifies to form dentin within ____ hours.
12
24
48
72
Which of the following best defines the primary cuticle?
Mineralized, mature enamel.
A cell junction complex, which attaches one ameloblast to another.
An organic substance secreted on the surface of enamel by ameloblasts.
An unmineralized protein secreted by ameloblasts in a young enamel matrix.
Which is a genetic disorder that makes teeth susceptible to excessive wear?
Cleft lip
Cleft palate
Dentinogenesis imperfecta
Thyroglossal duct cyst
During root development, the epithelial diaphragm __________.
Fuses to the stratum intermedium
surrounds the apical opening of the dental pulp
Forms the cortical plate, which covers the mandible
Deposits an enamel matrix along the dentoenamel junction
Bone, dentin, cementum, and enamel grow through incremental deposition.
True
False
Ameloblasts secrete enamel before odontoblasts secrete predentin.
True
False
Which layer of the enamel organ is most closely associated with blood vessels?
Stellate reticulum
Stratum intermedium
Inner enamel epithelium
Outer enamel epithelium
Which permanent tooth forms from the general lamina?
Molar
Incisor
Canine
Premolar
Cementoblasts, fibroblasts, and osteoblasts originate from dental follicular cells.
True
False
Enamel is about twice as thick in permanent teeth as it is in primary teeth.
True
False
Which of the following best defines ankylosis?
A fusion of tooth roots to the bony socket
A process that leads to tooth eruption
The removal of bone overlying the bony crypt
The eruption of a tooth into a space occupied by an opposing tooth
The permanent teeth that replace the primary teeth are called ______.
Supportive
Accessional
Overlapping
Successional
Which of the following is clinically seen as tooth eruption?
Light and dark bands
Interlocking of the rods
Blanching of the mucosa
Crystallization of the enamel rods
Hard tissue resorption comprises which two phases?
Mineral and collagen phases
Prefunctional and functional phases
Extracellular and intracellular phases
Fibroblast eruptive and osteoclast functional phases
Which of the following defines the functional eruption phase?
The first phase of tooth eruption, which includes eruptive movements during crown formation
The final stage, which includes occlusal wear of the enamel
The process of initiation of root development into the oral cavity
The final stage, in which the teeth require adjustments relative to the bony crypt
Which of the following is the origin of osteoclasts?
Fibroblasts
Monocytes
Amino acids
Root resorption
The mixed dentition phase occurs from approximately _____ years of age.
birth to 2
3 to 6
8 to 12
13 to 18
________ operates as a blueprint or pattern to guide root formation.
Predentin
The primary cuticle
Reduced enamel epithelium
Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
Which two cellular layers fuse to form the root sheath?
Ameloblast and odontoblast cells
Cementoid and epithelial rest cells
Inner and outer enamel epithelial cells
Stratum intermedium and stellate reticulum cells
Compact bone is the most highly calcified tissue in the human body.
True
False
Special _______ cells destroy collagen fibers by ingestion.
fibroblast
Osteoclast
osteoblast
Amino acid
Why are humans considered to be diphyodonts?
Because they possess two dentitions.
Because the adult molars are intended for chewing plants.
Because the adult canines are pointed and have a single cusp.
Because the mesio-distal dimension of the adult premolars is less than that of the primary molars.
Reduced enamel epithelium is a fused layer of ameloblasts, epithelium and _____________________
Stratum intermedium
Mesenchyme cells
Ectodermal cells
PDL
What type of cells forms the dental papilla?
Alveolar
Mesenchymal
JE
Alveolar mucosa
What do accessory root canals connect the pulp tissue to?
Crown
Pulp
PDL
JE
Primary tooth loss results from which of the following?
Tooth resorption
Bone resorption
Crown becomes too small to withstand the forces of mastication
All of the above
Apical root fibers help cushion the forces caused by occlusal impact.
True
False
{"name":"Embryology and Histology Midterm Review", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Test your knowledge and understanding of embryology and histology with this comprehensive midterm review quiz. Designed for students and educators alike, this quiz covers critical concepts and facts related to fetal development and anatomical structures.Get ready to challenge yourself with questions about:Heart developmentPharyngeal archesFacial anatomyCellular processes","img":"https:/images/course3.png"}
More Quizzes
Histology test 2
10526
Histo retake on entry cycle 1
221158
Burrell
10517
A.S Connective tissue quiz
1166
Histology cycle test 3, del 1
301552
Histology Quiz (Final)
6030228
2020-1 Histology Test
201053
Histology
1368
Comprehensive Anatomy and Embryology Quiz
321635
Histo cycle 3, del 2
311644
Histology Test 1
10528
Histology 2nd Seminar Variant 1
251240