Pharmacology Mastery Quiz

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Pharmacology Mastery Quiz

Test your knowledge in pharmacology with our comprehensive quiz designed for medical students and healthcare professionals. This quiz covers a wide range of topics, ensuring a thorough understanding of drug mechanisms, treatment protocols, and patient management.

Key Features:

  • 30 diverse questions
  • Multiple-choice format
  • Immediate feedback on your answers
144 Questions36 MinutesCreated by StudyingChemist42
A-50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is
1. Acetazolamide
2. Furosemide
3. Hydrochlorothiazide
4. Mannitol
5. Spironolactone
A newborn was diagnosed as having a congenital abnormality that resulted in transposition of her great arteries. While preparing the infant for surgery, the medical team needed to keep the ductus arteriosus open. They did this by infusing
1. TMP/SMX
2. Cortisol
3. Misoprostol
4. Indomethacin
A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a biological response that mimics the response to the endogenous ligand is known as
1. Partial antagonist
2. Agonist
3. Partial agonist
4. Functional antagonist
5. Antagonist
A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is
1. Amiloride
2. Acetazolamide
3. Hydrochlorothiazide
4. Furosemide
Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term "receptor"
1. All types of on channels modulated by a drug
2. Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug molecule has to combine with in order to elicit its specific effect
4. Carriers activated by a drug
A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described?
1. Guanethidine
2. Prazosin
3. Propranolol
4. Minoxidil
5. Captopril
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by:
1. Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
2. Diminishing insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake and metabolism in muscle and adipose
Tissues
3. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
4. Competitive inhibiting of intestinal alpha-glucosidases and modulating the postprandial digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides
A 10-year-old female with allergy-induced asthma is treated with cromolyn. What is the mechanism of action of cromolyn?
1. Inhibition of mediator release
2. Breakdown of mucus
3. Inhibition of 5-hpoxygenase
4. Inhibition of airway muscarinic receptors
Enhancement of the effects of bradykinin is most likely to occur with drugs like
1. Clonidine
2. losartan
3. propranolol
4. lisinopril
5. diazoxide
A 31-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by friends who said she has been "taking drugs." They did not know specifically what she had taken. She presents with respiratory depression and dysphoria. Stimulation of which receptor is likely causing her dysphoria?
1. Serotonin receptor
2. GABA receptor
3. Cannabinoid receptor
4. k-Opioid receptor
5. μ -Opioid receptor
A 60-year-old male with chronic obstructive lung disease is given ipratropium as part of his therapeutic regimen. What is the mechanism of action of ipratropium?
1. Breakdown of mucus
2. Inhibition of airway muscarinic receptors
3. Inhibition of 5-hpoxygenase
4. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
In a patient suffering from angina of effort, nitroglycerin may be given sublingually because this mode of administration
1. Bypasses the coronary circulation
2. Avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism
3. Has a decreased tendency to cause methemoglobinemia
4. Causes less reflex tachycardia than oral administration
5. Improves patient compliance
Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker?
1. Aspirin
2. Zafirlukast
3. Alprosradil
4. Ibuprofen
Actions of mifepristone (RU-486) include:
1. Termination of pregnancy by facilitating luteolysis , menstruation, uterine motility, softening of the cervix, and detachment of the embryo
2. All of them
3. Inhibition of ovulation during the follicular phase by blocking hypothalamic-pituitary progesterone receptors, which suppresses midcycle gonadotropin release
4. During the luteal phase, inhibition of progesterone action on the uterus, which induces prostaglandin release from the endometrium
A 16-year-old girl plans to become sexually active. She does not want a pregnancy, so she requests an oral contraceptive pill from her primary care physician. The physician prescribes a pill that contains both an estrogen analog and a progesterone analog. What is an effect of the progesterone analog?
1. Thickened cervical mucus
2. Sodium retention
3. Milk production
4. Peripheral muscle wasting
5. Hirsutism
Pick out the right statement
1. Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus its excretion from the organism is facilitated
2. Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
3. Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug
4. Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
A 53-year-old woman with seizure disorder, bipolar disorder, and trigeminal neuralgia presents to her primary care physician for follow-up and treatment She has no new complaints. Which of the following medications may serve to treat all of her earlier mentioned problems?
1. Felbamate
2. Gabapentin
3. Ethosuximide
4. Carbamazepine
5. Lacosamide
A 44-year-old man with Type-2 diabetes presents to the ambulatory care clinic for follow-up. He was diagnosed with diabetes 6 months ago and was started on oral medication then. His blood sugar has been under good control with a hemoglobin A1c of 6.7%. He has not had any hypoglycemic episodes. His only complaint is that despite daily exercise and eating healthier, he has gained 12 lb in the last 6 months. What medication is most likely to cause his weight gain?
1. Acarbose
2. Metformin
3. Exenatide
4. Pioglitazone
5. Glyburide
This compound decrease the functional activities of several CNS neurotransmitters, including dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. At high doses it may cause parkinsonism-like extrapyramidal system dysfunction.
1. Reserpine
2. Captopril
3. Amphetamine
4. Baclofen
5. Ketamine
A 66-yew-old woman with a history of Cushing's disease treated with oral glucocorticoids presents to her primary care physician for follow-up. She was recently hospitalized for a hip fracture following a fall. What is the most likely mechanism for hip fracture in this patient?
1. Increased intestinal calcium absorption
2. Osteochondroma
3. Increased sex hormone synthesis
4. Osteoarthritis
5. Inhibition of bone formation
A 73-yew-old man with a history of coronary disease and angina pectoris is taking aspirin and dipyridamole. The most likely mechanism of action of this agent involves which of the following?
1. Increased levels of cAMP
2. Increased levels of thrombin
3. Increased levels of cGTP
4. Increased levels of prostacyclin
5. Increased levels of cGMP
A 37-year-old man is preparing to undergo functional endoscopic sinus surgery. In the operating room, he is given intravenous succinylcholine. This agent will initially produce which of the following responses?
1. Ganglionic blockade
2. Muscle fasciculation
3. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
4. Urinary bladder paralysis
5. Apnea
A 34-year -old woman with long-standing hypertension is taking an ACE inhibitor. She is now newly married. Which of the following potential adverse effects is most applicable to her at this time?
1. Persistent cough
2. Angioedema
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Toxicity to fetus
5. Renal insufficiency
A 27-year-old hospital worker has access to the pharmacy when no other workers are around. He is able to find morphine and inject himself with supratherapeutic dose of morphine. He then collapses and is found dead by coworkers 24 h later. What is the most likely explanation for his death?
1. Cardiomyopathy
2. Cardiac ischemia
3. Transient cerebral ischemic attack and subsequent stroke
4. Cardiac arrest
5. Respiratory depression and arrest
A 45-year-old male who is obese presents to his primary care physician complaining of postprandial epigastric pain. The pain does not appear after every meal. He has noticed the pain especially after eating spicy foods and oatmeal. He is not currently taking any medications. Which of the following drugs prevents acid secretion by antagonizing a receptor?
1. Misoprostol
2. Ranitidine
3. Omeprazole
4. Fexofenadine
5. Aluminum hydroxide
Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia?
1. Dihydrotachysterol
2. Calcitonin
3. Etidronate
4. Ergocalciferol
What drug is useful to distinguish neurogenic from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
1. Desmopressin
2. Hydrochlorothiazide
3. Amiloride
4. Lithium
5. Demeclocycline
A 37-year-old man complains of chest pain after meals. He says this pain has gone on for a few months and gets only minimal relief from antacid tablets. The physician prescribes a drug that will decrease the amount of acid secreted by binding to and inhibiting an ATPase on the lumenal surface of parietal cells. Which of the following drugs works by this mechanism?
1. Omeprazole
2. Cimetidine
3. Atropine
4. Misoprostol
5. Octreotide
Which of the following drugs may be effective in the treatment of gouty arthritis by acting by two separate and distinct mechanisms?
1. sulfasalazine
2. Probenecid
3. Allopurinol
4. Indomethacin
A 28-year-old woman complains of fatigue that increases throughout the day. At the end of her workday, she says her eyes feel “heavy” and “droopy,” although she does not feel particularly tired. Pyridostigmine is prescribed to treat her myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is a potential side effect of this therapy?
1. Constipation
2. Urinary retention
3. Mydriasis
4. Tachycardia
5. Diaphoresis
A patient takes an oral sympathomimetic agent for regulation of heart rate. This agent is taken orally. Which of the following systemic effects is likely a result of this medication?
1. Tachycardia
2. Bronchoconstriction
3. Pupillary constriction
4. Urinary frequency
5. Hypotension
A 28-year-old man is hospitalized after a fall from a cliff. His current medical problems include cardiogenic shock, heart failure, renal disease, and cirrhosis from chronic alcoholism. Because of weight loss, he is felt to be somewhat hypermetabolic. Which of the following factors will have the most significant effect to decrease drug half-life of medications administered to him?
1. Cirrhosis
2. Renal disease
3. Heart failure
4. Cardiogenic shock
5. Hypermetabolic state
Indications of bromocriptine are following, EXCEPT
1. Amenorrhea-Galactorrhea
2. Prolactin-secreting adenomas
3. Acromegaly
4. Prolactin deficiency
A 52-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic with progressive weakness and muscle aches for the past month. She can still do her daily tasks but can notice a difference in her strength. When she lies down at night, her legs always ache. Her electrolytes are significant for a K1 of 2.9 mEq/L. She was recently started on a diuretic for peripheral edema. She is pleased that she has not had peripheral edema since starting the diuretic. What is the most appropriate diuretic to treat this patient?
1. Mannitol
2. Furosemide
3. Acetazolamide
4. Hydrochlorothiazide
5. Spironolactone
A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm. He is admitted, stabilized, and treated for an acute myocardial infarction. Later, he developed ventricular tachycardia and is treated with an antiarrhythmic. After a week of antiarrhythmic treatment, he began having difficulty breathing. A chest X-ray reveals pulmonary fibrosis. Which antiarrhythmic was he taking?
1. Procainamide
2. Amiodarone
3. Verapamil
4. Lidocaine
5. Digoxin
Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in patient with chronic congestive failure but has a negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility?
1. Dobutamine
2. Carvedilol
3. Digoxin
4. Digitoxin
5. Enalapril
A 42-year-old man with HIV disease is hospitalized for refractory fungemia. He has begun on a course of caspofungin. After administration of the first intravenous dose, the patient develops flushing and sweats. What is the most likely mechanism of action for this finding?
1. Histamine release from mast cells
2. Parathyroid adenoma
3. Pancreatic pseudocyst
4. Parathyroid hyperplasia
5. Pheochromocytoma
Which of the following statements regarding warfarin is true?
1. It is a prodrug converted to its active metabolite spontaneously in the blood.
2. It causes a depletion in protein C before it decreases prothrombin.
3. It inhibits release of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors from hepatocytes.
4. It is inactivated by protamine.
5. It has low lipophilicity and does not cross the placental barrier
Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxins. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include
1. Skeletal muscle spasms
2. Hyperventilation
3. Diarrhea
4. Cycloplegia
5. Bronchospasm
The rationale behind the use of dopamine as a treatment of shock in a 38-year-old man who was a driver in a motor vehicle accident who was thrown from the vehicle is
1. Slowonset of action
2. Impermeability to the blood-brain barrier
3. Potentiates hypotension
4. Long duration of action
5. Oral administration
A 7-years-old boy has a significant bedwetting problem. A long-acting indirect sympathomimetic agent sometimes used by the oral route for this and other indications is
1. Ephedrine
2. Dobutamine
3. Epinephrine
4. Isoproterenol
Accidental poisonings are common with both aspirin and ibuprofen, two OC drugs available in tasty chewable tablets. In cases of overdose, aspirin is more likely than ibuprofen to cause
1. Hepatic necrosis
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Autonomic Instability
4. Metabolic acidosis
A one-year-old male develops decreased breath sounds, and wheezing during a febrile episode, which is relieved by albuterol. What is the mechanism of action of albuterol?
1. Activation of B-adrenergic receptors
2. Inhibition of airway muscarinic receptors
3. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase
4. Breakdown of mucus
When used in the management of asthma, glucocorticoids are likely to cause
1. Anabolic actions in wound healing
2. Oral thrush
3. Decreases in blood pressure
4. sedation
5. hypoglycemia
A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right flank pain and hematuria. She has passed calcium oxalate stones in the past and likely has another stone. After treating her for the stone, which of the following diuretics could be started to prevent future calcium oxalate stones?
1. Furosemide
2. Spironolactone
3. Hydrochlorothiazide
4. Acetazolamide
5. Mannitol
A 33-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with tachycardia, heat intolerance, tremor, and unintentional weight loss. A thyroid scan shows multiple regions of thyroid taking up excess iodine. She is prescribed with a drug that will decrease synthesis of thyroid hormones and decrease the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. Which drug is this?
1. Lanreotide
2. Propylthiouracil
3. Octreotide
4. Methimazole
5. Levothyroxine
One effect that theophylline, nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine have in common is
1. hypertension
2. Increased gastric acid secretion
3. Direct stimulation of cardiac contractile force
4. tachycardia
What Is the rationale for combining levodopa with carbidopa?
1. Carbidopa increases levodopa entry into the CNS by inhibiting peripheral dopa decarboxylase
2. Carbidopa enhances the peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine
3. Carbidopa enhances levodopa absorption
4. Carbidopa blocks peripheral COMT
5. Carbidopa stimulates dopamine receptors
A 29-year-old man with a family history of heart disease presents to his primary care physician for a routine checkup. A lipid profile on a blood draw reveals high LDL and low HDL, One way to decrease amount of LDL in the blood is to hinder the livers ability for de novo cholesterol synthesis. Which of the following drugs blocks de novo cholesterol synthesis in hepatocytes?
1. Rosuvastatin
2. Colestipol
3. Ezetimibe
4. Cholestyramine
5. Colesevelam
Commonalities of the sympathetic parasympathetic, and somatic nervous systems involve which of the following neuroeffector transmitters?
1. Norepinephone
2. Epinephrine
3. Dopamine
4. Acetylcholine
5. Serotonin
A reasonable explanation for the therapeutic effects of ibuprofen or naproxen in primary dysmenorrhea is that these drugs
1. inhibit PLA2
2. PI2
3. Decrease PGE2 and PGF2α
4. Decrease LTB4
5. Selectively inhibit COX 2
A 45-year-old surgeon has developed symmetric early morning stiffness in her hands. She wishes to take a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug to relieve these symptoms and wants to avoid gastrointestinal side effects. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate?
1. Celecoxib
2. Diazepam
3. Ibuprofen
4. montelukast
A young female patient who suffers from bipolar affective disorder (BAD) has been managed with lithium. If she becomes pregnant, which one of the following drugs is likely to be effective in bipolar affective disorder with minimal risk of teratogenicity?
1. Stalin
2. Carbamazepine
3. Phenytoin
4. Clonazepam
A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin ( at therapeutic blood levels ) that can be almost entirely blocked by atropine is
1. Increased PR interval on the ECG
2. Increased atrial contractility
3. Tachycardia
4. Decreased appetite
5. Headaches
A direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma is
1. Bethanechol
2. Pilocarpine
3. Acetylcholine
4. Physostigmine
A 58-year-old man with diabetes presents to the ambulatory care clinic for follow up. He has tried to eat better and exercise over the Past 6 months.He has lost 10 lb with his new lifestyle. However, his urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. The physician decides to start the patient on captopril. What is a common side effect of captopril?
1. Ototoxicity
2. Hypokalemia
3. Hypertension
4. Acute renal failure
5. Gynecomastia
Which one of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines ?
1. They are direct-acting GABA receptor agonists in the CNS
2. Increase the frequency of opening of chloride ion channels that are coupled to GABAA receptors
3. Their inhibition of GABA transminase leads to increased levels of GABA
4. Benzodiazepines block glutamate receptors in hierarchical neuronal pathways in the brain
5. Benzodiazepines activate GABAB receptors in the spinal cord
An 83-year-old woman with Parkinson's disease is currently being treated with carbidopa/levodopa, but her Parkinson's symptoms are worsening. She has normal liver physician adds tolcapone to her regimen on tolcapone. How does tolcapone help in Parkinson's disease?
1. Stimulation of acetylcholine release
2. Increased norepinephrine synthesis
3. Inhibition of COMT
4. Inhibition of MAO
5. Stimulation of norepinephrine release
A 52 -year-old overweight woman presents to the clinic for a diabetes management. She had not been doing well controlling her blood sugars with metformin. Her last hemoglobin A1c Was 13.4%, despite her taking her Medication every day. The physician decides to start her on a long-acting insulin that is injected only once a day for better glucose control. Also, he wants the insulin to have a minimal risk of hypoglycemia. What is the most likely medication given to this patient?
1. Insulin glargine
2. Regular insulin
3. Insulin aspart
4. NPH insulin
5. Insulin lispro
A 62-year -old man with congestive heart failure and hypertension on digoxin takes an extra few pills because he is angry about his daughter being pregnant out of wedlock He is found unconscious and brought to the emergency department for evaluation. If electrocardiogram is performed, which of the following would be most likely?
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. Acute myocardial infarction
3. Ventricular tachycardia
4. Ventricular septal defect
5. Atrial conduction arrhythmia
A researcher is studying the bioavailability of commonly used antimuscarinics to treat irritable bowel syndrome. Medication A is administered in a 1C from the gastrointestinal tract unchanged. Thus, the bioavailability of Medication A is
1. 0.5
2. 60%
3. 0.9
4. 0.7
5. 0.8
A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive meditation. The most likely cause of his cough is
1. Propranolol
2. Losartan
3. Enalapril
4. Minoxidil
All of the following statements concerning cholestyramine (Questran) are true, EXCEPT
1. It would not be a good choice for treating patients with familial hypertriglyceridermia (type IV)
2. It works by directly binding cholesterol in the blood
3. It is an effective drug for treatment of types IIa and Ilb hyperlipidemia
4. It is not well tolerated by patients
Chronic use of ethanol is reported to increase
1. NADH dehydrogenase
2. Alcohol dehydrogenase
3. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
4. Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system activity
5. Monoamine oxidase
Sulphonylureas act by :
1. Reducing the absorption of carbohydrate from the gut
2. Increasing the uptake of glucose in peripheral tissues
3. Stimulating the beta islet cells of pancreas to produce insulin
4. Reducing the hepatic gluconeogenesis
A 61 -year-old female is hospitalized for COPD exacerbation. She is obese and not able to ambulate very far on her own . Upon discharge, the physician wants to send her home on heparin to reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Why would the physician choose a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) instead of unfractionated heparin (UFH)?
1. LMWH does not cause HIT
2. LMWH is a better inhibitor of thrombin
3. LMWH is easier to manage for outpatients
4. LMWH is more easily reversible
5. LMWH carries no risk of bleeding
A 72-year-old woman with Parkinson’s disease is taking a medication that increases release of dopamine, blockade of cholinergic receptors, and inhibiting the N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor. This describes which of the following agents?
1. Amantadine
2. Rotigotine
3. Pramipexole
4. Bromocriptine
5. Tolcapone
Oseltamivir and zanamivir are available for treatment of infections due to influenza A and B. The mechanism of their antiviral action is inhibition of which of the following ?
1. RNA polymerase
2. Thymidine kinase
3. Neuraminidase
4. Reverse transcriptase
5. Aspartate protease
In review of the benzodiazepine class, which of the following agents has the longest duration of action and may be useful in the treatment of a 39 – year – old patient with spinal cord injury and with skeletal muscle spasticity ?
1. Lorazepam
2. Oxazepam
3. Temazepam
4. Triazolam
5. Diazepam
A 43-year-old woman with recurrent urinary tract infections who is usually sensitive to ciprofloxacin now has three consecutive UTIs in a 4-month period. Each time, the culture and sensitivity reveal resistance to ciprofloxacin. What is the most likely source of resistance?
1. DNA gyrase
2. DNA polymerase
3. DNA topoisomerase I
4. DNA topoisomerase II
5. DNA topoisomerase III
Fosfomycin is given as a large single dose to treat which infection?
(A) gonorrhea
(B) syphilis
(C) urinary tract infection
(D) impetigo
(E) traveler’s diarrhea
Muscle rigidity can be a side effect of which intravenous anesthetic?
A) fentanyl
(B) midazolam
(C) ketamine
(D) propofol
(E) thiopental
The molecular mechanism underlying the antiepileptic effects of carbamazepine and phenytoin is best described by which one of the following statements?
(A) inhibiting low-threshold Ca2+ ion channels
(B) prolonging the inactivation of the Na+ ion channel
(C) potentiating the release of GABA by inhibiting GABA reuptake
(D) increasing the release of GABA by vesicular fusion
(E) blocking glutamate receptor excitation
A 34-year-old man is prescribed labetalol for hypertension. The effect on the cardiovascular system is a result of its action as an antagonist at which of the following?
Both a- and beta-adrenoceptors
Muscarinic cholino receptors
B-Adrencoceptors
A-Adrenoceptors
Which of the following drugs has the following effects: nausea and vamiting, blurred and abnormally colored vision, and palpitations?
Digoxin
Milrinone
Dobutamine
Furosemide
Lisinopril
Which effect is caused by both atenolol and diltiazem?
(A) decreased cAMP levels
(B) increased cGMP levels
(C) decreased heart rate
(D) relaxation of arterial smooth muscle
(E) inhibition of sodium influx
Which of the following describes the major difference between a first- and second-generation antihistamine?
(A) selectivity at H1 receptors
(B) ability to cross the blood-brain barrier
(C) effectiveness in treating allergies
(D) potency at blocking H1 receptors
(E) indications for use
Treatment of hyperthyroidism by propylthiouracil (PTU) shows clinical effects due ta:
(A) blocking β-adrenergic receptors
(B) inhibiting enzymes forming T3 and T4
(C) destroying thyroid tissue
(D) inhibiting release of T3 and T4
(E) acting on thyroid hormone receptors
A 65-year-old retired military man with hypertension and type Il diabetes comes in for a follow-up visit. Along with making appropriate diet and lifestyle changes, he is taking an ACE inhibitor-thiazide diuretic combination for his hypertension and metformin for his diabetes. His blood pressure and diabetes are under acceptable control. Routine blood work revealed normal electrolytes, renal function, and liver enzymes, He is noted to have elevated total cholesteral and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels, which have remained high in spite of his lifestyle changes. In an effort ta reduce his risk of developing coronary artery disease, you start him on a 3-hydraxy-3- methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitor. Mechanism of action of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
Competitive inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis results in compensatory increase in plasma cholesterol uptake in the liver mediated by an increase in the number of LDL receptors.
Competitive inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis results in compensatory decrease in plasma cholesterol uptake in the liver mediated by an increase in the number of LDL receptors
Competitive inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis results in compensatory increase in plasma cholesterol uptake in the liver mediated by an decrease in the number of LDL receptors
A man with chronic heartburn caused by gastric acid reflux is prescribed metoclopramide. Which mechanism is responsible for its pharmacologic effect?
(A) histamine H2 receptor blockade
(B) muscarinic receptor blockade
(C) dopamine D2 receptor blockade
(D) α-adrenoceptor activation
(E) chloride ClC-2 channel activation
Which of the following drugs may cause tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss in case of large intravenous doses?
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
Acetazolamide
Spironolactone
This orally administered inhibitor of active factor X (Stuart factor) is used to prevent and treat deep vein thrombosis. Select the correct drug from the following choices:
Dabigatran
Rivaroxaban
Eptifibatide
Prasugrel
Enoxaparin
Which drug used for the treatment of asthma inhibits 5-lipoxygenase?
(A) theophylline
(B) zileuton
(C) zafirlukast
(D) fluticasone
(E) roflumilast
Which drug inhibits RNA polymerase in Mycobacteria?
(A) rifampin
(B) ethambutol
(C) isoniazid
(D) amikacin
(E) pyrazinamide
Following his third episode of gouty arthritis, a 50-year-old man sees you in the clinic. Each case was successfully treated acutely; however, your patient is interested in trying to prevent future episodes. He is not on regular medications and has a normal physical examination today. Blood work reveals an elevated serum uric acid level and otherwise normal renal function and electrolytes. A 24-hour urine collection for uric acid reveals that he is under-excreting urie acid. Suspecting that this is the cause of his recurrent gout, you place him on probenecid. What is the mechanism of action of probenecid?
Inhibits secretion of organic acids end decreases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net increase in secretion
Activates secretion of organic bases and decreases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net increase in secretion
Inhibits secretion of organic acids and decreases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net increase in reabsorbdtion
Inhibits secretion of organic acids and increases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net increase in secretion
G protein-coupled receptors that activate an inhibitory Ga subunit alter the activity of adenylate cyclase to
(A) increase the coupling of receptor to G protein.
(B) block the ligand from binding.
(C) initiate the conversion of GTP to GDP.
(D) generate intracellular inositol triphosphate.
(E) decrease the production of cAMP.
The fact that the degree of reinforcement for morphine is less than that of heroin is best explained by which one of the following statements?
(A) morphine is a partial agonist
(B) heroin binds more tightly to opioid receptors
(C) morphine is metabolized faster than heroin
(D) morphine is first metabolized to heroin
(E) heroin is distributed more rapidly to the brain
Which drug is recommended for treatment of most persons with latent TB?
(A) rifampin
(B) isoniazid
(C) streptomycin
(D) ethambutol
(E) pyrazinamide
Which of the following drugs is the same as PGI2 (prostacyclin) and is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension?
(A) misoprostol
(B) alprostadil
(C) epoprostenol
(D) treprostinil
(E) travoprost
A patient with essential hypertension requires a drug that reduces both cardiac output and peripheral resistance. Select the most appropriate drug therapy
(A) alfuzosin
(B) carvedilol
(C) betaxolol
(D) phenoxybenzamine
(E) phentolamine
After receiving a low dose of dexamethasone, a patient is found to have a plasma cortisol level of 20 meg/dL the next morning. Which disorder is most lixely in this patient?
(A) congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(B) chronic adrenal insufficiency
(C) 11β-hydroxylase deficiency
(D) Cushing syndrome
(E) pituitary insufficiency
Which of the following statements best explains the observation that morphine is more likely to cause nausea and vomiting in ambulatory patients?
(A) morphine inhibits chemoreceptor trigger zone neurons
(B) morphine sensitizes medulla cough center neurons
Opioids cause sedation, which makes walking more difficult
(D) patients on opioids eat more
(E) opioids increase vestibular sensitivity
Please choose the most correct description of flumazenil.
(A) does not produce withdrawal seizures
(B) has the longest elimination half-life
(C) is not metabolized into an active agent
(D) is also used for the treatment of epilepsy
(E) is a selective benzodiazepine antagonist
A man is given a drug that inhibits the synthesis of norepinephrine. Which response would result from this treatment?
(A) diarrhea
(B) bronchodilation
(C) renin secretion
(D) decreased heart rate
(E) salivation
If a drug exhibits first-order elimination, then
(A) the elimination half-life is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.
(B) the drug is eliminated at a constant rate.
(C) hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes are saturated.
(D) drug clearance will increase if the plasma drug concentration increases
(E) the rate of drug elimination (mg/min) is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.
A type 2 diabetic patient is prescribed metformin. Which adverse effect often occurs when
(A) heart failure
(B) weight gain
(C) diarrhea
(D) lactic acidosis
(E) hypoglycemia
A man with obstructive pulmonary disease requires therapy to prevent anginal attacks. Which drug should be avoided in this patient?
(A) verapamil
(B) felodipine
(C) isosorbide mononitrate
(D) diltiazem
(E) propranolol
In case of ONLY hyperbaric conditions, which one of the following anesthetics provide anesthetic effectiveness?
Nitrous oxide
Halothane
Methoxyflurane
Isoflurane
Enflurane
A boy experiences a moderately severe reaction to a wasp sting. Which method of corticosteroid administration is approoriate for this patient?
A) continuous high-dose therapy for several weeks
(B) continuous low-dose therapy for several weeks
(C) gradually increasing doses over several days
(D) gradually decreasing doses over several days
(E) intermittent every-other-day therapy until symptoms resolve
A woman is placed on fluconazole to treat renal candidiasis. Which pharmacologic property is associated with this drug?
(A) poor oral bioavailability
(B) low cerebrospinal fluid concentrations
(C) primarily excreted in the urine
(D) short elimination half-life
(E) must be given parenterally
Administration of this drug to persons with renal insufficiency can cause hyperkalemia. Select the correct drug from the following choices:
(A) spironolactone
(B) furosemide
(C) hydrochlorothiazide
(D) acetazolamide
(E) mannitol
A71-year-old man is noted to have dilated cardiomyopathy with atrial fibrillation and a rapid ventricular rate. An agent is used to control the ventricular rate, but the cardiac contractility is also affected, placing him in pulmonary edema. Which of the following agents was most likely used?
Verapamil
Amiodarone
Nifedipine
Digoxin
Which drug should be avoided in persons with asthma?
(A) sotalol
(B) diltiazem
(C) flecainide
(D) quinidine
(E) lidocaine
Selegiline, an antidepressant also used for the treatment of Parkinson disease, has which one of the following mechanisms of action?
(A) it is a selective MAO-B inhibitor
(B) it blocks the reuptake of dopamine
(C) it irreversibly binds to COMT
(D) it increases release of dopamine vesicles
(E) it blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors
A man being treated for chlamydial urethritis presents with severe erythema over his upper body after sun exposure. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
(A) azithromycin
(B) clindamycin
(C) doxycycline
(D) erythromycin
(E) mupirocin
Which antimicrobial drugs disrupt the bacterial cell membrane?
(A) trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
(B) polymyxin B and daptomycin
(C) rifaximin and fidaxomicin
(D) ciprofloxacin and moxifloxacin
(E) nitrofurantoin and fosfomycin
Which drug has been demonstrated to increase survival in persons with heart failure?
(A) furosemide
(B) carvedilol
(C) milrinone
(D) digoxin
(E) hydralazine-isosorbide dinitrate
A 70-year-old man is seen in follow-up at your office after he has been hospitalized for a myocardial infarction (MI), He underwent successful angioplasty and is currently asymptomatic. Prior to his MI, he was not on medications. He is not a smoker and is not diabetic. During his hospitalization, he was noted to have persistently elevated blood pressure readings. He had asthma as a child, but has not had any recent wheezing episodes. While in the hospital, he was started on oral metoprolol. What effects do agents such as metoprolol have on the cardiovascular system?
Reduction of sympathetic-stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and cardiac output; lower blood pressure as a result of effects on the heart, renin-angiotensin system, and CNS; increased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time and refractoriness
Reduction of sympathetic-stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and decreases cardiac output; lower blood pressure as aresult of effects on the heart, renin-angiotensin system, and CNS; increased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time and refractoriness
Reduction of sympathetic-stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and cardiac output; lower blood pressure as a result of effects on the heart, decrease renin-angiotensin syetem, and CNS; increased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time and refractoriness
Reduction of sympathetic-stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and cardiac output; lower blood pressure as a resull of effects on the heart, renin-angiotensin system, and CNS; Decreased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time and refractoriness
Which of the following represents the most common side effect of the treatment targeted to inhibit the release of acetylcholine in case of facial muscle spasms?
(A) bradycardia
(B) urinary incontinence
(C) dry mouth
(D) diarrhea
(E) constriction of the pupils
Which drug combination usually provides the most rapid and effective treatment for duodenal ulcer caused by H. Pylori infection?
(A) sucralfate, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin
(B) rabeprazole, bismuth subsalicylate, and tetracycline
(C) famotidine, amoxicillin, and metronidazole
(D) pantoprazole, amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and metronidazole
(E) amoxicillin, clarithromycin, tetracycline, and metronidazole
Which nonnucleoside drug is used to treat systemic acyclovir and ganciclovir-resistant herpesvirus infections, such as CMV esophagitis?
(A) foscarnet
(B) trifluridine
(C) ribavirin
(D) rilpivirine
(E) efavirenz
A 64-year-old woman with a history of two previous myocardial infarctions (Mls) comes to the emergency room with shortness of breath. In the previous 2 weeks, she has developed dyspnea with exertion and swelling of her legs. She sleeps on three pillows because she coughs and gets short of breath if she tries to lie flat. In the emergency department. She is sitting upright, appears to be in moderate respiratory distress, and is tachycardic and hypertensive. She has jugular venous distension to the angle of her jaw. On auscultation of her lungs, wet rales are heard bilaterally. She has pitting edema of both lower legs up to her knees. A chest x-ray confirms the diagnesis of pulmonary edema. She is placed on oxygen and immediately given an IV injection of furosemide. What is the mechanism of action of
Inhibit active NaCl reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, increasing water and electrolyte excretionte excretion
Inhibit active NaCl, PO3- reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, increasing water and electrolyte excretion
Inhibit active NaCl reabsorption in the descending limb of the loop of Henle, increasing water and electrolyte excretion
Inhibit active NaCl reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, increasing water and electrolyte reabsorbtion
Toxic doses of scopolamine would be expected to cause all of the following effects EXCEPT
(A) hallucinations.
(B) bronchospasm.
(C) hyperthermia.
(D) urinary retention.
(E) blurred vision
A progestin is included in regimens for HRT to prevent which of the following adverse effects?
(A) breast cancer
(B) endometrial cancer
(C) myocardial infarction
(D) stroke
(E) elevated cholesterol levels
A71-year-old man is noted to have dilated cardiomyopathy with atrial fibrillation and a rapid ventricular rate. An agent is used to control the ventricular rate, but the cardiac contractility is also affected, placing him in pulmonary edema. Which of the following agents was most likely used?
Verapamil
Nifedipine
Digoxin
Amiodarone
Which of the following agents is contraindicated in a patient with epilepsy?
Bupropion
Venlafaxine
Mirtazapine
Fluoxetine
Aspirin is often used in low doses to prevent platelet aggregation by inhibiting the synthesis of which substance?
(A) leukotriene
(B) prostacyclin (PGI2)
(C) thromboxane A2
(D) arachidonic acid
(E) phospholipase A
A type 2 diabetic patient is prescribed metformin. Which adverse effect often occurs when taking this drug?
(A) heart failure
(B) weight gain
(C) diarrhea
(D) lactic acidosis
(E) hypoglycemia
Clinical antipsychotic potency for "typical" antipsychotics correlates with actions at which receptor?
(A) dopamine D2 receptors
(B) α2-adrenergic receptors
(C) muscarinic receptors
(D) histamine receptors
(E) serotonin
A woman is placed on an antidysrhythmic drug that dissociates very slowly from ventricular sodium channels. Which electrocardiographic finding results from this property?
(A) prolonged PR interval
(B) shortened PR interval
(C) prolonged QRS duration
(D) prolonged QT interval
(E) sinus bradycardia
Which of the following phrases correctly describes insulin glargine?
(A) it is injected at mealtimes
(B) proline and lysine are transposed in the B chain
(C) aspartate is substituted for proline in the B chain
(D) it is slowly absorbed over 24 hours
(E) it is administered by inhalation
Which hormone receptors are blocked by drospirenone?
(A) aldosterone and androgen receptors
(B) estrogen and progestin receptors
(C) only progestin receptors
(D) only gonadotropin receptors
(E) only glucocorticoid receptors
All of the following are the classes of antidepressant medications, except:
(A) SNRIs
(B) TCAs
(C) MAOIs
(D) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
(E) SSRIs
A 62-year-old man is being managed in the intensive care unit following a large anterior wall MI. He has been appropriately managed with oxygen, aspirin, nitrates, and B-adrenergic receptor blockers but has developed recurrent episodes of ventricular tachycardia. During these episodes he remains conscious but feels dizzy, and he becomes diaphoretic and hypotensive. He is given an IV bolus of lidocaine and started on an IV lidocaine infusion, To what class of antiarrhythmic does lidocaine belong and What is lidacaine’s mechanism of action?
Lb, Specific Ne+ channel blocker, reduces the rate of phase O depolarization, primarily in damaged tissue
La, Specific Na+ channel blocker, increases the rate of phase O depolarization, primarily in damaged tissue
Specific Na+ channel blocker, increases the rate of phase 0 depolarization, primarily in damaged tissue and indicated during post MI patients
Ib, Specific Na+ channel blocker, reduces the rate of phase O depolarization, primarily in damaged tissue and strickly contraindicated in post MI patients
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding digoxin?
Decreased mortality in patients with congestive heart failure with normal sinus rhythm
Increases vagal tone and decreases AV node conduction
Useful in the treatment of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
Lengthens the action potential and increases the refractoriness of the heart
A patient takes nateglinide before each meal. Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
(A) closing of potassium channels
(B) slowed gastric emptying
(C) inhibition of α-glucosidase
(D) inhibition of DPP-4
(E) insertion of glucose transporters in cell membranes
A man with chronic heartburn caused by gastric acid reflux is prescribed metoclopramide. Which mechanism is responsible for its pharmacologic effect?
(A) histamine H2 receptor blockade
(B) muscarinic receptor blockade
(C) dopamine D2 receptor blockade
(D) α-adrenoceptor activation
(E) chloride ClC-2 channel activation
A man with episodic severe hypertension is found to have markedly elevated levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolites in his urine and needs a long-acting drug to lower blood pressure before surgery. Select the most appropriate drug therapy from the following
(A) metoprolol
(B) doxazosin
(C) propranolol
(D) phenoxybenzamine
(E) atenolol
A 16-year-old female comes to the physician’s office because of menstrual cramps. She had menarche at age 13. Her menses lasts for 4-5 days, and she has 28-day cycles. For the first 2-3 days of her menses she states that she has very bad cramping. The cramps have occurred since menarche and seem to have worsened in the past year. They have been so bad at times that she has missed school and has not been able to participate in her afterschool sports. She has been taking acetaminophen and over-the-counter “menstrual cramp” pills without adequate relief. She has no significant medical history, takes na medications regularly, and is not sexually active. Her examination is normal. You assess the problem as primary dysmenorrhea and prescribe diclofenac to be used on an as-needed basis, What are the therapeutic effects of nonstercidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
Anti-inflammatory, antiepilectic,and antipyretic
Anti-inflammiatory, analgesic, and antiphycothic
Anti-diabthetic, analgesic; and antipyretic
Anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic
Which one of the following agents is considered the drug of choice for initial treatment of generalized absence seizure (petit mal) in children?
(A) ethosuximide
(B) zonisamide
(C) levetiracetam
(D) carbamazepine
(E) phenytoin
Which of the following most likely describes the cardiac arrhythmias as the effect of the initial doses of levodopa (I-dopa)?
(A) direct action on cardiac dopamine receptors
(B) decreased release of catecholamines
(C) direct β-adrenoceptor stimulation
(D) increased release of dopamine
A man with HIV infection is taking darunavir, a protease inhibitor, Which adverse effect is associated with this class of drugs?
(A) anemia
(B) pancreatitis
(C) neuropsychiatric reactions
(D) peripheral neuropathy
(E) elevated triglyceride and cholesterol levels
A 72-year-old man presents to the office for routine follow-up. He is under treatment for hypertension and congestive heart failure with enalapril and a diuretic. His blood pressure is under acceptable control and he has no symptoms of heart failure at present. He does complain that he has been coughing frequently in the past few months. History and examination reveal no other cause of a chronic cough, so you decide to discontinue his enalapril and start him on losartan. Mechanism of action of enalapril:
Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin | to angiotensin Il, this also stimulates the angiotensin ll-stimulated release of aldosterone. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors also impair the inactivation of bradykinin
Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin Il to angiotensin |, this also inhibits the angiotensin ll-stimulated release of aldosterone. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors also impair the inactivation of bradykinin
Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin | to angiotensin Il, this also inhibits the angiotensin Il-stimulated release of aldosterone Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors also impair the inactivation of bradykinin
Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of methimazale?
(A) hypotension and bradycardia
(B) thromboembolism
(C) pruritic rash
(D) liver failure
(E) agranulocytosis
Octreotide is correctly described by which of the following statements?
(A) It is identical to naturally occurring somatostatin.
(B) It is used to treat growth hormone deficiency.
(C) It is administered orally.
(D) It is a more potent inhibitor of growth hormone secretion than is somatostatin.
Which of the following is the most accurate statement?
{2-Adrenoceptor agonist agents are used to prolong local anesthesia
A@-Adrenoceptor agonists are used to treat bronchospasm
B-Adrenoceptor agonists are used to reduce surcical bleeding
A-Adrenoceptor sympathomimetic agonists are used to reduce mucous membrane congestion
A 19-year-old man is brought to the physician's office by his very concerned mother. He has been kicked out of the dormitory at college for his “bizarre” behavior. He has accused several fellow students and professors of spying on him for the CIA. He stopped attending his classes and spends all of his time watching TV because the announcers are sending him secret messages on how to save the world. He has stopped bathing and will only change his clothes once a week. In your office you find him to be disheveled, quiet, and unemational. The only spontaneous statement he makes is when he asks why his mother brought him to the office of “another government spy.” His physical examination and blood tests are normal. A drug screen is negative. You diagnose him with acute psychosis secondary to schizophrenia, admit him to the psychiatric unit of the hospital, and start him on haloperidol. Describe mechanism of therapeutic action of haloperidol
Antagonist activity at postjunctional dopamine D2-receptors in the mesolimbic and mesocortical areas of the brain
Antagonist activity at postjunctional dopamine D1-receptors in the mesolimbic and mesocortical areas of the brain
Antagonist activity at prejunctional dopamine 02-receptors in the mesolimbic and mesocortical areas of the brain
Antagonist activity at postjunctional dopamine D2-receptors in the mesolimbic and mesocortical areas of the medulla
Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for antiparkinsonism agents?
(A) direct dopamine agonist
(B) precursor loading
(C) dopamine metabolism inhibition
(D) cholinergic receptor blocking
(E) selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
Acetaminophen is a potent analgesic and antipyretic NSAID but differs from other agents in that it has no antiinflammatory action. Which of the following reasons explains this unique aspect of acetaminophen?
(A) the distribution of acetaminophen does not reach peripheral sites of inflammation
(B) acetaminophen is not an inhibitor of the COX enzyme
(C) antiinflammatory doses of acetaminophen are too high and toxic
(D) it is selective for a newly discovered isozyme of COX
(E) acetaminophen undergoes significant first-pass metabolism
Which property is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?
(A) discrete activation of specific organs
(B) long preganglionic neurons
(C) action terminated by cholinesterase
(D) inhibits the enteric nervous system
(E) activated by increased arterial blood pressure
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of disulfiram as the effective treatment of alcohol (ethanol) dependence?
(A) increasing plasma ethanol concentration
(B) preventing the conversion of ethanol to methanol in the liver
(C) increasing circulating acetaldehyde concentrations
(D) blocking the action of ethanol at its cell membrane receptor
(E) stabilizing the cell membrane to prevent ethanol disruption
A man is given a drug to reduce thyroid gland size and vascularity before surgical thyroidectomy. Which mechanism is responsible for its use in this setting?
(A) inhibition of the sodium/iodide symporter
(B) inhibition of thyroperoxidase
(C) inhibition of TSH secretion
(D) inhibition of thyroid hormone release
(E) destruction of thyroid tissue
Which drug produces transient muscle fasciculations followed by muscle paralysis that is not reversed by neostigmine?
(A) rocuronium
(B) hyoscyamine
(C) cisatracurium
(D) succinylcholine
(E) pancuronium
Which of the following molecular processes best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
 
(B) blocking glutamate excitation
(C) blocking the inactivation of sodium ion channels
(D) binding to opioid receptors to produce sedation
(A) potentiating the effect of GABA at chloride ion channels
(E) potentiating the action of the inhibitory amino acid, glycine
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