PPL Knowledge Test 1
(Refer to Figure 36.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway (6, 29, or 32) is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
Runway 6.
Runway 29.
Runway 32.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
To control yaw.
To control over-banking tendency.
To control roll.
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
2,300 pounds.
3,400 pounds.
4,600 pounds.
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
When at low angles of attack.
When at high angles of attack.
When at high airspeeds.
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
be difficult to stall.
require less effort to control.
not spin.
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
maintain, an altitude at or above the glide slope.
remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport?
Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
Make all turns to the left.
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
(Refer to figure 21, area 2.) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Garrison Airport (D05)?
Transmit intentions on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
'TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET.'
'TEN POINT FIVE.'
'ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.'
(Refer to figure 71, area 4 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln-Harder (LHM), refer to
notes on the border of the chart.
the Chart Summary.
the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
(Refer to Figure 65.) From the cockpit, marking G confirms the aircraft to be
on a taxiway, about to enter the runway zone.
on a runway, about to clear.
near an instrument approach clearance zone.
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
The excessive consumption of alcohol.
An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
When at sea level under standard conditions.
When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.
(Refer to figure 8) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?
1,200-foot increase.
1,400-foot increase.
1,650-foot increase.
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon..
Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
Transport, restricted, provisional.
To operate under BasicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding
48 cal months.
24 cal months
1 year
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower..
An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
6 calendar months.
12 calendar months.
24 calendar months..
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight..
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only..
Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots..
230 knots.
250 knots.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure..
An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
The elevation of the departure area..
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
hold position.
exercise extreme caution.
not land; the airport is unsafe.
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
500 feet.
1,000 feet.
1,500 feet.
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
In which controlled airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
Class D airspace, Class E airspace designated for Federal Airways.
All Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
All Class G airspace.
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
1349.6 hours.
1359.6 hours.
1369.6 hours.
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
After one-half the battery's useful life.
During each annual and 100-hour inspection.
Every 24 calendar months.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
60.
70.
90.
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?
Owner or operator.
Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
Repair station.
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
Vle
Vlo
Vfe
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
Altimeter.
Vertical speed.
Airspeed.
(Refer to figure 3) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet?
1, 2, and 3.
1 and 2 only.
1 only.
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
the actual altitude above sea level.
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
(Refer to figure 21.) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Minot Intl. (area 1)
Minot Intl. (area 1) and Garrison (area 2).
Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) and Garrison (area 2).
(Refer to figure 23.) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
outer boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.
airports with special traffic patterns.
visual checkpoints to identify position for initial call- up prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
(Refer to figure 24, area 2.) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
823 feet MSL.
1,013 feet MSL.
1,403 feet MSL.
(Refer to figure 25, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is
122.95 MHz.
126.0 MHz.
133.4 MHz.
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request
an abbreviated briefing.
a standard briefing.
an outlook briefing.
(Refer to figure 14) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
090° at 21 MPH and -9 °F.
080° at 21 knots and -7 °C.
090° at 21 knots and -9 °C.
(Refer to figure 15) In the TAF for KMEM, what does 'SHRA' stand for?
Rain showers.
A shift in wind direction is expected.
A significant change in precipitation is possible.
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe-icing?
Convective SIGMET.
SIGMET.
AIRMET.
(Refer to figure 27) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4- hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
2030Z.
2130Z.
2230Z.
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
water vapor condenses.
water vapor is present.
relative humidity reaches 100 percent.
What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming from below.
Cooling from below.
Decrease in water vapor.
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F?
4,000 feet MSL.
5,000 feet MSL.
6,000 feet MSL.
The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means
a cloud with extensive vertical development.
a rain cloud.
a middle cloud containing ice pellets.
(Refer to figure 34) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.
WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
Empty weight 1,350 51.5
Pilot and front passenger 380 ---
Fuel 48 gal 288 —
Oil, 8 qt — —
78.2, normal category.
79.2, normal category.
80.4, utility category.
(Refer to figures 32 and 33) Upon landing, the front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front passenger position. What effect does this have on the CG if the airplane weighed 2,690 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,260 just prior to the passenger transfer?
The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches..
The weight changes, but the CG is not affected.
The CG moves forward approximately 0.1 inch.
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