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A colorful and engaging illustration of pediatric dentistry concepts, featuring a friendly dentist, a young child in a dental chair, dental tools, and animated representations of healthy teeth and gums.

Pediatric Dentistry Knowledge Quiz

Test your knowledge in pediatric dentistry with this comprehensive quiz designed for dental professionals, students, and educators. Covering essential concepts ranging from behavioral management to oral manifestations of various conditions, this quiz will challenge your understanding and reinforce your expertise.

92 carefully crafted questions
Multiple-choice format for easier assessment
Ideal for certification preparation and educational purposes

92 Questions23 MinutesCreated by CaringTooth99

Radiographs of a preschool child with _ will show obliteration of the pulp chambers with secondary dentin, a characteristic finding.

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

C. Fluorosis

D. Enamel hypoplasia

_ is a condition produced when two tooth buds are joined together during development and appear as a macrodont.

A. Concresence

B. Gemination

C. Fusion

D. Dens in dente

Excessive fluoride levels in drinking water are associated with fluorosis. Fluoride levels in excess of _ begin to pose a risk for fluorosis.

A. One part per million

B. Two parts per million

C. Three parts per million

D. Four parts per million

is the bedrock strategy on which all of pediatric dental behavior management rests.

A. Tell-Show-Do (TSD)

B. Positive Reinforcement

C. Distraction

D. Nonverbal communication

When treating a child who is obviously afraid, the dentist should:

A. Use restraint

B. Use the hand-over-mouth technique (HOME)

C. Permit the child to express his fear

D. Avoid all reference to the child's fear

The process of shaping a patient's behavior through appropriately timed feedback is called:

A. Tell-Show-Do (TSD)

B. Voice control

C. Positive Reinforcement

D. Distraction

E. Nonverbal communication

All of the following procedures have proved beneficial in treating an intellectually disabled child EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Speak slowly and in very simple terms

B. Listen carefully to the patient

C. Schedule long appointments

D. Ask the patient of there are any questions about anything you will be doing

The management of a child who must undergo dental extractions is based on which of the following factors?

A. The age and maturity of the child

B. The past medical and dental experiences that might influence the behavior of the child

C. The physical status of the child

D. The length of time and amount of manipulation necessary to accomplish the surgery

E. AOTA

All of the following instances may make the use of rubber dam impractical EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?

A. The presence of fixed orthodontic appliances

B. A patient with congested nasal passages or other nasal obstruction

C. A very nervous or anxious patient

D. A recently erupted tooth that will not retain a clamp

Which of the following is often caused by a strain of coxsackie A virus?

A. Herpangina

B. Scarlet fever

C. Diphtheria

D. Mumps

All of the following statements concerning necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. It is also called Vincent infection, Vincent angina, or "trench mouth"

B. It is a gingival disease characterized by painful hyperemic gingiva, punched-out erosions of the interproximal papilla, covered by a gray pseudomembrane with an accompanying fetid odor

C. Risks include poor oral hygiene, poor nutrition, smoking, and emotional stress

D. It usually affects children

E. Fusiforns and spirochetes, as well as Prevotella intermedia, have been implicated in the etiology of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)

A Class II cleft palate involves what structures?

A. Hard and soft palates

B. Soft palate only

C. Alveolar process only

D. Hard palate only

Ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by: Select all that apply (4).

A. Sparse hair

B. Lack of sweat glands

C. Oversized crowns

D. Elongated roots

E. Normal mental status

F. An enlarged mandible

G. Absence of teeth

All of the following are characteristics of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis as seen in the picture below EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Caused by HPV-2

B. Disease is self-limited lasting 10-14 days

C. Generally affects children under the age of three with prodromal symptoms

D. Can occur on keratinized and unkeratinized mucosa

Cellulitis in a child is easier to treat than in adults. The most common causative organisms of cellulitis are group A streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second is false

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

Historically, the incidence of dental decay in individuals with Down syndrome has been reported to be _. The rate of periodontal disease in these persons has been reported to be _.

A. Extremely high, extremely low

B. Relatively the same as the general population, extremely high

C. Extremely low, relatively the same as the general population

D. Extremely low, extremely high

Type 1 diabetes is the most common form seen and children and exhibits all of the following subjective characteristics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Polyuria

B. Polyphagia

C. Polydipsia

D. Polymyalgia

The hemangioma is usually treated by conservative surgical excision. Hemangiomas are more common in boys than girls.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second is false

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

Which of the following is very common in a child with achondroplasia?

A. Class I malocclusion

B. Class Il malocclusion

C. Class Ill malocclusion

D. None of the above

Which of the following are oral manifestations of Apert syndrome? Select all that apply (6).

A. Class Il malocclusion

B. Severely delayed eruption

C. Trapezoidal-shaped mouth

D. Severe crowding of the teeth

E. Ectopic eruption

F. Shovel-shaped incisors

G. Byzantine-arch shaped palate

Which of the following are true concerning a young epileptic who has a grand malseizure in the dental office? Select all that apply (1).

A. It is generally fatal

B. It is best treated by injecting insulin

C. They generally recover if restrained from self-injury and oxygen is maintained

D. It can be prevented with antibiotics

The most common of the craniofacial malformations is:

A. Bifid tongue

B. Macroglossia

C. Cleft palate and cleft lip

D. Anodontia

Which type of leukemia is referred to as the "leukemia of childhood"?

A. Acute myeloid leukemia

B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia

C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

An important diagnostic finding in congenital porphyria is the presence of red-brown teeth in both the deciduous and permanent dentition. The oral mucosa is rarely affected in porphyrias.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second is false

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

In baby bottle decay, the teeth typically are decayed in a specific order. Place the teeth in the correct order A. Maxillary posterior teeth B. Mandibular posterior teeth C. Maxillary anterior teeth D. Mandibular anterior teeth

ADBC

CABD

CADB

BDCA

All of the following statements concerning recurrent aphthous ulcers (canker sores) are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. They occur in women more than men

B. They may occur at any age, but usually first appear between the ages of 10 and 40years

C. The cause is a Coxsackie virus

D. They appear to be associated with stress

E. They usually appear on nonkeratinized oral mucosa, including the inner surface of the cheeks and lips, tongue, soft palate, and the base of the gingiva.

Cretinism is a deficiency disease caused by the congenital absence of;

A. Insulin

B. Thyroxine

C. Calcitonin

D. Epinephrine

In children with cystic fibrosis, halitosis is common. In children with cystic fibrosis, dental development is normal but eruption is delayed.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second is false

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

The oral lesions are pathognomonic of:

A. Smallpox (variola)

B. Gennan measles (rubella)

C. Mumps

D. Measles (rubeola)

The principal characteristics of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder are all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Inattention

B. Intellectually disabled

C. Hyperactivity

D. Impulsivity

Which of the following is the most common cause of endocarditis following a dental procedure?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Viridans streptococci

C. Staphylococci

D. Bacteroides

A pediatric patient presents to your office for a restoration on #T MO. The patient weighs 40kg. What is the maximum amount of 2% lidocaine 1:100,000 that you can safely administer to this patient?

A. 3.8 carpules

B. 4.2 carpules

C. 4.8 carpules

D. 5.2 carpules

_ alone or in combination with other drugs, is the most common sedative agent used in pediatric dentistry.

A. Pentobarbital

B. Secobarbital

C. Paraldehyde

D. Chloral hydrate

A 15-year-old female has lived in a nonfluoridated area all of her life. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this young lady when she moves to a community where the drinking water naturally contains 6 ppm of fluoride?

A. 50% reduction in dental caries

B. Moderate dental fluorosis

C. An increase in the amount of fluoride stored in her bones

D. Gastrointestinal problems

Fluoridation has several mechanisms for caries inhibition.Included are enhancement of remineralization of enamel, inhibition of glycolysis, and the incorporation of fluoride into the enamel hydroxyapatite crystal.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second is false

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

Which of the following fluoride therapies should be recommended to a 13-year-old child who is prone to decay and lives in a community where the water is fluoridated at an appropriate level. Select all that apply (3).

A. Professionally applied fluoride every 6 months

B. Fluoride toothpaste

C. Dietary fluoride supplements

D. A low concentration fluoride mouth rinse

E. A high concentration fluoride mouth rinse

All of the acidulated phosphate fluoride products should be applied for in order to achieve the best results.

A. 1 minute

B. 2 minutes

C. 3 minutes

D. 4 minutes

Before fluoride applications:

A. Vaseline is applied to protect any teeth with sealants

B. The teeth should be dry to prevent dilution of the fluoride concentration

C. All bacterial plaque must be removed to prevent interference with fluoride uptake by the enamel surface

D. Patients should be placed in a semi-supine position

You examine a 10-year-old boy in your practice and determine that he has multiple carious lesions. The family resides in a rural area and drinks well water. What is your advice regarding fluoride supplementation?

A. Prescribe fluoride tablets for the patient immediately

B. Arrange for a sample of the patient's well water to be sent to a laboratory to assess the amount of naturally occurring fluoride in the water. Then prescribe the appropriate dose of fluoride supplementation in lieu of the fluoride that is occurring in the water, if any.

C. The child is too old for fluoride supplementation to be of benefit, so you do not recommend it

D. None of the above

Clinical studies demonstrate that acidulated phosphate fluoride is most effective at what ph?

A. 10

B. 2.5

C. 3.2

D. 5.5

The lethal dose of fluoride for a typical 3-year-old child is approximately:

A. 100 mg

B. 200 mg

C. 350 mg

D. 500 mg

What is the most effective method of reducing the dental caries problem in the general population?

A. School water fluoridation

B. Fluoridation of the communal water supply

C. Fluoride rinses at home

D. Frequent dental visits

The most common congenitally missing primary tooth is the:

A. Primary mandibular canine

B. Primary maxillary lateral incisor

C. Primary maxillary canine

D. Primary mandibular first molar

A 15-month-old child would normally have all of the following teeth erupted EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Primary lateral incisors and canines

B. Primary canines and first molars

C. Primary canines and second molars

D. Primary central and lateral incisors

E. Primary first and second molars

All of the following are true when comparing the normal child periodontium to the normal adult periodontium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. There is greater blood and lymph supply

B. The alveolar crest is flatter

C. The cementum is thinner and less dense than that of the adult

D. Gingival pocket depths are larger

E. Attached gingiva is much wider

The permanent maxillary lateral incisor typically erupts when a child is about:

A. 5-6 years old

B. 8-9 years old

C. 11-12 years old

D. 13-14 years old

The crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between:

A. 1.5 to 2 months in utero

B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero

C. 7.5 to 9 months in utero

D. 10 to 12 months in utero

Nonsuccedaneous teeth include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. The permanent maxillary and mandibular premolars

B. The permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars

C. The permanent maxillary and mandibular second molars

D. The permanent maxillary and mandibular third molars

All of the following syndromes demonstrate microdontia EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Ectodermal dysplasia (hypohidrotic type)

B. Hemifacial microsomia

C. Down syndrome

D. Otodental syndrome

The deciduous dental formula of man is:

A. I 1/1 C 1/1 B 1/1 M 2/2=10 x 2=20

B. I 2/2 C 1/1 M 2/2=10 x 2=20

C. I 2/2 C 1/1 M 3/3=12 x 2=24

D. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3=16 x 2=32

The permanent dental formula of man is:

A. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 3/3 M 2/2=16 x 2=32

B. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 1/1 M 3/3=14 x 2=28

C. I 2/2 C 1/1 B 2/2 M 3/3=16 x 2=32

D. I 2/2 C 1/1 M 3/3 - 12x2=12x2=24

When do the permanent teeth begin to calcify?

A. At birth

B. I month

C. 4 months

D. 1 year

The primary maxillary first molars are usually exfoliated when a child is about:

A. 6-7 years old

B. 7-8 years old

C. 9-11 years old

D. 12-14 years old

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. The primary teeth are darker in color than the permanent teeth

B. For primary teeth, the interproximal contacts are broader and flatter than permanent teeth

C. The pulp cavities are proportionately larger in the primary teeth

D. In general, the crowns of primary teeth are more bulbous and constricted than their permanent counterpart

E. The pulp horns of primary teeth are closer to the surface of the tooth

F. The crown surfaces of all primary teeth are much smoother than the permanent teeth (in other words, there is less evidence of pits and grooves)

G. Primary teeth have thinner enamel

The primary mandibular canine typically erupts when a child is about:

A. 6-10 months old

B. 10-16 months old

C. 17-23 months old

D. 23-31 months old

The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in any one quadrant is:

A. 5-10 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars

B. 2-5 mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars

C. 2-5 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them -premolars

D. 5-10 mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them - premolars

The most frequently taken radiographic views in pediatric dentistry are:

A. Molar bitewing radiographs

B. Mandibular molar periapical radiographs

C. Mandibular anterior periapical radiographs

D. Maxillary molar periapical radiographs

Which of the following is the most common primary tooth to be retained due to a congenitally missing permanent successor?

A. Maxillary second molars

B. Maxillary first molars

C. Mandibular second molars

D. Mandibular first molars

At the age of 6 years, a child's head is what percentage of its adult size?

A. 30%

B. 50%

C. 80%

D. 90%

The first deciduous (primary) tooth to erupt is the:

A. Mandibular central incisor

B. Mandibular first molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Maxillary first molar

Ordinarily, a 6-year-old child would have what teeth clinically visible in the mouth?

A. all (20) primary teeth and 4 permanent first molars

B. 18 primary teeth and 2 permanent mandibular central incisors

C. 18 primary teeth, 2 permanent mandibular central incisors, and 4 permanent first molars

When attempting a MO Class Il amalgam preparation and filling on a primary tooth, you encounter a very large mesial marginal ridge that resembles a cusp. You also notice a transverse ridge from mesiolingual to mesiobuccal cusp that is rather large. This tooth proves difficult to restore, which tooth is it?

A. Mandibular first molar

B. Maxillary first molar

C. Mandibular second molar

D. Maxillary second molar

A neophyte dental student, only about 2 weeks into the program, gets scared when her 10-year-old cousin gets hit in the face and loses a tooth. She calls you and says that her cousin lost his permanent mandibular first molar. Once she tells you more about the root morphology of the tooth, you realize it is a primary tooth and the child simply lost his:

A. Primary mandibular canine

B. Primary mandibular first molar

C. Primary mandibular second molar

D. Primary maxillary first molar

Which tooth is the only anterior tooth in either dentition to have a shorter incisocervical height than the mesiodistal width?

A. The primary mandibular central incisor

B. The primary mandibular lateral incisor

C. The primary maxillary lateral incisor

D. The primary maxillary central incisor

Morphologically, the primary maxillary second molar strikingly resembles the:

A. Permanent maxillary third molar

B. Permanent maxillary second molar

C. Permanent maxillary first molar

D. Permanent mandibular second molar

A 10-1/2-year-old patient comes into your office. You are not sure whether his maxillary canines are permanent or primary. Which of the following statements will help you determine whether they are permanent or primary canines?

A. The cusp of the primary maxillary canine is much shorter than the cusp of the permanent maxillarycanine

B. The mesial cusp ridge on the primary maxillary canine is shorter than the distal cusp ridge; this is opposite of all other canines

C. The cusp on the primary maxillary canine is much longer and sharper than the cusp on the permanent maxillary canine

D. The primary maxillary canine is much narrower and longer than the permanent maxillary canine

The occlusal form of the _ varies from that of any tooth in the permanent dentition.

A. The primary mandibular first molar

B. The primary maxillary first molar

C. The primary mandibular second molar

D. The primary maxillary second molar

An 11-year-old child traumatized a permanent maxillary central incisor some time ago. The tooth has never been restored. It is now painful and there is evidence of swelling. A periapical x-ray discloses a pathosis associated with the apex. The suggested treatment is:

A. Pulpotomy

B. Extraction

C. Pulpectomy

D. Observation

E. AOTA

Indirect pulp treatment is a procedure performed in a tooth with:

A. A necrotic pulp

B. A deep carious lesion adjacent to the pulp

C. A periapical radiolucency

D. Pulp tissue that is irreversibly infected due to caries or trauma

A 4-year-old child presents with acute pain associated with a primary mandibular second molar that has a large carious lesion with pulpal involvement. Radiographically, there is periapical pathology on the distal root. The child is very cooperative and is able to tolerate long appointments. What is the preferred choice of therapy for the primary mandibular second molar?

A. Incision and drainage

B. Pulpotomy

C. Primary tooth endodontics (pulpectomy)

E. Extraction

Which treatment is the proper one for a Class Il fracture of a permanent tooth with an immature apex?

A. Pulpectomy

B. Apply calcium hydroxide to exposed dentin and restore tooth with a permanent restoration

C. Pulpotomy

D. Observe

The first indication for a pulpotomy is carious invasion deep enough to cause mechanical exposure of the pulp or inflammation of the coronal pulp. Inflammation or infection of pulp tissue beyond the coronal pulp contraindicates a pulpotomy.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second is false

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

Direct pulp caps (PC) involve direct placement of the capping material on the pulp. _ is the agent that is most frequently used.

A. Cavity varnish

B. Glass Ionomer

C. ZOE

D. Calcium hydroxide

One alternative to the traditional full-strength formocresol pulpotomy is the formocresol pulpotomy using a diluted solution of formocresol. A dilution has been recommended and has been shown to produce good long-term therapeutic results.

A. one-third

B. one-quarter

C. one-fifth

D. three-fifths

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. The occlusal anatomy of primary teeth is not as defined as that of permanent teeth; therefore, amalgam preps can be more conservative

B. Enamel and dentin are thicker in primary teeth; therefore, amalgam preps are deeper

C. The pulpal horns of primary teeth are longer and pointed; therefore, amalgam preps must be conservative to avoid a pulpal exposure

D. Primary molars have an exaggerated cervical bulge that makes matrix adaptation much more difficult

E. The occlusal table is narrower on primary molars

The success rates for mandibular nerve blocks are higher in children than in adults because of the anatomy of less- developed mandibles. The anterioposterior position of the mandibular foramen is about the same or slightly more mesial in children than in adults.

A. Both statements are true

B. Both statements are false

C. The first statement is true, the second is false

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

The bulbous, conically shaped primary teeth also affect the amount of extension of the occlusal outline of the preparation. The general rule is that the occlusal outline is about of the intercuspal distance, between the buccal and lingual cusps, on the occlusal surtace of primary molars.

A. one-half

B. one-third

C. two-thirds

D. three-quarters

Depth cuts can be used as a gauge to help establish the depth of the occlusal reduction when preparing a primary tooth for a stainless steel crown. Approximately of the occlusal surface should be removed.

A. 1 to 1.5 mm

B. 3 to 3.5 mm

C. 4 to 4.5 mm

D. 5 to 5.5 mm

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. Dental decay in primary teeth is an infectious process that can be very painful and can spread and affect the development of the adult teeth

B. Dental decay in primary teeth most often means there will be dental decay in the adult teeth

C. Radiographically, the appearance of primary teeth differs from that of permanent teeth because of the lower organic content found in primary teeth

D. Dental decay in primary teeth tends to progress more rapidly from initial surface demineralization to involvement of the dentin

E. The enamel layer of primary teeth is thinner in all dimensions as compared to permanent teeth

The patient below is a 5-year-old child with acute pain associated with tooth #K. If tooth #K was extracted, what type of space maintainer would be needed?

A. Band and loop space maintainer

B. Distal shoe space maintainer (fixed)

C. Distal shoe space maintainer (removable)

D. Crown and loop space maintainer

What cement is the best choice for cementing a lower fixed bilateral holding arch in place?

A. Zinc phosphate cement

B. Zinc oxide eugenol cement

C. IRM

D. Glass ionomer cement

A mother of a 6-year-old female reports that her daughter has complained of a severe spontaneous pain on the upper right side of her mouth. Your examnation indicates a large lesion on the distal aspect of the primary maxillary right first molar which extends to the pulp. All other maxillary teeth are present and are noncarious. You decide that extraction of the tooth is warranted. What type of space maintainer will you advise for the patient?

A. Maxillary right removable unilateral appliance

B. Maxillary removable bilateral appliance

C. Maxillary right band and loop appliance

D. Distal shoe space maintainer

The photograph shows a maxillary fixed bilateral space maintainer. This type of space maintainer also is known as a:

A. Frankel appliance

B. Nance appliance

C. Herbst appliance

D. Ricketts appliance

The minimum number of lobes from which any tooth may develop is:

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. Five

Listed below are the usual events in the histogenesis of a tooth. Place them in their correct sequence from what happens first to what happens last. A. Deposition of the first layer of dentin B. Differentiation of odontoblasts C. Deposition of the first layer of enamel D. Elongation of the inner enamel epithelial cells of the enamel organ

A. DBCA

B. DBAC

C. CDBA

D. CBDA

A young girl presents to the dentist with yellow, thin, chalky enamel, but sound dentin. The diagnosis is amelogenesis imperfecta. In amelogenesis imperfecta, there is an error in what stage in the life cycle of a tooth?

A. initiation

B. Bud stage

C. Cap stage

D. Bell stage

E. apposition

F. calcification

G. eruption

H. Attrition

Which structure functions to shape the root (or roots) and induce dentin formation in the root area so that it is continuous with the coronal dentin?

A. Dental papilla

B. Dental lamina

C. Dental sac

D. Hertwig sheath

A 3-year-old patient reports to your office with an intrusion injury on teeth #E and#F (see photograph). You inform the child's parents about the current standard of care regarding intruded teeth. Which of the following statements best describes the current understanding regarding intruded primary teeth?

A. The intruded teeth should be extracted

B. The intruded teeth should be left to réerupt

C. The therapeutic approach to intrusion injuries in primary teeth is controversial. Some authors in the field advocate extraction and some advocate leaving the tooth to reerupt

E. The intruded teeth should be gently moved into position with gauze and stabilized by splinting

Discolored primary teeth that are symptom-free and show no radiographic changes are best treated by:

A. No treatment

B. Extirpation of the pulp tissue followed by the placement of ZOE paste in the root canal space

C. Extraction

D. Pulpotomy

An 8-year-old patient presents to your office with a small pulp exposure on the permanent maxillary left central incisor, resulting from a fracture of the tooth. The injury is about 1-hour old. Your clinical and radiographic examinations show there are no other injuries. What is the indicated course of therapy at the time of the emergency?

A. Place a direct pulp cap and proceed with a glass ionomer Band-Aid restoration

B. Begin partial pulpotomy therapy immediately

C. Begin endodontic therapy immediately

D. Schedule the patient for endodontie therapy as soon as possible, once the initial anxiety from the traumatic episode has abated

A 9-year-old patient has fractured the root of the permanent maxillary right lateral incisor. There is no other identifiable injury. The fracture occurred around the middle of the root. What is the indicated course of therapy at this time?

A. Begin endodontic therapy immediately

B. Extract the tooth and the root remnant if possible

C. Do nothing if the tooth seems fairly stable

D. Splint the tooth to the adjacent two or three teeth

What is the most reliable method to determine the pulp vitality in the case of a recently traumatized primary tooth?

A. Radiograph

B. Electric pulp test

C. Thorough intraoral exam

D. There is no reliable method

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