GY Management new

. A 33-year-old nulliparous woman is 29 weeks pregnant. She was referred to the rapid access breast clinic for investigation of a solitary breast lump. Sadly, a biopsy of this lump revealed a carcinoma. After much counselling from the oncologists and her obstetricians a decision is reached on her further treatment. What option below may be available to her?
Tamox ifen
Computed tomograph y (CT) of the abdomen-pelvis
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Bone isoptope scan to look for metastases in order to stage the disease
2. A 38-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes attends the maternal medicine clinic. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 48 and is currently controlling her sugars with insulin. You have a long discussion about her weight .What should not be routinely offered to this woman?
Post-natal thromboprophylaxis
Vitamin C 10 mg once a day
Regular screening for pre-eclampsia
Referral to an obstetric anaesthetist
An active third stage of labour as increased risk of post-partum haemorrhage
3. A 30-year-old nulliparous woman is 29 weeks pregnant. She presented to hospital with a history of a minor, unprovoked painless vaginal bleed of about a teaspoonful. Her anomaly scan at 20 weeks showed a low-lying placenta. Her fetus is moving well and continuous cardiotocography (CTG) is reassuring. What is the most appropriate management?
Allow home since the bleed is small
Admit and give steroids
Admit, intravenous access, observe bleed-free for 48 hours before discharge
Admit, intravenou s access, Group and Save and admini ster steroids if bleeds more
Group and Save, full blood count and allow home; review in clinic in a week
4. A 28-year-old pregnant woman attends accident and emergency with a history of clear vaginal loss. She is 18 weeks pregnant and so far has had no problems. Her past medical history includes a large cone biopsy of the cervix and she is allergic to penicillin. She is worried because the fluid continues to come and there is now some blood. On examination it is apparent that her membranes have rupture What is the most appropriate initial management?
Discharge, ultrasound scan the next day
Offer her a termination as it is not possible for this pregnancy to continue
Admit, infection markers, ultrasound and steroids
Ultrasound, infection markers and observation
Di scharge and explain that she will probably miscarry at home
5. A 32-year-old woman in her second pregnancy presents at 36 weeks gestation with a history of a passing gush of blood stained fluid from the vagina an hour ago, followed by a constant trickle since. The admitting obstetrician reviews her history and weekly antenatal ultrasound scans have shown a placenta praevia. What is the most appropriate management? She has a firm, posterior cervix and has not been experiencing any contractions?
Induction of labour with a synthetic oxytocin drip
Cervical ripening with prostaglandins followed by a synthetic oxytoci n drip
Di gital examination to assess the position of the fetus
Monitor for 24 hours and manage as for preterm pre-labour rupture of membranes (PPROM)
Caesarean delivery
6. A 30-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic asking to be sterilized at the time of her elective caesarean. She is 34 weeks into her second pregnancy having had her first child 2 years ago via an emergency caesarean section. She is not sure that she wants any more children. Furthermore, she does not wish to try for a vaginal birth.She has tried the contraceptive pill in the past but does not like the side effects. You talk to her about other options, including the sterilization she is requesting. What is the best management option for this woman?
Mirena coil
Sterilization at the time of her caesarean section
T380 coil
Implanon
Vasectomy
7. A 41-year-old multipara attends the antenatal clinic at 36 weeks gestation complaining oflower abdominal cramps and fatigue when mobilizing.Clinical examination is unremarkable save for a grade I pansystolic murmur, loudest over the fourth intercostal space in the midaxillary line. What is the most appropriate management?
Urgen t outpatient echocardiogram and referral to a maternal-fetal medicine consultant
Reassurance and a 38-week antenatal clinic follow-up
Admission and work-up for cardiomyopat hy
Post-natal referral to a cardiologist
Admi ssion to the labour ward for induction of labour
8. A 32-year-old HIV positive woman who booked for antenatal care at 28 weeks gestation arrives on the delivery suite at 37 weeks with painful regular contractions and a cervix dilated to 4 em. Ultrasonography confirms a breech singleton pregnancy with a reactive fetal heart rat What is the most appropriate management option?
Await onset of labour, avoid operative delivery, wash the baby at delivery
Induce labour with synthetic prostaglandins
Await onset of labour, but have a low threshold for expediting vaginal delivery using forceps
Await onset of labour, avoid operative delivery, administer steroids to the infant immediately after birth
Caesarean delivery , wash the baby at delivery
9. A 41-year-old multiparous woman attends accident and emergency at 32 weeks gestation complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath. A CTPA demonstrates a large saddle embolus. What is the most appropriate treatment regimen?
Load with warfarin to achieve a target international normalized ratio (INR) of 3.0
Load with warfarin to achieve a target international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
Load with warfarin to achieve a target international normalized ratio (INR) of 20
80 mg enoxaparin twice daily
7.5 mg fondaparinux once daily
10. A 42-year-old para 4 with a dichorionic-diamniotic (DCDA) twin pregnancy at 31 weeks gestation presents to hospital with a painful per virginal bleed of 400 mL. The bleeding seems to be slowing. She is cardiovascularly stable, although having abdominal pains every 10 minutes. There is still a small active bleed on speculum and the cervix appears close Both fetuses have reactive CTGs. She has had no problems antenatally and her 28-week ultrasound revealed both placentas to be well away from the cervix.What is your preferred management plan?
Admit to antenatal ward, ABC, iv access, Group and Save, CTG, steroids, consider expediting delivery
Reassure and ask to come back to clinic next week if there are any problems
Admit for observation, iv access
Admit to labour ward, ABC, iv access, full blood count, cross-match 4 units of blood, CTG, steroids, consider expediting delivery
As bleeding settled and placenta not low, offer admission but arrange follow-up if refused
11. You are the FYI covering the antenatal war A 27-year-old nulliparous woman who is 36 weeks and 5 days pregnant has been admitted to your ward with suspected pre-eclampsia The emergency buzzer goes off in her room. You are the first to attend and find your patient flat on the bed having a generalized seizure what do you do?
Call for help, ABC, nasopharyngeal airway, iv access and wait for fit to stop
Call for help, ABC, protect her airway, prepare for grade 1caesarean section
Call for help, ABC, left lateral tilt, wait for seizure to end , listen in to fetus
Call for help, ABC, left lateral tilt, protect airway, prepare magnesium
Call for help, ABC, protect airway, prepare magnesium, check blood pressure
12. A 19-year-old woman in her first pregnancy is admitted to the labour ward with a 4-hour history of lower abdominal pain -she is 22 weeks pregnant. She has not had any vaginal bleeding but describes a possible history of rupture of her membranes. Her past medical history includes an appendectomy and a large cone biopsy of her cervix. On examination she has palpable lower abdominal tenderness, her cervix is 2 em dilated, she has an offensive vaginal discharge and her temperature is 38.9° Her white cell count is 19.0 * 109/L and her C-reactive protein is 188 mg!L. There are no signs of cardiovascular compromise. How would you manage this woman?
Insert a cervical suture
12 mg betamethasone, atosiban for tocolysis and antibiotics
Head down, bed rest, antibiotic s and await events
Antibiotics and induce labour
Caesarean section
13. A 24-year-old multiparous woman is 23 weeks pregnant. She has not had chicken pox before. She goes to a collect her 3-year-old son from a birthday party and comes into contact with a child with an infective chicken pox infection. She is naturally very anxious. What is the best course of management?
Wait and see if she develops a rash. If she does treat with aciclovir
Test for varicella antibodies and give varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) within the first 24 hours
Test for varicella antibodies and give aciclovir within the first 24 hours
Test for varicella antibodies and give VZIG within 10 days
Reassure that there is no significant risk at present as contact was so brief
14. A 24-year-old type 1diabetic woman has just had her first baby delivered by caesarean section at 35 weeks due to fetal macrosomia and poor blood sugar control. The operation is straightforward with no complications. She has an insulin sliding scale running when you review her on the ward 12hours postoperatively. She has begun to eat and drink. How would you manage her insulin requirements?
Continue the sliding scale for 24 hours
Change her back to her pre-pregnancy insulin and stop the sliding scale
Halve the dose of insulin with each meal for the next 48 hours
Stop the insulin now that baby is delivered
Sliding scale for 48 hours to prevent hyperglycaernia
15. A 24-year-old woman in her first pregnancy has a significantly raised glucose tolerance test at 28 weeks gestation: 4.6 fasting 12.1 at one hour 9.1 at 2 hours (J.Lmol/L). She is given the diagnosis of GDM. You are asked to counsel her about the effects of gestational diabetes on pregnancy. Which of the following is not an additional effect of having GDM?
Shoulder dystocia with a macrosomic fetus
Stillbirth
Neonatal hypoglycaemia
10 per cent chance of developing type 2 diabetes over the next 10 years
Pre-eclampsia
16. A 51-year-old woman in her 12th week of an assisted-conception triplet pregnancy presents to accident and emergency with severe nausea and vomiting. She has mild lower abdominal and back pains. Urine dipstick shows blood -ve, protein -ve, ketones ++++, glucose +. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Intravenou s crystalloids and doxycycline, urgent ultrasound assessment
Discharge with 1week's course of ciprofloxacin
Referral to the medics for investigation of viral gastroneteritis
Intravenous crystalloids, oral antiemetics
Referral to the surgeons for investigation of appendicitis
17. A 31-year-old woman is seen in the termination of pregnancy (TOP) clinic requesting a termination. She is 5 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy. She is otherwise well but does have some lower abdominal pain on the right hand side. On examination her abdomen is soft and non-tender. An ultrasound reveals a small sac in the uterus which might be a pseudosac. What would be your next management step?
Urgent referral to hospital to rule out ectopic pregnan cy
Rescan in 10 days time
Blood test for beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) now and in 48 hours time
Arran ge for her to come in for a medical termination
Arran ge for her to come in for a medical termination
18. A 28-year-old woman with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease is 6 weeks into her third pregnancy. She previously had two terminations. She presents with lower abdominal pain and per virginal bleeding. Her beta hCG is 1650 miU/mL, progesterone 11nmol/1. An ultrasound reveals a small mass in her left fallopian tube with no intrauterine pregnancy seen. There is no free fluid in the Pouch of Douglas. She is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy and is clinically stable but scared of surgery. How would you manage this case?
Laparoscopic salpingectomy
Methotrexate
Laparotomy + salpingectomy
Laparoscopic salpingotomy
Beta hCG in 48 hours
19. A 24-year-old woman attends her GP complaining of deep dyspareunia and post-coital bleeding. She has crampy lower abdominal pain. Of note, she has been treated in the past for gonorrhoea on more than one occasion. On speculum examination there is no visible discharge, but the cervix bleeds easily on contact. What is the most appropriate management?
1M cefotaxime, oral doxycycline and metronidazole
1g oral metronidazole stat
Urgent referral to the gynaecology clinic
Referral to a sexual health clinic
Admission to hospital under the gynaecologists
20. A 24-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant is brought to accident and emergency by ambulance with left iliac fossa pain and a small vaginal bleed. An abdominal ultrasound scan performed at the bedside demonstrates a corneal pregnancy and free fluid in the pelvis. Her observations are: pulse 119 bpm, blood pressure 74/40 mmHg, respiratory rate 24/minute. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Transvaginal ultrasound scan
Serum beta hCG estimation
Diagnostic laparoscopy
Admission to the gynaecology ward and fluid resuscitation
Urine pregnancy test
21. A 32-year-old woman with paranoid schizophrenia is admitted for antenatal assessment at 36 weeks' gestation with twins.Her pregnancy is complicated by intrauterine growth restriction and impaired placental flow. She has had no psychotic symptoms in this pregnancy .Her obstetricians recommend an early caesarean section and argue it is in the best interests of the mother and her babies and to prevent further fetal insult. She has repeatedly said that despite the significant risks, which she understands, she refuses caesarean delivery. What is the most appropriate action?
Detain under Section 5 of the Mental Health Act and deliver by caesarean section
Detain under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act and deliver by caesarean section
Determine that the patient lacks mental capacity and, acting in her best interests, delivery by caesarean section
Determine that the patient lacks mental capacity and, acting in her fetus' best interests, deliver by caesarean section
Encourage volunatary admission to the antenatal and repeatedly explain the benefits of caesarean delivery
22. A 16-year-old Muslim woman attends accident and emergency department with her father. She complains of a 1-day history of left iliac fossa pain and mild vaginal spotting. A urinary beta hCG test is positive. As part of your assessment the patient consents to a vaginal examination. She insists you do not tell her father that she is pregnant, and you consider her to be competent in her judgement. Her father becomes angry and says you must not perform a vaginal examination. How should you proceed?
Perform the examination with a chaperone present and tell the father that it is a routine examination
Perform the examination with a chaperone present and explain that parental consent is not necessary in this situation
Defer performing the examination and document the situation fully
Perform the examination with a chaperone present having assessed the girl's Gillick Competence
Perform the examination with a chaperone present having assessed the girl's Fraser Competence
23. A 32-year-old woman is rushed to accident and emergency as the viction of a high speed vehicle collision. She is 35 weeks pregnant and unconscious.There is evidence of blunt abdominal trauma and she is showing signs of grade 3 hypovolaemic shock. The consultant obstetrician on call immediately attends the resus call and recommends immediate perimortem caesarean delivery in a resuscitative effort to improve the management of her shock. Her husband has been brought into resus by the police, and insists that she would refuse caesarean section under any circumstances. What is the most appropriate management?
Rapid fluid resuscitation until the situation regarding the patient's wishes becomes clear
Replacement of the lost circulating volume with blood product s
Admit to the intensive care unit and begin infusing inotropes to restore the cardiac output
Immediate caesarean delivery
Resucitation and tran sfer to the obstetric theatre for emergency caesarean delivery
24. A 59-year-old woman has been admitted for a hysterectomy for endometrial cancer. She has not yet given her consent and the rest of the team is in theatre. You have performed a hysterectomy before so feel confident in taking her through what will happen and the risks involve The General Medical Council (GMC) says that you should tailor your discussion to all of the options except which of the following?
Their needs, wishes and priorities
Their level of knowledge about, and understanding of, their conditi on, prognosis and the treatment options
The onset of their condition
The complexity of the treatment
The nature and level of risk associated with the investigation
25. A 15-year-old girl attends the gynaecology clinic with her boyfriend, also 15, requesting the morning after pill 4 months after being circumcised during a family trip to Somali She understands your advice and the implications of her decisions to engage in sexual activity, is using condoms regularly and refuses to inform her parents.What is the most appropriate management?
Decline to prescribe the morning after pill and refer the patient back to her GP
Decline to prescribe the morning after pill, and inform her parents that she is having underage sex
Prescribe the morning after pill, give contraceptive advice and recommend that the girl informs her parents
Prescribe the morning after pill , give contraceptive advice and immediately alert your consultant and the Safeguarding Children Team
Prescribe the morning after pill, gi ve contraceptive advice and inform her parents
26. A 34-year-old woman with long-standing menorrhagia attends accident and emergency having fainted at home. She is on the third day of her period, which has been unusually heavy this month. She insists she cannot be pregnant as she has not had sexual intercourse for a year.She is haemodynamically stable. A point-of care test venous full blood count in the emergency department shows: Hb 5.2 gldL, WCC 8.9 .109/L, Hct 0.41% L, MCV 80 fL. What should the initial management be?
Establish large-bore venou s access, commence fluid resuscitation and cross-match four units of packed red cells
Call for senior help, establish large-bore venous access and prepare the patient for urgent laparotomy
Call for senior help, establish large-bore venous access and give group 0 rhesus negative blood
Establi sh large-bore venous access and begin transfusing group-specific blood as soon as it is availabl e
Await the result of a beta hCG test before deciding further management
27. A 66-year-old post-menopausal woman is referred to you urgently by her general practioner (GP). She had been complaining of some lower abdominal pain. An ultrasound arranged by the GP shows a 4 em simple left ovarian cyst. A CA 125 comes back as 29 U/ml (normal 0-35 U/ml). What is the most appropriate management?
Referral to a specialist cancer unit
Laparoscopic ovarian cystectomy
Laparotom y and oophrectomy
Conservative management
Totallaparoscopic hysterectomy and bil ateral salpingo-oophorectomy
28. A 79-year-old woman attends your clinic with some vaginal bleeding. Her last period was 16 years ago. She has had two children both via caesarean section, has a normal smear history and is currently sexually active.On examination the vagina appears mildly atrophic with some raw areas near the cervix. What is the most important next step in her management?
Vagifem ni ghtly for 2 weeks and then twice a week after that
Triple vaginal swabs for sexually transmitted infection
Pelvic ultrasonography
HRT to help the vaginal raw areas
Smear test
29. At laparoscopy a 21-year-old woman is found to have severe endometriosis. There are multiple adhesions and both ovaries are adherent to the pelvic side wall.The sigmoid colon is adherent to a large rectovaginal nodule. The nodule is excised and the bowel and ovaries free Which of the following medications would be appropriate to help treat her endometriosis?
Danazol
Triptorelin
Microgynon 30
Tranexarnic acid
Medroxyprogesterone acetate
30. A 54-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaing of hot flushes and night sweats that are unbearable .Her last mentrual period was 14 months ago.She has had a levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system (Mirena) in situ for 2 years as treatment for extremely heavy periods. What treatment would you consider for her symptoms?
Elleste Solo
Elleste Duet
Vagifem
Oestrogen implants
Evorel
31. A 41-year-old mother of two presents to the GP with long-standin g heavy menstrual bleedin g which has become worse over the past year.She is otherwise well and has no significant medical history.She requests treatment to alleviate the impact of her heavy bleeding on her sociallif Pelvic examination reveals a normal sized uterus. What is the most appropriate first line treatment?
Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
Tranexarnic acid
Mefenamic acid
Tranexamic acid and mefenamk acid combined
Vaginal hysterectomy
32. A 42-year-old woman is seen in the gynaecology clinic. She has been suffering from severe premenstrual symptoms all her life. They have now significantly affected her relationship and her husband is filing for divorce. She comes to your clinic in tears regarding the future of her children. She demands a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingoophrectomy. After taking her history you talk about other less radical treatments.Which management option is inappropriate?
Antidepressants
Vitamin C
Exercise
Cognitive behavioural therapy
Yasmin - combined oral contraceptive pill
33. A 22-year-old woman is seen in accident and emergency with lower abdominal pain and some vaginal discharge. She has had PID once in the past and was treated for it. She is otherwise well. Her temperature is 36.9°c, pulse 90, blood pressure 105/66 mmHg. She is passing good volumes of urine. On clinical examination she has diffuse lower abdominal tenderness. There are no signs of peritonism on examing her abdomen. On vaginal examination she has adnexal tenderness and an offensive discharge. Her CRP is 28 mg!L and her white blood count is 12.2 x109/L. Her pregnancy test is negative. She is reviewed by your senior and is diagnosed with PI What would be an appropriate antibiotic regime?
IV ceftriaxone and IV doxycycline
IV ofloxacin and IV metronidazole
1M ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline and oral metronidazole
IV clindamycin and gentamicin
Oral azithromycin and benzylpeniciilin
34. A 24-year-old woman is in her first pregnancy. She has no significant medical history. She is 40 weeks and 2 days pregnant and has been contracting for 4 days. She is not coping with the pain. She has been given intramuscular pethidine. On examination she is found to be 4 em dilated (fetus in the occipito-posterior position) having been the same 4 hours previously. What analgesia would you recommend?
Remifentanil
Pethidine
Diamorphine
Epidural injection
Entonox
35. A 36-year-old woman is 41 weeks pregnant and is established in spontaneous labour. She is contracting three times every 10 minutes and has ruptured her membranes. She is draining significant meconium stained liquor. Her cervix is 7 em dilate Her midwife has started continuous electronic fetal monitoring using a cardiotocograph (CTG). The baseline rate has been 155, with variability of 2 beats per minute, for the past 60 minutes. There are no accelerations and no decelerations. What is the most appropriate management?
Pathological CTG - needs delivery
Suspicious CTG - needs delivery after fetal blood sampling (FBS)
Suspiciou s CTG -change maternal position, intravenou s fluids and reassess in 20 minutes
Suspicious CTG -perform fetal blood sampling and deliver if abnormal
Normal CTG -do nothing
36. A multiparous woman is admitted to the labour ward with regular painful contractions. On examination she is 9 em dilated with intact membranes and is coping well with labour pains. Forty minutes later her membranes rupture while she is being examined and you see the umbilical cord hanging from her vagina. You inform the woman what has happened. She is now fully dilated, the fetal position is Direct occipitoanterior, and the presenting part is below the ischial spines. What do you do next?
Gain intravenous access, call for help and stop the woman pushing
Perform a grade Iemergency caesarean section
Call for help, perform an episiotomy and commence pushing
Call for help and prepare for an instrumental delivery
Elevate the presenting part by inserting a vaginal pack
37. A 34-year-old para 0 has been admitted for a post-dates induction of labour at 42 weeks. She has received 4 mg PGE2 (prostaglandin) vaginally. After 72 hours her cervix is 5 em dilate Four hours later she is still 5 em dilate On abdominal examination the fetus appears to be a normal size. The fetal head position is left occipito-transverse, and the station is -1. There is no moulding but a mild caput. She is contracting two times in every 10 minutes and has an epidural in situ. You are asked to review and make a management plan. What would be the most appropriate plan?
Re-examine in 4 hours provided the baby is not distressed
Discuss the situation with the patient and offer her a caesarean section
Start an oxytocin infusion and intermittent monitoring and reassess in 4 hours
Insert another 1 mg PGE2 as she is not contracting and reassess in 2 hours
Start an oxytocin infusion, commence continu ous monitoring and reassess within an appropriate time span
38. A 29-year-old woman comes to the labour ward complaining that her baby has not been moving for 72 hours. She is 36 weeks pregnant. Otherwise her pregnancy has been complicated with gestational diabetes for which she is taking insulin. On examination you fail to pick up the fetal heart. You confirm the diagnosis of an intrauterine death. The scan shows no liquor and the baby is transvers After a long discussion you explain that she unfortunately needs to deliver her baby. What is the best way for her to deliver her baby?
Indu ction with oral mifepristone and oral misoprostol
Induction with oral mifepristone and vaginal mi soprostol
Induction with oral misoprostol
Induction with vaginal dinoprostone
Caesarean section
39. A 24-year-old woman with gestational diabetes has been progressing normally through an uncomplicated labour. The midwife delivers the head but it retracts and does not descend any further. What should the midwife do next?
Pull the emergency bell and place the woman in McRobert's position
Place the woman on all fours and instruct her not to push
Pull the emergency bell and commence rotational manoeuvres for shoulder dystocia
Pull the emergency cord and ask your helper to apply fundal pressure
Pull the emergency bell and prepare for emergency caesarean delivery
40. A 29-year-old multiparous woman is in established labour contracting strongly. She is 4 em dilated and had been having regular painful contractions for 6 hours before they stopped abruptly, heralded by a sudden onset of severe, continuous lower abdominal pain. The fetal heart trace is difficult to identify, and the tocometer does not register a signal. What is the most appropriate management?
Fetal assessment with formal ultrasound scan
PBS
Immediate trial of delivery in theatre, with resuscitation facilities on standby
Immediate caesarean delivery
Expedite delivery with synthetic oxytocin infusion
41. A 23-yea r-old woman is in her first labour. Her cervix is 6 em dilated and she is in distress. She is asking for an epidural. Before you call the anaesthetist you check her history.Which of the following would be an absolute contraindication to an epidural?
Previous spinal surgery
Hypoten sion
Mitral stenosis
Multiple sclerosis
Aortic stenosis
42. The obstetric team is alerted to a blue-light trauma call expected in accident and emergency. A 28-year-old woman who is 37 weeks pregnant has been involved in a high-speed road traffic collision. On arrival, where the obstetric team is on standby, her Glasgow Coma Scale score is 5 and she has a tachycardic hypotension. What is the most appropriate management sequence?
Resuscitation according to Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) gu idelines and transfer to the labour ward
Transfer to the CT scanner in preparation for immediate trauma laparotomy
Resuscitation according to ATLS guidelines and fetal assessment with the patient in left lateral tilt
Resu scitation according to ATLS guidelines with immediate caesarean delivery
Resuscitation accordin g to ATLS guidelines and corticosteroids for fetal lung maturation
43. A 31-year-old undergoes a planned caesarean section for a breech presentation. After delivery of her healthy baby there is difficulty in delivering the placenta , as it is adhered to the uterus. She has lost 5 L of blood as a result of the placenta accrete. The placenta has been removed but she is still bleeding and is cardiovascularly unstable despite blood product replacement .What would be the most management to definitively arrest haemorrhage?
Syntocinon infusion
B-Lynch suture
Internal artery ligation
Hysterectomy
Intrauterine balloon
44. An 18-year-old woman has been successfully delivered of a healthy female infant by elective caesarean section for maternal request.Estimated blood loss was 1120 mL. Forty minutes after return to the recovery area, she has a brisk vaginal bleed of around a litre. Her pulse rate is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 95/55 mmHg. What should the immediate management process be?
Rapid fluid resucitation, uterine massage, intravenous ergometrine
Rapid fluid resuscitation , intravenous ergometrine and bimanual compression of the uteru s
Rapid fluid resuscitation, inserti on of an intrauterine balloon catheter device
Rapid fluid resuscitation, uterine massage, oxytocin infusion and vaginal assessment
Rapid fluid resuscitation and administration of direct intramyometrial uterotoni c agents
45. An 89-year-old woman attends the gynaecology clinic with a long history of a dragging sensation in the vagina.Apart from severe aortic stenosis, she has no significant medical history. She leaks fluid when she sneezes or coughs. On examination with a Sims' speculum in the left lateral position, a grade 1uterine prolapse is seen, with an additional cystocoele.What is the most appropriate management?
Vaginal hysterectomy with anterior colporrhapy (cystocoele repair)
Vaginal hysterectomy alone
Tension-free vaginal tape (TVT)
Weight loss and pelvic floor exercises
Twice weekly 0.1 per cent estriol cream and insertion of shelf pessary
46. A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a 6-year history of Incontinence. She has had four children by vaginal deliveries, has a body mass index (BMI) of 35 kglm2 and suffers from hayfever. Initial examination reveals a very small cystocele. A mid-stream urine culture is negative and urodynamic studies show a weakened urethral sphincter. What is the most appropriate first line management?
Fesoterodine 4 mg daily
Weight loss and pelvic ph ysiotherapy
Tension free vaginal tape
Solifenacin 5 mg daily and pelvic physiotherapy
Anterior repair and inserti on of a transobturator tape
47. A 25-year-old woman attends accident and emergency with an exquisitely sore, large swelling of her vagina which she noticed only a couple of days before. It has steadily got much bigger. On examination there is a soft fluctuant mass on the right labia minora which is very tender.What is the most appropriate management?
Marsupialization
Oral ofloxacin and metronidazole
Sebaceous cystectomy
Local 2 per cent clotrima zole (Canestan)
Referral to a vul val clinic
48. A 49-year-old woman presents to a private clinic expressing her desire to become pregnant. She has no past medical history. Initial investigations show that she still has ovarian function, is ovulating and is having regular periods. An ultrasound of her pelvis shows no structural abnormality and an hysterosalpingography demonstrates patent fallopian tubes. Analysis of her partner's semen is normal. Which would not be an appropriate first line management option?
In vitro fertilisation (IVF)
Intracytoplasmic sperm implantation
Intrauterine insemination
Clomiphen e
Egg donation IVF
49. A 42-year-old woman presents to the urogynaecology clinic with a 3-year history of urge incontinence.She has features of an overactive bladder and is desperate to start treatment for her problem as it is affecting her quality of life. She opts for medical treatment. What is the most appropriate first line pharmacological therapeutic?
Darifenacin
Oxybutynin
Fesoterodine
Solifenacin
Oxybutynin dermal patch
50. A 16-year-old girl presents to your surgery with a history of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 70 hours ago. Her last menstrual period was 8 days ago.Her only past medical history of note is that of epilepsy which is well controlled by carbamazepine. She is worried about becoming pregnant, does not want her mother to find out and is in a hurry to get home before suspicions are raise Which of the following options are available to her?
Take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) continuously for the next month
A copper intrauterine device (IUD) should be inserted with prior screening for sexually transmitted infections (STis)
Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg should be given as she is within 72 hours of UPSI
Reassure and tell her to come back when she has made her mind up as ulipri stal can be taken up to 7 days after UPSI
Reassure her that she is in the safe part of her cycle and she should try and use condoms in the future
51. A 28-year-old woman attends her GP clinic for routine cervical screening. Liquid based cytology (LBC) shows mild dyskaryosis. A repeat sample again shows mild dyskaryosis. What is the most appropriate management?
Repeat the LBC smear test in 6 months
Repeat the LBC smear test in 3 month s
Arrange colposcopy at the gynaecology clinic
Knife cone biopsy of the cervix
Large loop excision of the transformation zone
52. A 26-year-old undergoes potassium-titanyl -phosphate (KTP) laser laparoscopic excision of endometriosis. Her postoperative haemoglobin is 8.1 g!dL.Six hours postoperatively she complains of increased umbilical swelling, abdominal pain and shortness of breath and she appears pal A repeat full blood count now shows a haemoglobin count of 6.5 g!dL. What are the most appropriate steps you should take next?
Transfuse one unit of cross-matched packed red cells and await events
Volume replacement with colloids and reassessment of the haemoglobin level
D-dimer and computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Insertion of a large-bore nasogastric tube on free drainage
Transfuse four uni ts of cross-matched packed red cells and return to theatre for further laparoscopy
53. A 54-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 1-year history of bloating, early satiety and occasional crampy pelvic pain. She was diagnosed a year ago with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). A serum CA 125 is 62 IU/mL (normal range <36 IU/mL).What is the most appropriate management?
Pelv ic examination and pipelle biopsy
Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis
Computed tomograph y of the abdomen and pelvis
Urgent referral to the gynaecology clinic under the 2-week rule for suspected cancers
Trial of mebeverine and lifestyle modification
54. A 61-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with a stage 1a endometrial carcinoma.She has had four children, she has mild utero-vaginal prolapse and she has never been operated on. She needs to have surgery.You see her in clinic and talk about the different operations available to her. Which is the most appropriate operation?
Wertheim's hysterectomy
Total abdomin al hysterectomy
Laparoscopic hysterectomy
Subtotal hysterectomy
Posterior exenteration
55. A 65-year-old woman is referred by her GP to the gynaecology clinic with increasing bloating and a raised CA 125level. ACT scan shows an irregular, enlarged left ovary and several well- circumscribed nodular lesions in the liver and on the omentum which are highly suspicious for metastatic ovarian cancer. What is the most appropriate treatment regimen?
Total hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy along with concomitant stereotactic radiotherapy of the liver lesions
Total hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy , omentectomy , aortopelvic lymphaden ectomy
Staging laparotomy and optimal cytoreduction
Palliative care
Total pelvic exenteration
56. A 28-year-old woman attends accident and emergency unable to walk because she is so faint. She has had heavy vaginal bleeding for 4 hours since she engaged in sexual intercourse with a new partner, which she described as 'rough and very painful'. She is still bleeding and cannot tolerate vaginal examination due to the pain. A point-of-care haemoglobin estimation is 6.4 gldL and she is haemodynamically unstable. What is the most appropriate management?
Discharge with oral iron supplementation and follow up in the gynaecology clinic in 2 days
Discharge with oral iron suppl ementation and follow up on the ward in 24 hours
Admit , resuscitate and prepare her for immediate transfer to theatre
Admit to the gynaecology ward, cross-match four units of packed red cells and send a formal full blood count
Admit to the gynaecology ward having packed the vagina
57. A 64-year-old woman with asthma is admitted to the ward prior to an elective vaginal hysterectomy for symptomatic uterine prolapse. Her medications include Seretide (fluticasone/salmeterol500/50) four times daily and oral prednisolone 20 mg twice daily. What is the most important peri-operative consideration?
Steroid cover with 50 mg hydrocortisone intravenously at induction of anaesthesia
Steroid cover with 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenou sly at induction of anaesthesia
Steroid cover with 50 mg hydrocortisone intravenously at induction of anaesthesia and 50 mg 8-hourly for 3 days
Bronchodilator cover with intravenous salbutamol infusion postoperatively
Continue regu lar medications and postoperative review by respiratory physician
58. A 46-year-old woman is returned to the ward from the recovery room following a routine vaginal hysterectomy for heavy period s and prolapse. The estimated blood loss at operation was 200 mL. Two hours later the ward sister becomes concerned that her urine output is low and calls the doctor.Her observations show: pulse 115 bpm, BP 90/62 mmHg, temperature 37.1o What are the most appropriate next steps in her management?
Aggressive fluid resuscitation , alert the operatin g surgeon and prepare for a return to theatre
Fluid challenge, haemoglobin estimation and arterial blood gas
Vaginal examination, haemoglobin estimation and arterial blood gas
Establi sh large-bore intravenous access, alert the operating surgeon and perform arterial blood gas
Establish large-bore intravenous access, alert the operating surgeon and perform a fluid challenge
59. A 20-year-old female attends clinic requesting advice on appropriate contraception. She has a steady relationship and has no desire to start a family. There are no risk factors for venous thrombosis in her family history and she drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol each week. Apart from acne, she is otherwise fit and well. She has a body mass index of 35.5 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/70 mmHg. Which of the following contraceptives would be most appropriate for this patient?
Combined oral contraceptive
Condoms
Depot progesterone
Diaphragm with spermicial gel
Progesterone only pill
60. A 14-year-old girl presents to her health care provider informing him that she has missed two periods and that she has a pregnancy test confirming that she is pregnant. She has a boyfriend who is 15 and has been having protected sex with condoms for six months. She wants a termination but does not want to involve her parents at all. She is counselled regarding abortion and what it entails and is also asked to involve her parents, but she flatly refuses, indicating that she will otherwise get an abortion elsewhere. She understands the risks of having an abortion. What is the most appropriate action for this patient?
Contact her parents and inform them of the situation
Inform her that she can only have an abortion with parental consent
Offer her a referral to an abortion service without parental consent
Offer her referral for an abortion only if she informs her parent s
Refer to social services
61. A 27-year-old female presents with a three hour history of vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and right shoulder tip pain. Her past history includes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a miscarriage and two terminations. A urine pregnancy test is positive. From the following, which is the most appropriate next step of management?
Admit as an emergency under the gynaecologists
Prescribe analgesics and review in 24hours
Refer to a routine antenatal clinic
Take high vaginal swabs and review the patient in light of results in 48 hours
Treat for a possible sexually transmitted disease with clarithromycin and ciprofloxacin
62. A 51-year-old woman attends her GP concerned about her risk of osteoporosis. She had a hysterectomy and oophorectomy because of uterine fibroids one year ago, followed by mild hot flushes which have since resolve Recently her mother broke her hip at the age of 72, and the patient is worried about the possibility of fracture. She asks about medications for osteoporosis. Her body mass index is 17.3 kg/m2 and the subsequent T score is <-2.5. She received Depo­ Provera from the age of 39 to 45, during which time she was amenorrhoea. Breast examination and the remainder of the physical examination are normal. Which of the following would you recommend to her?
Bisphosphonate
Calcium carbonate alone
No treatment
Oestrogen replacement therapy
Vitamin D alone
63. A 22-year-old nulliparous female, who is not sexually active, seeks treatment for menorrhagia and primary dysmenorrhoea, but she does not want a contraceptive treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice, initially?
Depo-provera
Dianette
Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Mefenamic acid
Tranexamic acid
64. A 36-year-old overweight woman presents with irregular heavy bleeding. Her endometrial biopsy reveals cystic hyperplasia but no atypia. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this woman?
Danazol
Dianette
Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Mefenamic acid
Tranexamic acid
65. A 25-year-old woman who has three children and has recently undergone a second termination of pregnancy presents with menorrhagia and seeks appropriate contraceptive advice. Which of the following would be the most appropriate agent for this patient?
Dianette
Mefenamic acid
Mirena intrauterine hormone system
Progesterone only pill
Tranexamic acid
66. A 35-year-old female presents with menorrhagia that has not responded to treatment with non­ steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. One year ago she underwent sterilisation. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for her?
Depo-Provera
Dianette
Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Medroxyprog esterone acetate
Mefenamic acid
67. A 25-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intak She is 10 weeks post-partum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise sweats and anxiety. On examination she is haemodynamicall y stable, and clinically euthyroid. TFTs show the following: Free T4: 33pmol/L (9-23); Free T3: 8 nmol/L (3.5-6); TSH <0.02mUIL (0.5-5). What is the appropriate management ?
Carbimazole 40mg/day
Lugol 's iodine
Propra nolol 20mg tds
Propylthiouracil 50mg/tds
Radioactive iodine therapy
 
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