DES C_Management (9) Prepared : CHILLY

A 52-year-old obese male presents with complaints of episodes of daytime sleepiness that prove irresistible. He reports feeling very refreshed and energized upon awakening from these "naps." A detailed history reveals he also frequently experiences a complete loss of muscle tone, especially when he laughs suddenly or feels a surge of intense emotion. Of particular concern to this patient is that he occasionally finds himself unable to move upon waking, and says he feels temporarily "frozen." His previous diagnoses include gout and external hemorrhoids. His family history is noncontributory. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol and denies recreational drug use. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Treatment of his underlying neurological condition
Weight reduction
Methylphenidate
Benzodiazepines
Melatonin
A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman who was diagnosed with advanced ovarian cancer presents to the clinic to discuss her treatment options. She has had a CT of the abdominalpelvic region that showed extensive disease extending from her left ovary and involving her uterus along with large pelvic nodes. What is the best treatment for this patient?
Surgical debulking with a postsurgical course of pacitaxel and cisplatin
Tumor debulking alone
Radiation therapy to the abdomen and pelvis
Paclitaxel and cisplatin therapy followed by CT surveillance
Chemotherapy and radiation therapy to the pelvis followed by surgery
A 52-year-old woman comes to clinic complaining of a persistent urinary tract infection. She tells you that she has had a burning, almost scalding sensation when she urinates. These symptoms have lasted months. Additionally, she has suffered from intermittent urinary incontinence for the last year, which has tended to correlate with the symptoms. Her primary care physician has treated her with trials of oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and levofloxacin, but she has had no improvement in her symptoms. She denies any fevers, flank pain, discharge, or recent sexual activity, though she notes that she is having severe hot flashes. Physical examination reveals a thin, friable vaginal mucosa with multiple small punctate hemorrhages. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Cefixime and azithromycin
Fluconazole
Metronidazole
Oxybutynin
Estrogen
A 52-year-old woman has terminal cervical cancer with extensive pelvic invasion, and requires strong opiate analgesia to control severe pain. Intermittent nausea and vomiting have precluded the use of oral agents. She was on fentanyl patches but she developed allergic skin reactions to the adhesive and now requests to be switched to parenteral medication. Because of prior chemotherapy treatments she has no available venous access, but she is willing to have her family administer intramuscular injections. Assuming equianalgesic dosages, which of the following would be the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Codeine
Methadone
Morphine sulfate
Meperidine (Demerol)
Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
A 52-year-old woman is experiencing abdominal discomfort after meals as well as early in the morning. There is no weight loss or constitutional symptoms, and she has tried antacids but experienced minimal relief. Upper endoscopy reveals a duodenal ulcer and the biopsy is negative for malignancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Antibiotic therapy
Bismuth citrate therapy
Antibiotic therapy with omeprazole
Long-term acid suppression with omeprazole
6–8 weeks of omeprazole or ranitidine
A 52-year-old woman undergoes a sigmoid resection with primary anastomosis for recurrent diverticulitis. She returns to the emergency room 10 days later with left flank pain and decreased urine output; laboratory examination is significant for a white blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3. She undergoes a CT scan that demonstrates new left hydronephrosis, but no evidence of an intra-abdominal abscess. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
No further management if urinalysis is negative for hematuria
Immediate reexploration
Intravenous antibiotics and repeat CT in 1 week
Administration of intravenous methylene blue
Intravenous pyelogram
A 52-year-old woman with a past medical history of hypertension presents for a lump in her breast. The patient noticed that her left breast was becoming slightly deformed and appears swollen on one side. The patient states that she first realized it when she was getting dressed about a month ago. She thought that it would go away on its own, but it seems to be growing. She is very concerned. BP, 136/82; P, 73 beats/min; R, 18 breaths/min; T, 98.6°F. Review of system: Denies weight loss, pain in the breast, nipple discharge, and erythema of the breast, Denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and abdominal pain. Physical examination: Gen: Awake, alert, oriented x3, no acute distress, Breasts: Asymmetric. Left breast slightly larger than right, with mass on left upper outer quadrant of breast. Thickening of skin in the same area. Palpation significant for a 2 in x 3 in mass in the left upper outer quadrant, nontender, nonmobile. The right breast is unremarkable. Which of the following the next step in the management of this patient?
Wait 3 months and reevaluate the breast
Mastectomy
Lumpectomy
US
Mammography
A 52-year-old woman with cirrhosis presents with increasing abdominal distension. Her treatment regimen was amended three days ago, when furosemide was added to spironolactone and sodium/water restriction. However, her distension persists, and today she is very somnolent and has passed very little urine. Her past medical history is remarkable for chronic hepatitis type B, cirrhosis, encephalopathy, and 2 bleeding episodes from esophageal varices; the bleeding was controlled with sclerotherapy. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.6°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. Abdominal examination shows distension, shifting dullness, and no tenderness; bowel sounds are present. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 11.0 g/L, Leukocyte count 3,500/mm3, Serum sodium 125 mEq/L, Serum potassium 5.5 mEq/L, Chloride 103 mEq/L, Blood urea nitrogen 60 mg/dL, Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL, Prothrombin time 18 sec, Partial thromboplastin time 35 sec. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound of the kidney is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Tapping of ascites
Intravenous pyelography
Careful volume loading and discontinuation of furosemide and spironolactone
Renal biopsy
Increase the dose of furosemide to its maximum
A 53-year-old Caucasian male is admitted to the hospital with a 2-week history of fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance. He says he can hardly climb two flights of stairs without getting dyspneic. He denies palpitations or chest pain. His past medical history is insignificant, and a routine check-up 6 months ago was normal. He admits two episodes of binge drinking during the last month, but says that he 'got it under control'. He is currently not taking any medications. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg and heart rate is 130/min, irregular. Lungs are clear on auscultation. ECG does not reveal P waves. Echocardiography shows significant left ventricular dilation with an ejection fraction of 35% and mitral regurgitation (1+). Which of the following intervention will most likely improve the left ventricular function in this patient?
Preload optimization
Valve surgery
Rate or rhythm control
Inotropic support
Decreasing afterload
A 53-year-old Caucasian woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Recently, she noticed a mild hand tremor while performing some fine tasks, like pouring out the tea. She says that the tremor disappears for a while after drinking a glass of wine. Her past medical history is insignificant. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Physical examination is insignificant. Which of the following medications is the best choice to treat this patient's hypertension?
Enalapril
Propranolol
Verapamil
Amlodipine
Hydrochlorothiazide
A 53-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) as an unrestrained driver. He was found unresponsive at the scene and was intubated by paramedics. He has received 1L of normal saline over the last 20 minutes. His blood pressure in the emergency department is 70/30 mmHg, and his heart rate is 100/min. On physical examination, he responds to strong vocal and tactile stimuli by opening his eyes. His pupils are equal and reactive to light. On exam, there are multiple bruises over the anterior chest and upper abdomen. The trachea is midline. A Swan-Ganz catheter reveals a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 12 mmHg. Rapid infusion of 1L of normal saline increases the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure to 17 mmHg, with a blood pressure of 75/30 mmHg and heart rate of 103/min. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Anticoagulation
Pericardiocentesis
Chest tube
Inotropic agents
High-rate IV fluids
A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency room with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and vomiting. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a thickened sigmoid colon with inflamed diverticula and a 7-cm by 8-cm rim-enhancing fluid collection in the pelvis. After percutaneous drainage and treatment with antibiotics, the pain and fluid collection resolve. He returns as an outpatient to clinic 1 month later. He undergoes a colonoscopy, which demonstrates only diverticula in the sigmoid colon. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
Sigmoid resection with primary anastomosis
Long-term suppressive antibiotic therapy
Sigmoid resection with end colostomy and rectal pouch (Hartmann procedure)
Cystoscopy to evaluate for a fistula
Expectant management with sigmoid resection if symptoms recur
A 53-year-old man with a long respiratory history is admitted to the hospital because of increasing shortness of breath and sputum production. He is started on antibiotics and inhaled bronchodilators and anticholinergic agents. The next day he is found in his room confused and sleepy. A PCO2 determination reveals severe hypercarbia (PCO2 70 mmHg). Which of the following explanations regarding his elevated PCO2 is correct?
May worsen with oxygen administration
Occurs with chronic hypocapnia
Does not occur in obstructive lung disease
Does not occur in restrictive lung disease
Occurs only with CO2 inhalation
A 53-year-old woman presents to the physician's office with a 3-week history of burning, substernal chest pain that usually comes on with exertion and is relieved with rest. The pain does not radiate to the arms or jaw. Her past medical history is significant for bronchial asthma, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension. A diagnosis of stable angina is suspected, and the patient is scheduled for an exercise EKG stress test. Which of her medications should be withheld 24 hours before the test?
Atenolol
Simvastatin
Ramipril
Metformin
Hydrochlorothiazide
A 53-year-old woman presents with bright red blood per rectum, increased abdominal distention, and weight loss. She is found to have a large fungating mass 8 cm from the anal verge. No other lesions are identified. Biopsy is consistent with invasive rectal adenocarcinoma. Endorectal ultrasound shows invasion of the tumor into the perirectal fat and multiple enlarged lymph nodes. CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis do not show any metastases. She would like to preserve her sphincter if possible. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient given her preferences?
Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by low anterior resection
Abdominoperineal resection
Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by transanal excision
Transanal excision followed by adjuvant chemoradiation
Neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by abdominoperineal resection
A 53-year-old woman presents with complaints of weakness, anorexia, malaise, constipation, and back pain. While being evaluated, she becomes somewhat lethargic. Laboratory studies include a normal chest x-ray, serum albumin 3.2 mg/dL, serum calcium 14 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.6 mg/dL, serum chloride 108 mg/dL, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 32 mg/dL, and creatinine 2.0 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Use of mithramycin
Neck exploration and parathyroidectomy
Administration of intravenous phosphorus
Administration of thiazide diuretics
Intravenous normal saline infusion
A 53-year-old woman suffers from long-standing obesity complicated by DJD of the knees, making it difficult for her to exercise. Recently her fasting blood glucose values have been 148 mg/dL and 155 mg/dL; you tell her that she has developed type 2 diabetes. She wonders if diet will allow her to avoid medications. In addition, her daughter also suffers from obesity and has impaired fasting glucose, and the patient wonders about the management of her prediabetes. Which of the following is a correct statement based on the American Diabetes Association 2008 guidelines regarding nutrition recommendations and interventions for diabetes?
Low-carbohydrate diets such as “South Beach” and “Atkins” should be avoided
Outcomes studies show that medical nutrition therapy (MNT) can produce a 1 to 2-point decrease in hemoglobin A1c in type 2 diabetics
Prediabetic patients should be instructed to lose weight and exercise but a referral to a medical nutritionist is not necessary until full-blown diabetes is diagnosed
Very low-calorie diets ( < 800 cal/day) produce weight loss that is usually maintained after the diabetic patient returns to a self-selected diet
Bariatric surgery may be considered for patients with type 2 diabetes and a BMI of > 30 kg/m2
A 53-year-old woman sustains multiple injuries in a head-on automobile collision. She was driving the car and wearing a seat belt. At the moment of impact, she was held in place by the belt, but she hit the windshield with her face, the dashboard with her arms, and the steering wheel with her abdomen. Initial survey reveals closed fractures in both upper extremities, facial lacerations, and abdominal bruises. She is breathing well and is neurologically intact, but she is complaining of severe abdominal pain. Her blood pressure is 75/55 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and central venous pressure is zero. Physical examination of the abdomen shows tenderness, guarding, and rebound tenderness on all quadrants. There is no evidence of pelvic fracture. Which of the following would be the most appropriate study to evaluate her abdominal injuries?
CT scan of the abdomen
Exploratory laparotomy
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Flat and upright x-ray films of the abdomen
Sonogram of the abdomen
A 54-year-old Caucasian female is complaining of hot flashes, vaginal dryness and irritability. Her symptoms started about a year ago, and have been gradually getting worse. She has not had a menstrual period for 12 months. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes daily and drinks a glass of wine occasionally. The cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable. Inspection of her vagina reveals dryness and atrophy. She asks about the risks and benefits of combination hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Which of the following is NOT an appropriate statement to make regarding this treatment modality?
A benefit of combination HRT is a decreased risk of coronary artery disease
There is a reduction in the risk of colon cancer when using combination HRT
A benefit is protection against osteoporosis
There is no increased risk of endometrial cancer with combination HRT
There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism
A 54-year-old female comes to the physician because of involuntary loss of urine. She states "Doc, whenever I laugh, cough, or sneeze, I am unable to hold my urine. I am afraid to leave the house." She has no involuntary loss of urine while sleeping. She had a hysterectomy four years ago. She has had no trauma to her head or back. She has no other medical problems and takes no medications. Physical examination shows a relaxed anterior vaginal wall. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. A cotton-tipped swab test reveals a urethral straining angle of 45 degrees when intra-abdominal pressure is increased. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most beneficial long-term management for this patient?
Bethanechol
Urethropexy
Oral hormone replacement therapy
Alpha blockers
Oxybutynin therapy
A 54-year-old male presents to the office with several months history of hand tremors that are unresponsive to over-the-counter medication. The tremors always become worse when he is in public places. Sometimes, the hand tremors are so bad that he is unable to grasp. He denies trauma, fever, loss of muscle function or any prior stroke. His past medical history is significant for vague abdominal pains, the cause of which was never found. He is given some medication. A month later, he comes back and says, "The tremor is gone, but now I have colicky abdominal pain, confusion, headaches, hallucinations and dizziness." What is the drug that caused this patient's new symptoms? 
Alcohol
Primidone
Diazepam
Lithium
Propranolol
A 54-year-old male with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. His blood pressure is 146/92 mmHg, respiratory rate is 26/min, and oxygen saturation is 87% on room air. Cardiac auscultation over the apex shown S3. Based on the physical findings, which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient?
Intravenous beta-blockers
Pericardiocentesis
Intravenous diuretics
Intravenous diltiazem
Inhaled bronchodilators
A 54-year-old man complains that his eyes are yellow. His bilirubin is elevated. His physical examination is unremarkable. A CT of the abdomen shows a small mass in the head of the pancreas encasing the superior mesenteric artery. Cytology from the ERCP is positive for cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Chemoradiation therapy
Total pancreatectomy with reconstruction of the superior mesenteric artery
Total pancreatectomy
Pancreaticoduodenectomy with reconstruction of the superior mesenteric artery
Pancreaticoduodenectomy
A 54-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with the complaint of upper abdominal fullness and pain. He states that he has lost 2.3-4.6 kg (5-10 lb), but denies other symptoms. Physical examination reveals a firm mass in the epigastric area. Ultrasonography reveals a mass in the gastric antrum. A salivary gland biopsy reveals the pathology shown in the image. Which of the following therapies is expected to be part of his treatment plan?
Antibiotic therapy
Multiagent chemotherapy
Liver transplantation
Gene therapy
Bone marrow transplantation
A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain that radiates to his back. The pain is 9 of 10, increasing in intensity, and constant and is described as a tearing sensation. It began earlier this morning and has progressively gotten worse. He denies shortness of breath but does state he feels dizzy and lightheaded. His vital signs: BP 200/100 mm Hg, P 101 beats/min, afebrile. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Metoprolol
Hydralazine
Amlodipine
Nitroprusside
Labetalol
A 54-year-old man presents with sudden onset of massive, painless, recurrent hematemesis. Upper endoscopy is performed and reveals bleeding from a lesion in the proximal stomach that is characterized as an abnormally large artery surrounded by normal-appearing gastric mucosa. Endoscopic modalities fail to stop the bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management of this patient?
Wedge resection of the lesion with truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
Subtotal gastrectomy
Wedge resection of the lesion with highly selective vagotomy
Wedge resection of the lesion
Wedge resection of the lesion with truncal vagotomy
A 54-year-old man sees a physician complaining of a depressed mood and inability to sleep for the past 3 weeks. He tells the physician that in the past when he has had similar episodes, he was placed on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, which proved effective. The physician diagnoses the patient with major depression and agrees to use an MAOI. Which of the following foods must be completely avoided by this patient while on this medication?
Licorice
Cheddar cheese
Soy sauce
Coffee
Chocolate
A 54-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of a forceful hyperextension injury to her hand after falling down. She complains of pain and swelling of the right wrist and pain associated with movement. She has no other complaints. She has no other medical conditions and takes no medication. Her blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows maximal tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox and pain with radial deviation of the wrist. The rest of the examination shows no other injuries. X-ray imaging of the wrist in multiple views does not reveal a fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Place a thumb spica cast and repeat the radiography in 7- 10 days
Administer analgesics and recommend rest
Obtain an ultrasonogram of the wrist
Administer a steroid injection
Obtain a DEXA scan to screen for osteoporosis
A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician because of hot flashes. She states that her hot flashes have been steadily worsening over the past year since she had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for menometrorrhagia. Pathology from the surgery showed low grade endometrial hyperplasia. She has no medical problems and takes no medications. Her family history is unremarkable except for a strong family history of osteoporosis. She states that the hot flashes have become absolutely debilitating for her and she wants to take something that will give her the best chance of stopping them. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Alprazolam
Oral contraceptive pill
Raloxifene
Clonidine
Estrogen
A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician's office complaining of chronic, bilateral knee and hip pain. The pain increases with activity and is relieved by rest. She denies fever, chills or weight loss. The review of systems is unremarkable. She currently weighs 80 kg (180 lb) and is 146 cm (59 in) tall. Her knee joints are tender but there is no warmth, erythema or effusion. X-rays show narrow joint space, subchondral bone cysts, and bony spurs in both knees. Which of the following interventions would provide the greatest long-term benefit to this patient?
Weight loss
Acetaminophen with codeine
Chondroitin sulfate
Non-steroidal antiinflammatory agents
Muscle strengthening exercise
A 54-year-old woman has a severe ureteral colic. An intravenous pyelogram shows a 7-mm ureteral stone at the ureteropelvic junction. She has a normal coagulation profile. Which of the following would most likely be the best therapy in this case?
Endoscopic retrograde laser vaporization of the stone
Open surgical removal
Endoscopic retrograde basket extraction
Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)
Plenty of fluids and analgesics and await spontaneous passage
A 54-year-old woman presents for a routine physical. She has no complaints. She has no history of hypertension, diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, or heart disease, and she does not use tobacco, alcohol or drugs. On physical examination, her pulse is irregular. There are no murmurs. Her lungs are clear to auscultation and her legs are free of edema. An EKG shows atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute. An echocardiogram is unremarkable except for evidence of atrial fibrillation. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Warfarin to maintain an INR of 2 to 3
Heparin followed by warfarin
Aspirin alone
Warfarin and clopidogrel
Low-molecular weight heparin
A 54-year-old woman presents to her physician for an opinion regarding additional therapy following curative resection of recently diagnosed colon cancer. She underwent uncomplicated sigmoid resection for invasive colon cancer 4 weeks ago. The pathology revealed carcinoma invading into, but not through, the muscularis propria, with one of eight positive mesenteric nodes. There was no evidence of liver metastases at the time of operation. Preoperative chest x-ray and CT scan of the abdomen showed no evidence of distant disease. Preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level was normal. Past history is positive for diabetes and mild hypertension. Examination is unremarkable except for a healing abdominal incision. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding adjuvant therapy?
Adriamycin chemotherapy with methotrexate and Cytoxam
Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) chemotherapy
5-fluorouracil chemotherapy with leucovorin
No therapy indicated
5-fluorouracil chemotherapy
A 54-year-old woman undergoes a laparotomy because of a pelvic mass. At exploratory laparotomy, a unilateral ovarian neoplasm is discovered that is accompanied by a large omental metastasis. Frozen section diagnosis confirms metastatic serous cystadenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative course of action?
Omentectomy, total abdominal hysterectomy, and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Omentectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Excision of the omental metastasis and unilateral oophorectomy
Omentectomy and ovarian cystectomy
Excision of the omental metastasis and ovarian cystectomy
A 55-day-old infant born prematurely at 27 weeks of gestation is shown below. The swelling is not tender, firm, hot, or red, and it does not transil luminate. It seems to resolve with pressure, but returns when the infant cries or strains. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action at this point?
Observe the patient and reassure the patient and family
Order a KUB (plain radiographs of kidney, ureter, and bladder)
Obtain a surgical consultation
Order a barium enema
Perform a needle aspiration
A 55-year-old African-American male comes to the office for a routine follow-up visit. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM), hypertension for the last 5 years, and an acute myocardial infarction 2 years ago. His mother died of a heart attack at the age of 72 years, and his father died in a motor vehicle accident at the age of 42 years. He has no siblings. He is currently on glyburide, captopril and baby aspirin. He is very compliant with his diet and medication. His glycemic control was very good until a few months ago, when he noticed that his blood sugar levels were running high. This morning, his finger stick reading was 200 mg/dL. He weighs 188 lbs and is 5'8" tall. His physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. His blood work done three days ago showed blood urea nitrogen of 14 mg/dL and a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL. His HBA1c one month ago was 8.0%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Add pioglitazone to achieve better glycemic control
Add metformin to achieve better glycemic control
Start the patient on human insulin 70/30
Discontinue captopril since glyburide efficacy is reduced with simultaneous usage of captopril
Discontinue captopril because it is known to produce diabeticogenic state
A 55-year-old Caucasian male is hospitalized after a massive hemorrhage from a duodenal ulcer. The hemorrhage was stopped with endoscopic manipulation. Two litters of Ringer lactate were infused and two units of packed red blood cells (RBC) ordered. Ten minutes after the transfusion of packed RBC had been started; the patient was complaining of tremor and feeling 'chilly.' His temperature is 39.4° C (103° F), blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 24/min. The transfusion was stopped, and acetaminophen was given. Direct antiglobulin test and plasma free hemoglobin level are negative. Urinalysis is normal. The reaction abated three hours after the transfusion had started. Which of the following actions could have prevented the reaction described?
Careful cross matching of the blood
Warming the blood
Using whole blood
Washing cells
Infusing calcium gluconate
A 55-year-old Caucasian male presents to your office for a routine check-up. His past medical history is significant for gout, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. His current medications include enalapril and pravastatin. He does not smoke or consume alcohol. His blood pressure is 156/94 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Physical examination reveals that the patient is moderately overweight (BMI = 27 kg/m2) with increased waist-to-hip ratio. You consider adding hydrochlorothiazide to the treatment regimen to improve the control of hypertension. Which of the following metabolic effects do you expect to emerge after this correction?
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemia
Decreased plasma triglycerides
Decreased LDL cholesterol
Hypocalcemia
A 55-year-old chronic smoker comes to you because of worsening shortness of breath. He says that he has had lung problems due to smoking for the past five years. He has hypertension controlled with hydrochlorothiazide, and type 2 diabetes mellitus, controlled with diet. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 25 years. Physical examination shows bilateral decrease in breath sounds with prolonged expiration and wheezing in both the lung fields. He is hypoxic on room air. An x-ray film of the chest shows hyperinflation of both lung fields. His pulmonary function tests showed moderate obstructive disease, with very little bronchodilator response. The patient is started on bronchodilators. He is being considered for home oxygen therapy. Which of the following is a criterion for initiating home oxygen in such patients? 
Worsening of shortness of breath
Development of pulmonary osteoarthropathy
Patients with SaO2 less than 92% on room air
Patients with PaO2 less than 65 mmHg on room air
Patients with SaO2 less than 88% on room air
A 55-year-old female presents to the office with a one-week history of left-sided ear pain and itchiness. The pain is especially bothersome at night, and is exacerbated by chewing. She denies any hearing loss. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and gout. Current medications include lisinopril, allopurinol, and metformin. She has missed her last two appointments with her primary care physician. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101°F), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, and pulse is 98/min. On examination, there is granulation tissue in the left ear canal with a scant amount of discharge. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
Topical low-strength corticosteroids
Surgical debridement
Ampicillin/sulbactam
Ciprofloxacin
Topical neomycin
A 55-year-old male comes to the physician's office because of fatigue. He denies any other symptoms. His vital signs are stable. Examination shows pallor, massive splenomegaly, and mild hepatomegaly. CBC reveals pancytopenia with striking monocytopenia. His peripheral blood smear is shown below. Bone marrow biopsy shows a dry tap. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's condition?
Cladribine
Bone marrow transplantation
Chlorambucil and prednisone
Cyclophosphamide
CHOP regimen
A 55-year-old male presents to your office with a 6-month history of periodic substernal pressure. He experiences this pressure while walking uphill or climbing two flights of stairs. His past medical history is insignificant. He smokes 1 pack a day and consumes alcohol occasionally. His blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg and heart rate is 75/min. Resting ECG is normal. You suspect stable angina and order an ECG stress test that reveals horizontal ST segment depression in leads II, III, and aVF at submaximal heart rate. What is the best medication to treat this patient's condition?
Thiazide
Amlodipine
Metoprolol
Enalapril
Verapamil
A 55-year-old male with a history of rheumatoid arthritis and rheumatoid lung disease is admitted to the hospital with palpitations. His restrictive lung disease is of moderate severity, requiring use of 2 liters of oxygen by nasal cannula at all times. He has no known history of coronary artery disease, hypertension or diabetes. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg and heart rate is 120 and irregular. EKG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient?
Verapamil
Quinidine
Amiodarone
Metoprolol
Digoxin
A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe retrosternal chest pain that suddenly started a few hours ago. He has been having some chest pain and epigastric burning for the past few days but says that the current pain is different. His other medical problems include nonischemic cardiomyopathy for which he takes furosemide, carvedilol, spironolactone, lisinopril, and potassium chloride. He also has HIV infection but has chosen not to take any medication related to this diagnosis. His temperature is 38.9° C (102° F), blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Examination shows that he is in obvious distress secondary to pain. His lungs are clear to auscultation. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. His ECG is within normal limits. Chest x-ray shows a widened mediastinum and some mediastinal air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Transesophageal echocardiography
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Contrast esophagography
Oral omeprazole and antacids
Aspirin, clopidogrel, and repeat ECG in 30 minutes
A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe right-sided chest pain. His temperature is 37.8°C (100F), blood pressure is 138/88 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min and respirations are 19/min and shallow. Examination shows decreased respiratory movements on the right side of the chest and tenderness on palpation over the right mid-chest. An x-ray film of the chest shows a fracture of the right 6th rib. Which of the following is the most important goal in management of the rib fracture in this patient?
To provide mechanical stabilization to the chest wall
To give prophylactic antibiotics
To use only intravenous colloids
To ensure appropriate analgesia
To achieve a tidal volume of 500 ml with intubation
A 55-year-old man complains of chronic intermittent epigastric pain. A gastroscopy demonstrates a 2-cm prepyloric ulcer. Biopsy of the ulcer yields no malignant tissue. After a 6 week trial of medical therapy, the ulcer is unchanged. Which of the following is the best next step in his management?
Partial gastrectomy with vagotomy and Billroth I reconstruction
Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
Repeat trial of medical therapy
Highly selective vagotomy
Local excision of the ulcer
A 55-year-old man has undergone renal transplantation due to end-stage renal failure. His postoperative course was uncomplicated. He is currently taking prednisone and cyclosporine. He is afebrile and his pulse is 80/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 130/65 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following should be added to his current medication regimen to prevent opportunistic infections?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Itraconazole
Oseltamivir
Azithromycin
Penicillin
A 55-year-old man is brought to the ED by his family. They state that he has been vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. The patient is an alcoholic with cirrhotic liver disease and a history of portal hypertension and esophageal varices. His vitals on arrival are HR 110 beats per minute, BP 80/55 mm Hg, RR 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 99°F. The patient appears pale and is in moderate distress. Which of the following is an inappropriate option in the initial management of a hypotensive patient with a history of known esophageal varices presenting with hematemesis?
Nasogastric (NG) lavage
Gastrointestinal (GI) consult
IV octreotide
Two large-bore IV lines and volume repletion with crystalloid solutions
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube placement
A 55-year-old man presents to his physician with 6 months of mild intermittent pain in both knees. The pain is aggravated by walking and weight bearing, and is partially relieved by rest. He also complains of morning stiffness that lasts for 10 minutes. He does not smoke but drinks alcohol occasionally. His BMI is 25 Kg/m2, temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Examination reveals crepitus over both knee joints. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Antibiotics
Acetaminophen
Colchicine
Oxycodone
Ketorolac
A 55-year-old man presents to the ED at 2:00 AM with left-sided chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He takes a β-blocker for hypertension, a proton pump inhibitor for gastroesophageal reflux disease, and an antilipid agent for high cholesterol. He also took sildenafil the previous night for erectile dysfunction. His BP is 130/70 mmHg and HR is 77 beats per minute. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in this patient? 
Aspirin
Metoprolol
Morphine sulphate
Unfractionated heparin
Nitroglycerin
A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left lower quadrant abdominal pain. The pain has been present for 1 week, but has increased in intensity over the last 2 days associated with nausea, constipation, and dysuria. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals a temperature of 101°F, pulse rate of 95/min, BP of 130/70 mmHg, and normal heart and lung examinations. Abdominal examination reveals fullness and marked tenderness in the left lower quadrant, with voluntary guarding and decreased bowel sounds. Laboratory tests reveal a WBC count of 18,000 with a left shift and 20–50 WBCs in the urinalysis. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a thickened sigmoid colon with pericolonic inflammation. He is admitted to the hospital for treatment. We find this patient has diverticulitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
NPO, IV fluids, evaluation of stool for Clostridium difficile toxin, and either metronidazole or vancomycin antibiotic therapy
NPO, IV fluids, initiation of bowel preparation for elective sigmoid colon resection during the current hospitalization
NPO, IV fluids, and anticoagulation
NPO, IV fluid hydration, followed by immediate sigmoid colon resection
NPO, IV fluids, and IV antibiotics for gram-negative and anaerobic coverage
A 55-year-old man presents to the physician’s office for his yearly physical examination. He is asymptomatic. Past history is pertinent for hypertension. Family history is positive for breast cancer in his mother at age 70 and colon cancer in his father at age 65. His examination is unremarkable except for guiac positive stool. Barium enema shows a sigmoid colon polyp. Colonoscopy confirms a 3-cm pedunculated polyp in the sigmoid colon, and snare polypectomy is performed. Pathologic examination reveals an adenomatous polyp with a focus of invasive carcinoma in the head, with a 4-mm resection margin and no tumor noted in the stalk. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Regular use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
Observation
Surgical resection of sigmoid
CT scan
A 55-year-old man who is extremely obese reports weakness, sweating, tachycardia, confusion, and headache whenever he fasts for more than a few hours. He has prompt relief of symptoms when he eats. Labarotory examination reveals an inappropriately high level of serum insulin during the episodes of fasting. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
Simple excision of the tumor
Chemotherapy and radiation
Total pancreatectomy
Long-acting somatostatin analogue octreotide
Diet modification to include frequent meals
A 55-year-old man with psoriasis has been troubled by long-standing destructive arthritis involving the hands, wrists, shoulders, knees, and ankles. Hand films demonstrate pencil-in-cup deformities. He has been treated with naproxen 500 mg bid, sulfasalazine 1 g bid, prednisone 5 mg qd, and methotrexate 17.5 mg once a week without substantive improvement. Which of the following treatments is most likely to provide long-term benefit?
Higher-dose steroids in the range of 20 mg of prednisone per day
Tumor necrosis factor alpha inhibitor
Addition of folic acid supplementation
Oral cyclosporine
Cyclophosphamide
A 55-year-old man with recent onset of atrial fibrillation presents with a cold, numb, pulseless left lower extremity. He is immediately taken to the operating room for an embolectomy of the left popliteal artery. Which additional procedure should be performed along with the embolectomy?
Fasciotomy of all the compartments in the leg
Application of a posterior splint to the leg
Fasciotomy of the anterior compartment in the leg
Measurement of anterior compartment pressure in the leg
Electromyography (EMG) of the leg
A 55-year-old obese male presents to his physician for a routine annual physical examination. A review of systems is insignificant, except for constipation which has been present for several years. He does not have major medical problems and is not on any prescription or over-the-counter medications. He has smoked one and- a-half packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years. He drinks 4 oz of alcohol daily. Physical examination is unremarkable. As part of the routine screening, a colonoscopy is performed, which shows multiple diverticuli at the sigmoid colon. He is concerned about the diverticulosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's diverticulosis?
Educate about prophylactic antibiotics
Advise him to stop drinking alcohol
Explain his surgical options
Increase dietary fiber intake
Advise him to stop smoking
A 55-year-old patient presents to you after a 3-day hospital stay for gradually increasing shortness of breath and leg swelling while away on a business trip. He was told that he had congestive heart failure, but is asymptomatic now, with normal vital signs and physical examination. An echocardiogram shows an estimated ejection fraction of 38%. The patient likes to keep medications to a minimum. He is currently on aspirin and simvastatin. Which would be the most appropriate additional treatment?
Given his preferences, no other medication is needed unless shortness of breath and swelling recur
Begin spironolactone on a scheduled basis
Begin digoxin plus furosemide on a scheduled basis
Begin an ACE inhibitor and then add a beta-blocker on a scheduled basis
Begin furosemide plus nitroglycerin
A 55-year-old white male presents to the Emergency Room with a four-hour history of chest pain. The pain is substernal and radiates to the left arm. He has a history of hypertension, diabetes, and hypercholesterolemia. His temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 18/min. ECG is recorded and reveals ST segment elevation in the anterior leads and several ventricular premature beats (VPBs). What would the administration of lidocaine to such a patient most likely result in?
Increase in the risk of congestive heart failure
No change in frequency of VPBs
Increase in the risk of asystole
Increase in the risk of ventricular fibrillation
Improvement in overall prognosis
A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of hot flashes. She first noted them about 9 months ago, and since then they have been worsening. She states that the flashes come on at various times throughout the day, but that they are especially intense at night. She had her last menstrual period approximately 5 months ago. Her medical history is significant for a pulmonary embolus at the age of 36 and severe depression. She takes fluoxetine for depression and has no allergies to medications but smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Physical examination is unremarkable, including a normal pelvic examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Clonidine
Glucophage
Tamoxifen
Estrogen only
Estrogen and progesterone
A 55-year-old woman has a palpable 2 cm mass in her left breast. She had found the mass on self-examination, but she says that she had not done self-breast exam for at least six months before she did this one. Physical examination confirms the presence of the lesion, which is hard, movable, and not painful. A mammogram confirms the presence of an opacity in that area, but it does not have any of the radiological characteristics of a breast cancer. The radiologist also does a sonogram, and comes up with the same opinion, I.e., that neither study is suggestive for cancer. Fine needle aspirate is read as negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Repeat physical exam in six months
Repeat both imaging studies in six months
Core biopsies of the mass
MRI of the breast
Reassurance
A 55-year-old woman has been known for years to have mitral valve prolapse. She has now developed exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and atrial fibrillation. She has an apical, high-pitched, holosystolic heart murmur that radiates to the axilla and back. Because of her deterioration, surgery has been recommended. Which of the following is the most appropriate procedure?
Both aortic and mitral valve replacement
Mitral commissurotomy
Mitral valve replacement
Mitral valve annuloplasty
Aortic valve replacement
A 55-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by fi re and rescue personnel because of intractable back and thigh pain for the past 3 hours. Upon presentation she says that the pain is 9 of 10 in severity and localized to her lower back. She lives with her sister, and she has no primary care physician. She denies any complaints aside from fatigue, which she attributes to her multiple jobs and caring for her sister’s children. She has a pulse of 110/min, blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 20/min, and temperature of 37.8C (100.1F). On physical examination she is exquisitely tender over the L2–3 area of the spine. She also has point tenderness over the anterior right thigh. Sensation is intact over the lower extremities bilaterally and she has 5/5 strength in the lower extremities bilaterally. Breast examination reveals a retracted nipple and dimpling of the right breast. What will likely represent the mainstay of treatment for this patient’s symptoms?
Bone marrow transplant
Radiation therapy
Surgery
Hormone replacement therapy
Chemotherapy
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-cm right thyroid mass and palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of one of the lymph nodes demonstrates the presence of calcified clumps of sloughed cells. Which of the following best describes the management of this thyroid disorder?
The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with modified radical neck dissection
The patient should be screened for pancreatic endocrine neoplasms and hypercalcemia
The patient should undergo total thyroidectomy with frozen section intraoperative, with modified radical neck dissection reserved for patients with extra-capsular invasion
The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy
The patient should undergo right thyroid lobectomy followed by iodine 131 (131I) therapies
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of weight loss, abdominal cramps, and intermittent nonbloody diarrhea. On examination, her abdomen is mildly distended and there is a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant. Stool cultures yield normal fecal flora. CT scan with oral contrast demonstrates an inflammatory mass in the right lower quadrant, with thickening of the terminal ileum and ileocecal valve.Initial management should include which of the following?
Nutritional supplementation and systemic steroids
Laparotomy
Antibiotics and IV fluids
Antispasmodics
Lactose-free diet
A 55-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing painless mass on the right side of the neck. A fine-needle aspiration of the nodule shows a well-differentiated papillary carcinoma. A complete neck ultrasound demonstrates a 1-cm nodule in the right thyroid without masses in the contralateral lobe or lymph node metastasis in the central and lateral neck compartments. With regards to this patient, which of the following is associated with a poor prognosis?
Age
Lymph node status
Grade of tumor
Size of tumor
Sex
A 55-year-old woman who has end-stage liver disease is referred to a hepatologist for evaluation. Which of the following would prevent her from being a transplantation candidate?
Development of hepatorenal syndrome requiring hemodialysis
A 4-cm hepatocellular carcinoma in the right lobe of the liver
Two 2-cm hepatocellular carcinomas (HCCs) in the right lobe of the liver
Use of alcohol 3 months ago
History of breast cancer 5 years ago with no evidence of disease currently
A 55-year-old-woman presents to the physician’s office for evaluation of mammographic findings on a screening mammogram. She denies any breast masses, nipple discharge, pain, or skin changes. Past history is pertinent for insulin-dependent diabetes. Family history is positive for postmenopausal breast cancer in her mother. She has a normal breast examination and no axillary adenopathy. A mediolateral oblique (MLO) view of the right breast is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Lumpectomy, radiation therapy, and sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy
Observation, with repeat mammogram in 6–12 months
Ultrasound
Biopsy
Total mastectomy
A 56-year-old chronic alcoholic has a 1-year history of ascites. He is admitted with a 2-day history of diffuse abdominal pain and fever. Examination reveals scleral icterus, spider angiomas, a distended abdomen with shifting dullness, and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Paracentesis reveals slightly cloudy ascitic fluid with an ascitic fluid PMN cell count of 1000/μL. Which of the following statements about treatment is true?
Treatment with multiple antibiotics is required because polymicrobial infection is common
After treatment of this acute episode, a recurrent episode of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis would be unlikely
Repeated paracenteses are required to assess the response to antibiotic treatment
The addition of albumin to antibiotic therapy improves survival
Antibiotic therapy is unnecessary if the ascitic fluid culture is negative for bacteria
A 56-year-old male is admitted to the ICU for the management of hepatic encephalopathy. He is a known alcoholic. He is started on oral neomycin, lactulose, and a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. His blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), and respirations are 18/min. His labs reveal the following: Hb 10.2 g/dl, WBC 7,400/cmm, Hct 27%, Platelets 4 2,000/mm3, PT 18 sec, INR 2.02, PTT 31 sec. He has no evidence of active bleeding. Which of the following should be administered to this patient at this time?
Fresh frozen plasma
Vitamin K
Platelets
Packed RBC
Cryoprecipitate
A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and occasional palpitations. He has a 20-year history of diabetes mellitus and takes daily insulin therapy. He receives hemodialysis three times a week for end-stage renal disease. He was recently started on erythropoietin therapy for anemia (his pretreatment hemoglobin was 8.0 mg/dl). Physical examination at this visit reveals pale conjunctiva. Repeat laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 9.2 mg/dl, MCV 77 fl, MCHC 30 g/dl, WBC count 7,000/mm3, Platelets 150,000/mm3, Hemoglobin A1c 7.5%, ESR 15 mm/hr. Which of the following is likely to be helpful in improving this patient's symptoms?
Higher erythropoietin dose
Splenectomy
Folic acid supplementation
Iron supplementation
Tighter blood glucose control
A 56-year-old man develops oliguria three days after having a kidney transplantation. His postoperative course was uncomplicated. His blood pressure is 160/100 mm Hg and heart rate is 90/min. Palpation of the transplant reveals mild tenderness. Laboratory studies show: Serum sodium 145 mEq/L, Serum potassium 5.5 mEq/L, Serum calcium 8.6 mg/dl, Serum creatinine 3.2 mg/dl, BUN 30 mg/dl. His serum cyclosporine level is normal. Renal ultrasonography does not detect dilatation of the calyces. Biopsy of the transplant shows heavy lymphocyte infiltration and vascular involvement with swelling of the intima. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Give IV steroids
Prepare for surgery
Administer IV diuretics
Order ureterography
Decrease the dose of cyclosporine
A 56-year-old man presents with hypertension and peripheral edema. He is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. Family history reveals that his father and a brother have kidney disease. His father was on hemo-dialysis before his death at age 68 of a stroke. Physical examination reveals BP 174/96 mm Hg and AV nicking on funduscopic examination. He has a soft S4 gallop. Bilateral flank masses measuring 16 cm in length are palpable. Urinalysis shows 15 to 20 RBC/hpf and trace protein but is otherwise normal; his serum creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL. Which is the most likely long-term complication of his condition?
Biliary obstruction owing to cystic disease of the pancreas
Dementia
Malignancy
Ruptured cerebral aneurysm
End-stage renal disease requiring dialysis or transplantation
A 56-year-old morbidly obese man twisted his ankle five days ago and has been bed-ridden since. Today he presents to the emergency department with acute-onset shortness of breath and chest tightness. His past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus, hypertension, right knee osteoarthritis, and a deep venous thrombosis. His current medications are lisinopril, metoprolol, and metformin. His blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 110/min. A CT scan of the chest with contrast is consistent with pulmonary thromboembolism. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Start warfarin now and continue for at least 6 months
Start heparin now and continue for 3-4 weeks
Start heparin and warfarin now, and stop heparin in 5-6 days
Start both heparin and warfarin now, and stop heparin in 1-2 days
Start heparin now, and in 5-6 days stop heparin and start warfarin
A 56-year-old white male is being evaluated for having isolated IgG elevation. The level of serum IgG is 2400 (Normal is 700 to 1500), while the levels of the other paraproteins are within normal limits. The patient was previously admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia, which resolved completely with levofloxacin. His other laboratory test results are as follows: Hemoglobin 13.0 g/dl, Serum Ca 8.0 mg/dl, BUN 18 mg/dl, Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 2% of plasma lesions. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Autologus bone marrow transplantation
Melphalan and prednisolone
Combination chemotherapy
Interferon
Reassurance and regular follow-up
A 56-year-old white male presents to his primary care physician for follow-up evaluation of high blood pressure noted on each of three prior visits over a period of 6 months (systolic blood pressure ranging 140-145, diastolic blood pressure ranging 90-96 mmHg). He has smoked a pack of cigarettes per day for the past 20 years and takes 5-6 drinks of alcohol daily. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. There is no family history of diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, hyperlipidemia or hypertension. On physical examination today, his blood pressure is 146/97 mmHg and pulse is 80/min. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following nonpharmacologic interventions would be expected to have the greatest impact on his high blood pressure?
Decreased consumption of animal protein
Increased calcium consumption
Decreased alcohol intake
Increased consumption of complex carbohydrates
Smoking cessation
A 56-year-old white male presents with dyspnea for the last 3 months. His dyspnea was initially exertional but it has worsened progressively and now he is breathless even at rest. He denies any chest pain or ankle swelling. He has been smoking one-pack/day cigarettes for the last 30 years and has been drinking alcohol heavily for the last 10 years. He is not taking any medication. His mother died of breast cancer at 57. His vitals are, PR 86/min, BP 113/76mmHg; Temperature 37.1°C (98.9°F); RR 13/min. On auscultation of his precordium an S3 is heard, but there are no murmurs. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral basal crepitations. Chest x-ray shows marked cardiac silhouette enlargement and pulmonary venous congestion. EKG shows non-specific ST-T wave changes. Echocardiography shows a dilated left ventricle and systolic dysfunction (EF of 25-30%). CBC shows hematocrit of 32%, WBC count of 6,000/microl, and platelet count of 60,000/microl. Peripheral blood smear shows MCV of 101 fl. LFTs show AST of 180U/L and AL T of 66 U/L. The findings of cardiac catheterization and coronary angiography are not compatible with the diagnosis of ischemic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following measures is most likely to reverse his heart failure? 
Cessation of cigarette smoking
Use of digoxin
Use of ACE inhibitors
Reduced salt intake
Abstinence from alcohol
A 56-year-old woman has nonspecific complaints that include an abnormal sensation when swallowing. An esophagram is obtained. Which of the following is most likely to require surgical correction?
Schatzki ring of distal esophagus
Esophageal web
Traction diverticulum of esophagus
Large sliding esophageal hiatal hernia
Paraesophageal hiatal hernia
A 56-year-old woman is undergoing a cadaveric renal transplant. After revascularization of the transplanted kidney, the transplanted renal parenchyma becomes swollen and blue. The surgeon suspects hyperacute rejection. What is the treatment of choice for this patient?
Intravenous steroids and cyclosporine
Catheter-directed anticoagulation into the renal artery
Intravenous steroids
There is no therapy for hyperacute rejection
Systemic anticoagulation
A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine checkup. She states that she was recently hospitalized for surgery and was told she had some metal placed in a large blood vessel to prevent blood clots from moving to her lungs. An abdominal x-ray is shown here. Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for placement of this device?
Recurrent pulmonary embolus despite adequate anticoagulation therapy
Pulmonary embolus in a patient with metastatic carcinoma
DVT in a patient with patient with metastatic carcinoma
Pulmonary embolus due to DVT of the lower extremity that occurs 2 weeks postoperatively
Axillary vein thrombosis
A 56-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic for a routine visit. On physical examination a 1-cm nodule is palpated in her thyroid. Her physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Her heart rate is 70/min and regular, blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Which of the following is a poor prognostic indicator for the thyroid nodule?
Female gender
Slow growth of nodule
Patient age of 56 years
Hoarseness
Palpitations
A 56-year-old woman was recently started on medication for high blood pressure. At her next office visit her hypertension is under good control, but she now complains of “feeling strange” since she started the medication. On further questioning, she reports feeling chest tightness several times over the past 2 weeks, and has also noticed pain in her elbows and knees. Her blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg (146/82 mmHg on last visit), heart rate is 102/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Her examination is notable for several erythematous plaques on the malar distribution of the face, arms, and upper torso. What medication was she most likely started on during her last visit?
Verapamil
Captopril
Furosemide
Hydralazine
Metoprolol
A 56-year-old woman with cirrhosis presents with a 2-week history of increasing abdominal distension. She has mild encephalopathy and esophageal varices without bleeding. Her cirrhosis is due to chronic hepatitis type B. She has a past history of ascites treated successfully with conservative management. She is currently on sodium, water and protein restriction, maximal doses of spironolactone and furosemide, and lactulose. Her temperature is 36.6°C (97.9°F), blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 30/min. She has a flapping tremor and labored breathing. Abdominal examination shows marked abdominal distension. An x-ray film of the chest is unremarkable. Abdominal ultrasound shows peritoneal fluid and splenomegaly, liver hyperechogenicity and nodularity, and portal vein width of 16 mm; no masses are evident. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's ascites?
Side-to-side porto-caval shunt (non-selective shunt)
Distal spleno-renal shunt (selective shunt)
Tapping of some amount of ascitic fluid
Peritonea-jugular shunt
Intravenous furosemide therapy
A 57-year-old Caucasian man presents complaining of "feeling overwhelmed by life." He has felt depressed for the past six months, and states that he has difficulty focusing on daily activities. His sleep is poor and he wakes frequently at night. Further inquiry reveals that he is a Vietnam War veteran and that he experiences flashbacks and nightmares about his combat experiences. He notes that the flashbacks began prior to his feelings of depression. He avoids watching war movies and refuses to discuss with anyone his time spent in Vietnam. This is his first visit to a psychiatrist and he asks to be started on some medication. Which of the following should be avoided in this patient?
Lorazepam
Cognitive therapy
Paroxetine
Exposure therapy
Nortriptyline
A 57-year-old female with a past medical history of bronchial asthma presents to the physician's office for evaluation of high blood pressure. On her previous two visits, her blood pressure has been 154/88 mmHg and 150/90 mmHg. Her blood pressure during this visit is 150/90 mmHg. She denies headaches and has no complaints. She uses fluticasone and albuterol inhalers for her chronic persistent asthma. She denies smoking or alcohol intake, and has no known drug allergies. Her family history is significant for myocardial infarction in both her mother and father. Exercise and a low salt diet have not improved her hypertension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's hypertension?
Prescribe propranolol
Obtain an echocardiogram
Prescribe hydrochlorothiazide
Prescribe enalapril
Discontinue asthma medications
A 57-year-old G3P3 woman presents to her gynecologist with complaints of vaginal pruritus and increased vaginal discharge. The patient has no history of gynecologic surgery or sexually transmitted diseases; she is not currently sexually active. A bimanual examination and Pap smear are performed. The Pap smear is positive for malignant squamous cells. Follow up colposcopy shows no cervical lesions, but a small lesion is noted on the lower vagina. Biopsy of this lesion confirms the diagnosis of vaginal squamous cell cancer, while cross-sectional imaging excludes invasion of surrounding tissues. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?
Surgical excision and radiation therapy
Chemotherapy
Surgical excision and chemotherapy
Surgical excision
Radiation therapy
A 57-year-old male comes to your office in the middle of January. He complains of a 4-day history of a nonproductive cough and coryza. He also has vague muscle aches and a mild headache. He denies any shortness of breath or chest pain. His past medical history is significant for hyperlipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance. He takes aspirin and simvastatin 40 mg at bedtime. He has no known drug allergies. His medical records show that he did not show up for his scheduled annual influenza vaccine this year. His temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Physical examination shows conjunctival redness and an erythematous oropharynx. The tympanic membranes are clear. The heart sounds are audible with no added murmurs, rubs or gallops. His breath sounds are vesicular in quality and equal bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Advise bed rest and symptomatic treatment with acetaminophen
Empiric trial of oral antibiotics
Write a prescription for amantidine
Write a prescription for oseltamivir
Administer influenza vaccination now
A 57-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident and was immediately brought to the Emergency Room. He suffered minor head and neck injury, but was found to have a broken tibia. He underwent repair of the tibial fracture the following day. Five days later, he suddenly develops tachycardia and is tachypneic. He complains of increasing chest discomfort and has a syncopal episode. His blood pressure is 80/55 mmHg, pulse is 130/min, and respirations are 24/min. Pulse oximetry showed 82% on room air. Stat echocardiogram reveals obstruction in the main pulmonary artery. Which of the following choices is the most appropriate course of action?
Fibrinolytic therapy
Heparin infusion
A CT scan of the lung
Embolectomy
Inferior vena cava filter
A 57-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine checkup. He complains of right-sided leg cramps accompanied by fatigue while walking. He also complains of occasional right thigh pain. He denies chest pain, syncope, nausea, and abdominal pain. His sexual performance has decreased over the past 1 year. His other medical problems include stage 3 chronic kidney disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, gout, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. His blood pressure is 144/92 mm Hg, pulse is 67/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. Peripheral pulses are bilaterally palpable. There is a small ulcer at the base of the right great toe. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is 1.0 (normal: 1.0 - 1.3). His laboratory values are significant for a serum creatinine level of 2.2 mg/dl and an HbA1c level of 7.5% but otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's leg pain?
Tight glucose control and follow-up in 3 months
Treatment for diabetic neuropathy
CT angiography of the lower extremities
Exercise testing with repeat ABI
Aspirin, cilostazol, and verapamil
A 57-year-old man is undergoing a femoral-popliteal bypass of his right lower extremity because of severe peripheral vascular disease. This patient has a longstanding history of claudication and shortness of breath. He had a myocardial infarction 3 years ago and has had progressive limitation of his exercise capacity because of his peripheral vascular disease. He has not had any risk stratification after his infarction. Two weeks ago, he underwent a lower extremity arterial study that showed severe diffuse disease of his right leg arterial system. The patient is brought to the operating room, and, during the procedure, his right lower extremity is made bloodless by application of a thigh tourniquet for 1.5 hours. The surgeons complete their bypass and are preparing to restore blood flow. Which of the following is an expected consequence of this maneuver?
Increase in venous return
Sinus bradycardia
Increase in cardiac output
Increase in preload
Decrease in blood pressure
A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening substernal chest pain occurring over the past 20 minutes. He has a medical history significant for a 2-packper- day smoking history, gout, obesity, hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, osteoarthritis of both knees, inflammatory bowel disease, and recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus that is well controlled on oral antiglycemics (haemoglobin A1c of 7.8%). On physical examination he is in moderate distress, diaphoretic, and nauseous. His temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 142/85 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 22/min. He tests positive for MI by serial cardiac enzymes. He is started on the appropriate therapy and is ready for discharge the following evening. What is the number one preventive measure this patient can take to decrease his immediate risk for a second MI?
Lower his blood sugar levels to achieve a hemoglobin A1c level < 7%
Lower his blood pressure to the 120/80 mm Hg range
Decrease the amount of cholesterol in his diet
Exercise three times a week
Quit smoking
A 57-year-old menopausal patient presents to your office for evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding. She is morbidly obese and has chronic hypertension and adult onset diabetes. An endometrial sampling done in the office shows complex endometrial hyperplasia with atypia, and a pelvic ultrasound done at the hospital demonstrates multiple, large uterine fibroids. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
Oral contraceptives
Oral progesterone
Uterine artery embolization
Myomectomy
Total abdominal hysterectomy
A 57-year-old previously alcoholic man with a history of chronic pancreatitis presents with hematemesis. Endoscopy reveals isolated gastric varices in the absence of esophageal varices. His liver function tests are normal and he has no stigmata of end-stage liver disease. Ultrasound examination demonstrates normal portal flow but a thrombosed splenic vein. He undergoes banding, which is initially successful, but he subsequently rebleeds during the same hospitalization. Attempts tocontrol the bleeding endoscopically are unsuccessful. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? 
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
Placement of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
Splenectomy
Surgical mesocaval shunt
Surgical portocaval shunt
A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician's office for evaluation of vaginal dryness, burning and dyspareunia. She also has dysuria and increased urinary frequency. The symptoms have been present for several months but have intensified recently. She has tried over-the-counter lubricants with little relief. Her last menstrual period was seven years ago. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension and pravastatin for hypercholesterolemia. Physical examination shows scarce pubic hair and reduced elasticity and turgor of the vulvar skin. Pale, dry and smooth vaginal epithelium is noted. Urine dipstick is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
High-potency corticosteroid cream
Metronidazole for one week
Vaginal estrogen replacement
Discontinue hydrochlorothiazide
Ciprofloxacin for one week
A 57-year-old woman develops bony metastases 1 year after right modified radical mastectomy for breast cancer. The tumor was estrogen receptor-negative, progesterone receptor-negative and Her-2/neu positive. Which of the following agents is indicated for treatment of her metastatic disease?
Monoclonal antibody (Trastuzumab)
5-fluorouracil
Aromatase inhibitor (Anastrozole)
Selective estrogen receptor modulator (Raloxifene)
Antiestrogen (Tamoxifen)
A 57-year-old woman presents with adenocarcinoma of the right colon. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates an elevation of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) to 123ng/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate use of CEA testing in patients with colorectal cancer?
To monitor for preoperative metastatic disease
To monitor for postoperative recurrence
To determine which patients should receive neoadjuvant therapy
To determine which patients should receive adjuvant therapy
As a screening test for colorectal cancer
A 57-year-old woman sees blood on the toilet paper. Her doctor notes the presence of an excoriated bleeding 2.8-cm mass at the anus. Biopsy confirms the clinical suspicion of anal cancer. In planning the management of a 2.8-cm epidermoid carcinoma of the anus, which of the following is the best initial management strategy?
Combined radiation therapy and chemotherapy
Local radiation therapy
Systemic chemotherapy
Wide local resection with bilateral inguinal node dissection
Abdominoperineal resection
A 58-year-old alcoholic is admitted with diagnosis of decompensated liver cirrhosis. The lab panel is shown below on the day of admission and 3 days later. Which of the following best explains the acid-base status change in this patient?
Acute renal failure
Right lower lobe atelectasis
Opioid medication use
Loop diuretic therapy
Bowel ischemia
A 58-year-old asymptomatic male is found to have elevated levels of serum alkaline phosphate. His serum calcium and phosphate levels are normal. He denies any bone pain or deformity. His liver function tests are normal. The urinary hydroxyproline levels are increased. Nuclear bone scan reveals an increased uptake in the right scapula. Plain radiography confirms Paget's disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? 
No treatment is indicated at this stage
A CT scan of lung
Treatment with calcium and vitamin D
Treatment with nasal calcitonin
Treatment with bisphosphonates
A 58-year-old man comes to the physician and complains of "problems with erection." He has recurrent and persistently painful erections. His other medical problems include ulcerative colitis, kidney stones, insomnia, depression, hypertension, drug-induced diabetes, obesity and hypercholesterolemia. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. He takes prednisone, mesalamine, insulin, 6-mercaptopurine, simvastatin, glyburide, enalapril, trazodone, and fluoxetine. He has no known drug allergies. His vital signs are stable. The general physical examination is unremarkable. Avoidance of which of the following medications could have prevented his condition?
Fluoxetine
Enalapril
Glyburide
Simvastatin
Trazodone
A 58-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit for telemetric monitoring after an episode of bradycardia. While in the unit, he suddenly loses consciousness. His pulse is undetectable and his blood pressure drops to 40 mmHg. His airway is clear and patent, and he is still breathing on his own. An ECG shows electrical activity. Chest compressions are started and he is quickly given a bolus of intravenous sodium bicarbonate and atropine. When his tracing does not improve, the boluses are repeated twice, and finally his tracing returns to normal sinus rhythm. Moments later, when he regains consciousness, he complains of a dry mouth, blurred vision, and feeling flushed. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
This patient is experiencing transient adverse effects of bicarbonate and requires only supportive measures
This patient is experiencing transient adverse effects of atropine and requires only supportive measures
This patient has bicarbonate toxicity and requires urgent administration of calcium citrate
This patient has atropine toxicity and requires urgent administration of a muscarinic agonist
This patient has atropine toxicity and requires urgent administration of a cholinergic agonist
A 58-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit with an exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and respiratory failure. After several hours on noninvasive ventilation the patient develops worsening respiratory distress and requires endotracheal intubation. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of succinylcholine for rapid-sequence intubation?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hepatic failure
COPD exacerbation
Hypercalcemia
A 58-year-old man is found to have a small mass in the right neck on a yearly physical examination. The patient reports that the mass has been slowly growing for the last few months and is not associated with pain or drainage. He has an otherwise negative review of systems. On examination there is a hard, mobile 2 cm mass along the mid-portion of the right sternocleidomastoid muscle. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the workup of the neck mass?
Fine-needle aspiration (FNA)
Excisional biopsy
Incisional biopsy
Core needle biopsy
No further workup is needed. Reevaluate the mass after a course of antibiotics for 2 weeks
A 58-year-old man is found to have high serum prostate–specific antigen (PSA) concentration with a normal prostate examination. A biopsy of the prostate confirms low-grade carcinoma. The patient wishes to avoid therapy involving any risk for impotence. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Observation
Radiation therapy
Hormonal therapy
Chemotherapy
Prostatectomy
A 58-year-old man presents with tachycardia, fever, confusion, and vomiting. Workup reveals markedly elevated (triiodothyronine) T 3 and (thyroxine) T4 levels. He is diagnosed as having a thyroid storm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Emergent radiation therapy to the neck
Administration of fluid, antithyroid drugs, β-blockers, iodine solution, and steroids
Emergent subtotal thyroidectomy
Emergent hemodialysis
Emergent total thyroidectomy
A 58-year-old nurse with node-positive metastatic breast cancer comes to the office for her monthly follow-up visit. The tumor is estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) positive, and her whole body bone scan is positive for metastatic disease. She is being treated with systemic chemotherapy and hormonal therapy (Tamoxifen). She feels weak with vague muscle, joint, and bone pains. Physical examination reveals a hard, well-defined dominant mass in the left breast. Mucus membranes are moist. Laboratory studies show the following results. Sodium 145 mEq/dL, Potassium 3.9 mEq/dL, Chloride 103 mEq/dL, Bicarbonate 24 mEq/dL, Calcium 11.3 mg/dl, BUN 18 mg/dl, Creatinine 0.8 mg/dl, Glucose 146 mg/dl. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of her hypercalcemia?
Zoledronic acid therapy
Intravenous mithramycin
Furosemide therapy
Intravenous normal saline
Corticosteroid therapy
A 58-year-old professional race car driver has an episode of gross, painless, total hematuria. CT scan reports the presence of a 2 cm mass arising from the cortex of the left kidney, and the radiologist confidently makes a diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma. The same study, however, is inconclusive as to the presence or absence of tumor growth into the renal vein, and the radiologist adds an MRI for that purpose. The MRI clearly excludes the existence of such growth into the vein. Chest x-ray is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Partial nephrectomy
Radical nephrectomy
Percutaneous biopsy
Radiation therapy
Inferior vena cavography
A 58-year-old woman has a history of major depressive disorder that has been in remission for the past ten years. She takes phenelzine daily and sees her psychiatrist every other month. While on vacation, the patient and her husband indulge in a gourmet meal. Afterward, the patient becomes concerned as she believes one of the dishes may have contained aged cheese, which her psychiatrist had warned her about eating. She comes to the emergency department of the local hospital to express her concerns. Which of the following is most appropriate to monitor? 
Blood pressure
Temperature
Liver function tests
Creatine phosphokinase
Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
A 58-year-old woman is seen for evaluation of a swelling in her right vulva. She has also noted pain in this area when walking and during coitus. At the time of pelvic examination, a mildly tender, fluctuant mass is noted just outside the introitus in the right vulva in the region of the Bartholin gland. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Administration of antibiotics
Observation
Incision and drainage
Surgical excision
Marsupialization
A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe headache and agitation. She describes her pain as right-sided and retro-orbital, and also reports blurred vision, constipation, and vomiting. Her medical history is significant for Parkinson's disease, hypothyroidism, hypertension and chronic hepatitis C. Work-up reveals that her current condition is medication-induced. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible?
Levodopa
Bromocriptine
Trihexyphenidyl
Propranolol
Selegiline
A 58-year-old woman with multiple comorbidities and previous cardiac surgery is in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is intubated for airway protection. Because of hemodynamic instability, a central venous catheter is placed in the right subclavian vein. While the surgeon is securing the catheter, the cap becomes displaced and air enters the catheter. Suddenly, the patient becomes tachycardic and hypotensive. What is the best next maneuver?
Bilateral “clamshell” thoracotomy with aortic cross-clamping
Placement of the patient in a left lateral decubitus Trendelenburg position
Withdrawal of the central venous catheter several centimeters
Placement of a right chest tube
Decompression of the right chest with a needle in the second intercostal space
A 59-year-old man comes to the physician because of postprandial abdominal cramps, weakness, light-headedness, and diaphoresis. The symptoms begin 25-30 minutes after eating. He had a partial gastrectomy for intractable peptic ulcer disease two weeks ago. He takes no medications. His temperature is 36.7C (98F), blood pressure is 130/65 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Endoscopy
Dietary modification
Reconstructive operation
Barium swallow
Octreotide
A 59-year-old man is found to have a 6-cm thoracoabdominal aortic aneurysm which extends to above the renal arteries for which he desires repair, but he is concerned about the risk of paralysis postoperatively. Which of the following maneuvers should be employed to decrease the risk of paraplegia after repair?
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage
Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
Clamping of the aorta proximal to the left subclavian artery
Maintenance of intraoperative normothermia
Infusion of a bolus of steroids immediately postoperatively with a continuous infusion for 24 hours
A 59-year-old man is planning to undergo a coronary artery bypass. He has osteoarthritis and consumes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment prior to surgery to minimize his risk of bleeding from his NSAID use?
Stop the NSAIDs the day before surgery
Stop the NSAIDs 3 to 4 days prior to surgery
Stop the NSAIDs 1 week prior to surgery
Give FFP few hours before surgery
Begin vitamin K 1 week prior to surgery
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