Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E
Select the correct definition for "ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL" in respect to IFR flights:
The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that an instrument approach will be commenced
The time at which the aircraft will actually arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that a visual approach will be commenced
The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference to visual aids, from which it is intended, that an approach will be commenced
In any case that time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome
What does the term "AERONAUTICAL STATION" mean?
A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical station may be located, for example, on board ship or on a platform at sea
A station forming part of the aeronautical telecommunication network
A station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board of an aircraft to exchange radiotelephony communications
Any station established to exchange radiotelephony communications
What does the term "BLIND TRANSMISSION" mean?
Transmission of a message to the air traffic service in cases where radio contact cannot be established
A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations
A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station
A transmission of messages relating to enroute weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations
What does the term "GENERAL CALL" mean?
Stations in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call all stations maintaining listening watch on a frequency
A radiotelephony communication from a ground station to aircraft in flight
A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations
A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station
What does the term "AIR-GROUND COMMUNICATION" mean?
Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth
One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth
Any communication from aircraft to ground stations requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)
One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth
What does the term "EXPECTED APPROACH TIME" mean?
The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing
The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated
The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
What does the term "VISUAL APPROACH" mean?
An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
An approach executed by a VFR flight unable to maintain VMC
An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitable located for straight-in approach
A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
What does the term "CLEARANCE LIMIT" mean?
The point to which an aircraft is granted by an air traffic control clearance
The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance
The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced
The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance
What does the term "AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION SERVICE" mean?
The automatic provision of current, routine information to arriving and departing aircraft throughout 24 hours or a specified portion thereof
A service established to provide information concerning enroute weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation
A service which provides aircraft with weather reports relating to a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR)
A service by which aircraft operating within a flight information region (FIR) are provided with current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of air navigation
What does the term "WAYPOINT" mean?
A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation
A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system
A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport
A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
What does the abbreviation "INS" mean?
Inertial navigation system
International NOTAM service
International navigation service
Instrument navigation system
What does the abbreviation "TCAS" mean?
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
Tower Cabin Alarm Stop
Track Confirmation by Automatic Sources
Terminal Control and Advisory System
What does the abbreviation "SELCAL" mean?
A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephony channels linking a ground station with the aircraft
A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only
A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously
A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units
What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean?
Secondary Surveillance Radar
Search and Surveillance Radar
Surface Strength of Runway
Standard Snow Report
What does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean?
Area navigation
Route navigation
Radio navigation
Radar aided navigation
What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean?
Runway Visual Range
Runway Visibility Report
Recleared Via Route ….
Radar Vectors Requested
What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?
Sunrise to sunset
No specific working hours
Continuous day and night service
Sunset to sunrise
QFE is the radiotelephony Q-code to indicate:
The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)
The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome
The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground
The atmospheric pressure referred to a point on the surface of the Earth
QNH is the radiotelephony Q-code to indicate:
The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain aerodrome elevation when on the ground
The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)
The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP)
The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code setting would you refer?
QFE
QNH
QDM
QBI
If you are requested to report your altitude, to which Q-code setting would you refer?
QNH
QFF
QNJ
QFE
What does QDM mean?
Magnetic heading (zero wind)
True heading to the station (zero wind)
True bearing from the station
Magnetic bearing
What is the Q-code for "MAGNETIC HEADING (ZERO WIND)"?
QDM
QNE
QTE
QDR
What does QTE mean?
True bearing from the station
Magnetic bearing from the station
True heading to the station (no wind)
Magnetic heading to the station
What is the Q-code for "TRUE BEARING FROM THE STATION"?
QTE
QDR
QFE
QDM
What does QDR mean?
Magnetic bearing
Magnetic heading (zero wind)
True heading to the station
True bearing from the station
What is the Q-code for "MAGNETIC BEARING"?
QDR
QDM
QFE
QTE
The message to a ground station on a landing site "PLEASE CALL A TAXI CAB FOR US, WE WILL ARRIVE AT 1045" is …
An Unauthorized Message in the aeronautical mobile service
A Flight Regularity Message
An Urgency Message
A Flight Safety Message
Messages concerning non-routine landings of an aircraft are:
Flight Regularity Messages
Flight Safety Messages
Unauthorized Messages in the aeronautical mobile service
Urgency Messages
A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is ...
A Flight Regularity Messages
An Urgency Message
A Flight Security Message
A Flight Safety Message
Flight Safety Messages are ...
Air traffic control messages
Messages concerning non-routine landings
Messages relating to direction finding
Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person
A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called:
Distress Message
Flight Safety Message
Urgency Message
Class B Message
Which of the messages listed below shall be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?
Messages Relating to Direction Finding
Aeronautical Security Messages
Aeronautical Administrative Messages
Messages of Airline Operators
Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?
Radio Teletype Messages
Urgency Messages
Flight Safety Messages
Meteorological Messages
The priority of the instruction "TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 05 VIA A" is ...
Same as "LINE UP RUNWAY 07 AND WAIT"
Higher than "TRANSMIT FOR QDM"
Lower than "CLEARED TO LAND"
Higher than "CAUTION CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY G"
The message addressed to an Area Control Centre "REQUEST RADAR VECTORS TO CIRCUMNAVIGATE ADVERSE WEATHER" is ...
A Flight Safety Message
A Meteorological Message
A Message Relating to Direction Finding
An Urgency Message
Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions etc.) belong to the category of …
Flight Safety Messages
Class B Messages
Service Message
Flight Regularity Message
The clearance "RUNWAY 03, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF" is…
A Flight Safety Message
An Urgency Message
An Unauthorized Message in the aeronautical mobile service
Flight Regularity Messages
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is ...
Distress Message, Urgency Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding
Message Relating to Direction Finding, Distress Message, Urgency Message
Distress message, Flight Safety Message, Urgency Message
Meteorological message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Flight Regularity Message
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is…
Flight Safety Message, Meteorological Message, Flight Regularity Message
Meteorological Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Flight Safety Message
Flight Safety Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Urgency Message
Flight Regularity Message, Distress Message, Meteorological Message
The priority of a pilot‘s message "REQUEST QDM" is ...
Higher than "TURN LEFT HEADING …"
Same as "LATEST QNH 1018"
Lower than "DECEND FLIGHT LEVEL …"
Lower than "REQUEST CLIMB FLIGHT LEVEL …"
What is the correct way of spelling HBJYC?
Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie
Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo
Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie
Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie
What is the correct way of spelling FRl-VOR?
Foxtrot Romeo India - VOR
Foxtrot Romeo Juliett - VOR
Fox Romeo Yankee - VOR
Fox Romeo India - VOR
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500?
Three thousand five hundred
Three five zero zero
Three five double "O"
Three five hundred
What is the correct way of transmitting a QNH of 1001?
QNH one zero zero one
QNH one double zero one
QNH one thousand and one
QNH one double "O" one
What is the correct way of transmitting VHF frequency 118.010 MHz?
One one eight decimal zero one zero
One eighteen decimal zero one
One one eight point zero one zero
One one eight decimal zero one
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13 500?
One three thousand five hundred
One three five zero zero
Thirteen thousand five hundred
One three five hundred
When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)
Local time (LT) 24-hour clock
No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required
Local time (LT) a.m. And p.m.
The time is 4:15 pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is a possibility of confusion?
One six one five
Four fifteen p.m.
Four fifteen in the afternoon
Sixteen fifteen
The time is 9:20 am. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion (same hour)?
Two zero
Two zero this hour
Nine twenty a.m.
Twenty
An ATC unit providing air traffic control service to departing aircraft by means of surveillance radar has the call sign:
DEPARTURE
CONTROL
APPROACH
DELIVERY
An ATC unit providing air traffic control service to enroute aircraft by means of surveillance radar has the call sign:
RADAR
CONTROL
DELIVERY
MONITOR
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control?
TOWER
CONTROL
APRON
AERODROME
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating flight information service?
INFORMATION
FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
INFO
FLIGHT CENTRE
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area?
GROUND
TOWER
CONTROL
APPROACH
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control service (no radar service)?
APPROACH
CONTROL
ARRIVAL
RADAR
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating an area control centre (no radar)?
CONTROL
RADAR
CENTRE
APPROACH
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures?
DEPARTURE
CONTROL
RADAR
APPROACH
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals?
ARRIVAL
RADAR
DIRECTOR
APPROACH
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XYABC is correct?
XBC or XABC
XYBC
BC
ABC
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XYABC is correct?
Cherokee BC or Cherokee ABC
Cherokee XYBC
Cherokee XBC
Cherokee XABC
When shall an aircraft station use its abbreviated call sign?
If it has already been used by the aeronautical station
Only after satisfactory communication has been established
Provided no confusion is likely to result
In dense traffic
What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off mass of 136 tons or more?
Fastair 345 heavy
Fastair 345 widebody
Heavy Fastair 345
Fastair 345
When shall an aircraft in the wake turbulence category HEAVY include the word "HEAVY" immediately after the call sign?
When establishing radio contact with ATC and after every frequency change
Never
In all calls to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
When and by whom is the change of call signs of aircraft stations during flight allowed?
On the instruction of an ATC unit in the interests of safety
To facilitate subsequent radiotelephony communications by an aeronautical station
When changing the destination airport during flight by the aircraft operator
In case of diversion to the alternate aerodrome by the pilot-in-command
When may the name of the call sign of an aeronautical station or location name be omitted?
After the establishment of voice communication
Never
In dense traffic during the rush hours
Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign
The phrase "CANCEL" means:
Cancel the previously transmitted clearance
Consider that transmission as not sent
A new flight plan has to be filed
Expect a new clearance shortly
The phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE" means:
Let me know that you have received and understood this message
I have received all of your last transmission
Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission
My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you
The phrase "ROGER" means:
I have received all of your last transmission
A direct answer in the affirmative
Cleared for take-off or cleared to land
A direct answer in the negative
The phrase "STANDBY" means:
Wait and I will call you
Continue on present heading and listen out
Permission granted for action proposed
Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder
The phrase "READ BACK" means:
Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
Let me know that you have received and understood this message
Check and confirm with originator
Did you correctly receive this message?
The phrase "CHECK" means:
Examine a system or procedure
Repeat your last transmission
Consider that transmission as not sent
Did you correctly receive this message?
Which phrase shall be used for "I SHOULD LIKE TO KNOW…" or "I WISH TO OBTAIN…"?
REQUEST
ACKNOWLEDGE
CONFIRM
REPORT
Which phrase shall be used for "Pass me the following information …"
REPORT
SAY AGAIN
CHECK
REQUEST
Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly?
CORRECT
THAT IS RIGHT
THAT IS AFFIRMATIVE
AFFIRM
Which phrase shall be used for "AN ERROR HAS BEEN MADE IN THIS TRANSMISSION. THE CORRECT VERSION IS …"?
QNH 1017, CORRECTION QNH 1016
QNH 1017, NEGATIVE 1016
QNH 1017, NEGATIVE I SAY AGAIN 1016
QNH 1017, NEGATIVE QNH 1016
Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required?
SAY AGAIN
REPEAT YOUR MESSAGE
WHAT WAS YOUR MESSAGE
REPEAT YOUR LAST TRANSMISSION
Which phrase shall be used for "CONSIDER THAT TRANSMISSION AS NOT SEND"?
DISREGARD
CANCEL MY LAST MESSAGE
FORGET IT
MY LAST TRANSMISSION IS CANCELLED
Which phrase shall be used for "I UNDERSTAND YOUR MESSAGE AND WILL COMPLY WITH IT"?
WILCO
ROGER
OK, WILL DO IT
WILL COMPLY WITH YOUR INSTRUCTION
Which phrase shall be used for "YES"?
AFFIRM
YES
AFFIRMATIVE
ROGER
The phrase "MONITOR" means:
Listen out on (frequency/channel)
Wait and I will call you
Examine a system or procedure
Establish radio contact with…
The instruction: "Fastair 345 STANDBY FOR TOWER ON 118.900" means?
Fastair 345 may be requested on frequency 118.900 when its intended that the Tower unit will initiate communications soon
Fastair 345 shall contact TOWER on 118.900
Fastair 345 may be requested on frequency 118.900 on which aerodrome data are being broadcast
Fastair 345 shall standby on the current frequency
Fastair 345 receives the instruction to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.000. What is the correct confirmation by the pilot?
Fastair 345 contact 118.0
Changing over Fastair 345
Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345
Which phrase shall be used when a pilot is unable to comply with a clearance or instruction?
UNABLE
NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION
IMPOSSIBLE TO MAKE IT
DISREGARD
Which phrase shall a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure?
GOING AROUND
MISSED APPROACH
OVERSHOOTING
PULLING UP
An aircraft had initially been cleared to climb to FL 100. For separation purposes the aircraft has to be levelled off at FL80 for a few minutes. ATC will give this instruction by using the phrase:
STOP CLIMB AT FL 80
MAINTAIN FL 80
CLEARED FL 80
LEVEL OFF AT FL 80
Which phrase shall be used to instruct a pilot to set the transponder to mode A/C code 0410?
SQUAWK 0410
SQUAWK ALPHA 0410 AND CHARLIE
SQUAWK MODE ALPHA CODE 0410 AND MODE CHARLIE
SQUAWK ALPHA AND CHARLIE ON 0410
The phrase "CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT" means:
The pilot changes from IFR to VFR
The pilot indicates that his landing is assured and he will not submit the landing time
The pilot closes his flight plan
The pilot continues VFR and closes his flight plan
Which phrase shall be used by ATC if a position report over a compulsory reporting point is not required?
OMIT POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix)
CANCEL POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix)
DO NOT REPORT OVER …. (fix)
NO POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix)
The permission to taxi to the runway in use for departure will be phrased:
TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY ... VIA ….
RUNWAY ... TAXI VIA …
TAXI VIA ... TO RUNWAY …
CLEARED TO RUNWAY … VIA …
If a pilot may start climb/descent at his convenience, ATC will use the phrase:
WHEN READY CLIMB/DESCEND FL …
CLIMB/DESCEND FL ... AT YOUR CONVENIENCE
CLIMB/DESCEND FL ... AT ANY TIME
CLIMB/DESCEND FL …
ATC will give a descent instruction by using the phrase:
DESCEND FL …
LEAVE FL ... FOR FL …
CLEARED FL ...
MAINTAIN FL ...
The clearance to taxi to the take-off position will be phrased:
LINE UP RUNWAY ….
TAXI TO TAKE-OFF POSITION
CONTINUE TO TAKE-OFF POSITION AND HOLD
CLEARED INTO POSITION AND HOLD
If requested by the control tower to report having crossed a runway, the pilot has to use the phrase:
RUNWAY VACATED
I AM CLEAR OF RUNWAY
I AM BEYOND THE RUNWAY
I HAVE LEFT THE RUNWAY
In order to get a bearing, the ground station will request the pilot to ….
TRANSMIT FOR DIRECTION FINDING
SQUAWK IDENT
REPORT BEARING
TRANSMIT FOR BEARING
A pilot will be instructed to reselect the assigned transponder code A 6620 with the following phrase:
RESET SQUAWK 6620
SQUAWK AGAIN ALPHA 6620
CONFIRM SQUAWKING ALPHA 6620
SWITCH ON ALPHA 6620
The prescribed phrase for obtaining permission to taxi to the runway for departure is:
REQUEST TAXI
REQUEST TAXI CLEARANCE
WHAT IS MY TAXI CLEARENCE
REQUEST PERMISSION TO TAXI
ATC will give a climb instruction by using the phrase:
CLIMB FL ….
MAINTAIN FL ….
LEAVE FL …. FOR FL ….
CLEARED FL ….
A pilot intending to close his flight plan shall use the phrase:
REQUEST TO CLOSE MY FLIGHT PLAN
REQUEST TO CANCEL IFR
WILL CONTINTUE VFR
WILL CONTINUE VMC
If a transponder does not transmit on mode C as expected, ATC will instruct the pilot to switch on mode C by using the phrase:
SQUAWK CHARLIE
SQUAWK ALTIMETER
SQUAWK PRESSURE ALTITUDE
TRANSMIT ON MODE CHARLIE
The advice by a radar controller "TRAFFIC THREE O‘CLOCK" means that the position of the mentioned traffic is ...
On the right side
On the left side
Separated by three miles
Three miles ahead
What is the correct procedure for the pilot to change from IFR-flight to VFR-flight?
Contact ATC and cancel IFR
A change from IFR to VFR is not possible
Contact ATC and request clearance to proceed in accordance with the visual flight rules
Contact ATC and request to close the flight plan
The phrase "CLEARENCE EXPIRES AT 1025" means?
The clearance is void if the aircraft is not airborne until or at 1025
The clearance is void if the aircraft departs before 1025
The pilot shall start engines not later than 1025
The pilot shall stand by and ask for clearance again at 1025
When shall the phrase "TAKE-OFF" be used by a pilot?
To acknowledge take-off clearance
Never, it is used only by the control tower
Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway
To inform TOWER when ready for departure
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off?
READY FOR DEPARTURE or READY
READY FOR TAKE-OFF
READY TO LINE-UP
READY TO GO
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre?
STOPPING
ABANDONING TAKE-OFF
ABORTING TAKE-OFF
CANCELLING TAKE-OFF
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to perform a missed approach?
GOING AROUND
OVERSHOOTING
PULLING UP
WILL MAKE ANOTHER APPROACH
The phrase "GO AROUND" means?
Carry out a missed approach
Make a 360° turn
Proceed with your message
Overtake the aircraft ahead
The phrase "ORBIT RIGHT" means?
Make 360° turns to the right
Turn right to avoid other traffic
Right-hand circuits are in use
Leave the runway to the right
The phrase "VACATE RUNWAY IMMEDIATELY" means:
Clear the runway immediately
Give way to aircraft from the left
Hold position on the left side of the runway
Turn left to leave the runway
What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received?
INFORMATION GOLF
WE HAVE THE INFORMATION
WE HAVE THE ATIS GOLF
WEATHER GOLF RECEIVED
What is the correct way of transmitting frequency 120.375 MHz?
One two zero decimal three seven five
One two zero decimal three seven
One two zero three seven
One twenty decimal three seven
Which elements of instructions or information shall be read back?
Clearances, taxi instructions, runway-in-use, QNH, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions, frequency in the case of frequency change
Runway in use, ground visibility, dew point, take-off clearance, frequency in the case of frequency changes
Clearances, wind direction/speed, heading instructions, QNH, frequency in the case of frequency changes
Instructions concerning heading, flight level, speed, altimeter setting, flight visibility, wind direction, take-off clearance and frequency in the case of frequency changes
Shall an ATC route clearance be read back?
Yes
No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID)
No, if the communication channel is overloaded
No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction?
HOLDING SHORT
ROGER
WILL STOP BEFORE
WILCO
Cherokee XYABC receives the following instruction: "XBC climb straight ahead until altitude 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 / 6 knots, Runway 22, cleared for take-off". What is the correct read back?
XBC CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 2500 FEET, THEN TURN RIGHT, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
WILCO, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, XBC
STRAIGHT AHEAD 2500 FEET RIGHT TURN, WIND WEST 6 KNOTS, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, XBC
RIGHT TURN AFTER 2500, ROGER, XBC
The phrase "SQUAWK 1234" means?
Switch transponder to Mode/Code 1234
Give a short count for DF (direction finder)
Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz
Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
RADAR informs aircraft XYABC: "XBC IDENTIFIED". What does this mean?
Radar identification has been achieved
XBC is not visible on the radar screen
XBC should operate the IDENT-button
XBC should perform an identification turn
RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "XBC SQUAWK IDENT". What does this mean?
XBC shall operate the IDENT-button (operation of the SPI feature)
Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC
X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 20 degrees
X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code
RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "XBC SQUAWK STANDBY". What does this mean?
XBC is requested to select the standby feature on the transponder
XBC is requested to standby for radar vectors
XBC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy
XBC is requested to standby on the frequency
RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "X BC RESET SQUAWK 1015". What does this mean?
XBC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015
XBC is requested to set new code 1015
XBC has been identified by SSR code 1015
XBC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)
A pilot of an IFR flight has been instructed to establish radio contact with another ATC unit during climb. On initial contact he has to transmit the following data:
Call sign, present and cleared level
Call sign and present level
Call sign and estimated time over the next compulsory reporting point
Call sign only
To establish radio contact with "MÃœNCHEN GROUND" the pilot of DIBEL shall transmit the following call:
MÃœNCHEN GROUND DIBEL
DIBEL, MÃœNCHEN GROUND OVER
MÃœNCHEN GROUND DIBEL GO AHEAD
MÃœNCHEN GROUND THIS IS DIBEL
A radio station in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call several stations. This call is named:
MULTIPLE CALL
GENERAL CALL
SIMULTANEOUS CALL
URGENCY CALL
During approach to an airport with parallel runways the pilot of an IFR flight has to transmit on initial contact, after changing frequency from approach control to aerodrome control, the radio call sign of his aircraft and …
The designation of the runway being approached
Passing the transition level
Cleared altitude/flight level
The type of instrument approach
The pilot of an IFR flight has to transmit the following data on initial contact after changing frequency from approach control to aerodrome control:
Radio call sign of the aircraft only
Aircraft call sign and cleared altitude/flight level
Aircraft call sign and present position
Aircraft call sign and flight level or altitude
When establishing radio contact, how shall aircraft XYABC call Stephenville TOWER?
Stephenville TOWER XYABC
Stephenville TOWER XBC
Stephenville XYABC
TOWER XYABC
Aircraft XYABC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.700. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction?
XBC 118.7
WILL CHANGE TO TOWER XBC
XBC CHANGING OVER
Stephenville TOWER XBC
Aircraft XYABC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.250, on which the aerodrome data are being broadcast. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction?
XBC MONITORING 123.250
WILL CONTACT 123.250 XBC
XBC CHECKING 123.250
CHANGING TO 123.250 XBC
Aircraft XYABC is making a radio check with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.700. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission?
Stephenville TOWER XYABC HOW DO READ
Stephenville TOWER XYABC PRE-FLIGHT CHECK
Stephenville TOWER XYABC FREQUENCY CHECK
Stephenville TOWER XYABC SIGNAL CHECK
On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 3" mean?
Readable but with difficulty
No problem to understand
Unreadable
Loud and clear
On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 5" mean?
Perfectly readable
Unreadable
Readable but with difficulty
Problem to understand
A compulsory reporting point is a defined location where a position report must be made ...
In any case
On request of ATC
In IMC only
In VMC only
A non-compulsory reporting point is a defined location where a position report must be made ...
On request of ATC
In VMC
In IMC
In any case
Which elements of information should an abbreviated position report during an IFR flight always contain?
Radio call sign, position, time over
Radio call sign, position, time over, level
Radio call sign, position, level
Radio call sign, position, next position
What shall be the pilot‘s read back for: "CLIMB FL 280"?
Climbing flight level two eight zero
Climbing to flight level two eight zero
Climbing to two eighty
Climbing two eight zero
What shall the pilot‘s read back be for: "CLIMB ALTITUDE 2500 feet"?
Climbing altitude two thousand five hundred feet
Up two thousand five hundred
Climbing to altitude two thousand five hundred feet
Climbing to two point five
ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot?
Fastair 345 leaving flight level 100 descending flight level 80
Fastair 345 leaving 100 to 80
Descending to 80, Fastair 345
Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345
Runway visual range (RVR) is included in the weather report when the visibility is …
Less than 1500 m
1000 ft or less
Less than 1000 m
1500 ft or less
A pilot of an IFR flight shall inform the ATC unit competent for approaches and departures that he has received ATIS ...
Upon initial contact
If deemed necessary
If deemed necessary
On request only
When the term "SCATTERED (SCT)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the cloud amount is ...
3 to 4 oktas
5 to 7 oktas
NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS
8 oktas
When the term "BROKEN (BKN)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the cloud amount is …
5 to 7 oktas
1 to 4 oktas
NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS
8 oktas
When the term "OVERCAST (OVC)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the cloud amount is …
8 oktas
5 to 7 oktas
3 to 4 oktas
1 to 2 oktas
When the term "CAVOK" is used in a routine meteorological report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:
Visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL
Visibility more than 8 km, no cloud below 3000 ft AGL
Visibility more than 5000 m, no cloud below 1500 m AGL
Visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 1500 ft AGL
In what units of measurement is the visibility in a routine meteorological report (METAR) expressed in plain language?
Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres
In feet and nautical miles
In nautical miles only
Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
What is the correct way of expressing visibility in plain language (in METAR)?
Visibility 1200 metres
Visibility 1200 feet
Visibility 1.2 kilometres
Visibility 1.2 nautical miles
When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase:
RVR RUNWAY 16, TOUCHDOWN ZONE, METRES, MID POINT, METRES, STOP END, METRES
THE VALUES OF THE TRANSMISSION ARE: …. METRES AND ... METRES
RVR AT THE BEGINNING OF RUNWAY 16 IS ... METRES
RVR RUNWAY 16, METRES DIAGONAL, METRES DIAGONAL METRES
What does "FRICTION COEFFICIENT 45" in a runway report mean?
Braking action good
Braking action medium
Braking action poor
Braking action not measurable
What does "FRICTION COEFFICIENT 20" in a runway report mean?
Braking action poor
Braking action medium
Braking action unreliable
Braking action good
Under which runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "UNRELIABLE"?
Runway covered with wet snow and slush
Runway covered with dry snow
Runway conditions normal
Runway covered with ice
If you are requested to "REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS", what does that mean?
Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC
Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR
Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature
An aeronautical station using the identification "VOLMET" in its call sign ...
Is a broadcasting service for the transmission of aerodrome meteorological reports for airports
Can be called by an aircraft in flight to obtain flight information service
Is an aeronautical station operated by an airport company
Executes air traffic control service to enroute aircraft
The weather report in an ATIS broadcast contains the term "CAVOK". This means that an arriving aircraft has to expect …
No cloud below 5000 ft AGL
Less than 5/8 clouds below 5000 ft
Thunderstorm
Light precipitation
What is normally used for ATIS broadcast?
VHF frequencies
NDB frequencies
DME voice channel
Voice channel of an ILS
How can routine meteorological reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight?
VOLMET
ATIS
SIGMET
AFIS
Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET?
Routine aerodrome meteorological reports for airports
SPECI and TAF
Runway reports
SIGMET
Distress is defined as ...
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance
A condition concerning the safety of some person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS-approach
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word "MAYDAY" means:
The aircraft is threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle
The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight
An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:
MAYDAY, emitted preferably three times
DETRESFA, emitted three times
PAN PAN, emitted three times
URGENCY, emitted three times
The distress signal and the distress message shall be transmitted on ...
The frequency used or on the emergency frequency
The regional guard frequency
The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned
The emergency frequency in any case
The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be …
The frequency currently in use or on the emergency frequency
Any other international emergency frequency
Any frequency at pilot‘s discretion
The distress frequency 121.500 MHz
The distress message shall contain the following data:
Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, intention of the pilot, kind of assistance required, data concerning position, course and level
Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency?
121.500 MHz
122.500 MHz
6500 KHz
121.050 MHz
The frequency 121.500 MHz is ...
An international emergency frequency
A regional VHF emergency frequency
A regional guard frequency
A frequency for air-to-air communication
An aircraft in distress situation shall squawk:
A 7700
A 7600
A 7500
A 6700
An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the aeronautical station that …
The aircraft is in distress
The aircraft‘s transceiver is unserviceable
There is a very sick passenger on board
The aircraft is being hijacked
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk an internationally prescribed mode/code?
In distress
When following a SID
When passing the transition level
When flying within controlled airspace
An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the aeronautical station that …
His aircraft is in distress
He has radio communication failure
He has a sick person on board
His aircraft is in an emergency situation
Urgency is defined as ...
A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance
A condition concerning the safety of some person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS-approach
A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words "PAN PAN", preferable spoken three times, means:
The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle and does not requiring immediate assistance
The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance
The aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
The aircraft is threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
An urgency call shall be initiated by the radiotelephony urgency signal:
PAN PAN, preferable emitted three times
MAYDAY, emitted three times
ALERFA, emitted three times
URGENCY, emitted three times
Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call?
On the frequency in use
The regional guard frequency
Any frequency at pilot‘s discretion
The international emergency frequency
The urgency message shall contain the following data:
Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, intention of the pilot-in-command, present position, level and heading, and any other useful information
Aircraft call sign, present position, level and heading, assistance required
Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, assistance required
Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, present position, level and heading
What is the transponder code for radio communication failure?
7600
6700
7700
7500
An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:
Lt is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure
It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome
Lt is about to make a forced landing
Lt is requesting immediate level change
An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot?
Try to establish radio contact on another frequency published for the route of flight
Return to the airport of departure
Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit
Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication
What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station which fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station?
Try to establish radio contact with other aircraft or aeronautical stations
Divert to the alternate airport
Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight
Squawk mode A code 7500
A message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE" shall be transmitted …
On the frequency presently in use
On the regional guard frequency
To all available aeronautical stations
On the international emergency frequency
If all attempts of an aircraft station to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station fail, it shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
"TRANSMITTING BLIND"
"READ YOU ONE, READ YOU ONE"
"PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN"
"HOW DO YOU READ?"
Blind transmission shall be made ...
Twice on the designated frequency
Only once on the designated frequency
During VFR flights only
On the emergency frequency only
When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE" during an enroute flight, the aircraft station shall also ...
Advise the time of its next intended transmission
Enter immediately base leg when approaching the airfield for landing
Land at the nearest airfield/airport
Return to the airport of departure
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk an internationally prescribed code?
In case of radio communication failure
When approaching a prohibited area
When flying over desert areas
When entering bad weather areas
Which aircraft shall, during radio communication failure, keep a watch for instructions issued by visual signals?
Aircraft forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome
VFR flights above clouds
Aircraft entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport
IFR flights when entering a CTR
An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure the pilot shall ...
Set the transponder to Mode A 7600 and maintain the last assigned speed and level or the minimum IFR cruising level for a period of 7 minutes
Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
Continue the flight to destination aerodrome
Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome
An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain his last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. When does this period commence?
At the time the last assigned level or minimum IFR cruising level is reached or when the transponder code is set to Mode A 7600, whichever is later
At the beginning of radio communication failure
After noticing radio communication failure
At the last contact with ATC
An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain his last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. What is the pilot supposed to do thereafter?
Adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan
Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules
Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain the last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. What is the pilot supposed to do if the minimum IFR cruising altitude is higher than the last assigned level?
The pilot shall climb to the minimum IFR cruising level
In any case maintain last assigned flight level
Hold over present position for 7 minutes than continue in accordance with the filed flight plan
Continue immediately in accordance with the filed flight plan
An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot shall commence descent over the designated navigational aid serving the destination airport (no EAT received):
Commence descend over the IAF at or as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival according to the current flight plan
After holding for 5 minutes in the holding pattern
Without any delay
After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
An IFR-flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot shall land, if possible, within ...
30 minutes after the estimated time of arrival or the last confirmed approach time, whichever is later
30 minutes after noticing the radio failure
15 minutes after vacating the transition layer
20 minutes after leaving the last assigned and acknowledged level
An IFR flight in VMC encountering radio communication failure the pilot shall ...
Conduct his flight in accordance with the rules for encountering radio communication failure in IMC
Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 7 minutes, before proceeding to the nearest suitable aerodrome for landing
Climb or descend to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure while under radar vectors, the pilot shall ...
Squawk 7600 and proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight plan route not later than the next significant point, taking into consideration the applicable minimum flight altitude
Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan
Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
Squawk 7600 and maintain present heading for the next 7 minutes and then return to the flight path in ac- cordance with the current flight plan
In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall …
Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
Squawk 7600
Continue the flight in VMC
In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR-flight, the pilot shall ...
Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight
Inform FIS for relay to AlS
Inform ATC after departure
Insert under item 18 of the flight plan "TRANSPONDER UNSERVICEABLE"
What is a pilot expected to do if he reaches the clearance limit with a functioning VHF radio?
Enter the holding pattern and request further clearance
Proceed to the initial approach fix according to his current flight plan
Continue VFR to destination or alternate aerodrome
Proceed to the initial approach fix on the shortest way
ATC issues an EAT in any case if the anticipated delay is more than ...
20 minutes
30 minutes
15 minutes
10 minutes
A pilot receives the clearance to hold over an enroute reporting point until a specified time. This time is called:
Holding time
Estimated overhead time
Estimated time of arrival
Expected approach time
If a pilot has to hold over an initial approach fix ATC will issue an ...
Expected approach time, if the expected delay is more than 20 minutes
Exact arrival time
Estimated time of arrival
Estimated elapsed time
Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?
117.975 - 137.000 MHz
108.000 - 117.975 MHz
11650 -13200 kHz
1810 - 2850 kHz
To which frequency band belong the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?
Very high frequency
Low frequency
Medium frequency
Very low frequency
Which channel spacing is used in the VHF band of aeronautical mobile service?
25 kHz + 8.33 kHz
100 kHz + 8.33 kHz
100 kHz
50 MHz
What are the propagation characteristics of VHF?
Practically straight-line similar to light waves
The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-waves
Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance
The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have not influence
Which phenomena can influence the reception quality of VHF?
Level of aircraft and topographical features
Day-night effect
Ionosphere
Atmospherics occurring particularly during thunderstorms
Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.200 MHz?
Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone
Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
The ELBA / ELT transmits on the following frequencies an emergency signal
121.500, 243.000 or 406.000 MHz
243.000 MHz only
119.200 MHz
121.500 MHz only
Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100?
Approx.120 NM
Approx.300 NM
Approx.12 NM
Approx.30 NM
The air traffic service is providing ...
Air traffic control service
Aeronautical telecommunication service
Air traffic information service
Air traffic communication service
Air traffic control is provided for ...
IFR flights and aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
All VFR flights above 5000 ft MSL
VFR flights at night within airspace G
VFR flights in the identification zone
The air traffic control service comprises:
TWR, APP, ACC
AlS, FIC, TWR
APP, ACC, SAR
TWR, FIC, APP
Information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations are published as …
NOTAM
AIP supplement
AIC
NfL I
A NOTAM is distributed by ...
A teletype message
An official gazette
No means, since it is of no interest to pilots
Radio
The collection of active NOTAM presented to the pilot by AIS is called:
Pre-flight Information Bulletin
NfL
Flight plan
Circular Information
The Pre-flight Information Bulletins contain all valid ...
Active NOTAMs
International regulations
Military activities within the next 24 hours
National regulations
Changes of instrument procedures are published by means of ...
AIP Supplements or AIP Amendments
NfL II
AIC
Alerting messages (ALR)
Pilots have to obtain pre-flight information from AIS-C for ...
Flights for which a flight plan has to be filed
All flights
All flights operating during night
IFR flights only
What is the measurement unit for wind direction and horizontal speed (except for take-off and landing)?
Degrees true and knots
Degrees magnetic and kilometres
Degrees magnetic and miles
Degrees true and kilometres
What is the measurement unit for wind direction and horizontal speed for take-off and landing?
Degrees magnetic and knots
Degrees magnetic and miles
Degrees true and knots
Degrees true and kilometres
What is the meaning of the designator "A65" on an enroute chart?
ATS route A65
Altitude 6500 ft
Low Flying area six five
Danger area number six five
ATC must be informed on a change of the TAS by ...
5% or more
15% or more
20% or more
10% or more
In order to conduct an IFR-flight "AT FL 200" the aircraft must be equipped with ...
Two functioning transceivers with 8.33 kHz channel spacing
One transceiver with 25 KHz channel spacing
One transceiver with 720 channels
One transceiver with 25 KHz and one with at least 50 KHz channel spacing
An IFR-flight without DME interrogator may be operated …
Only with a special permission
If the aircraft is equipped with VOR and ADF
Below FL 100, but not to or from international airports
To and from international airports with RADAR control
An IFR flight intending to conduct an instrument approach has to be equipped with LLZ-, GP- and Marker beacon receivers ...
During ILS approach
During SRE approach
During NDB/DME approach
In any case
By what time at the latest prior to EOBT will AlS / IFPS normally accept a flight plan?
1 hour
3 hours
0.5 hour
2 hours
A pilot intends to fly IFR via ATS route "G1" to the "ABC" VOR and thereafter VFR. What is the correct entry in his flight plan under item- "route"?
G1 ABC VFR
VFR ABC G1
G1 N0120/ABC VFR
N0120 VFR ABC G1
A Pilot intends to fly VFR to the "XYZ" VOR and thereafter IFR. What is the correct entry in his flight plan under item "route"?
XYZ/N0120F080 IFR
VFR XYZ IFR
0120/XYZFO8O IFR
F080 XYZ IFR
What is the correct entry in an IFR flight plan for a flight level change over Leipzig VOR (LEG)?
€¦. A101 LEG/N0250F150 G98 ...
.… A101 N0250/F150 LEG G98 ...
€¦. A101 F150/N0250 LEG G98 ...
€¦. A101 LEG/F150 G98 ...
Which letter shall be used in the flight plan to indicate, that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
Y
Z
I
V
How many minutes after EOBT is the flight plan automatically cancelled by ATC, if start-up or taxi instructions have not been requested?
60 minutes
30 minutes
120 minutes
90 minutes
An IFR training flight shall be marked in item 8 of the flight plan by using the letters:
IX
IN
VN
VG
What is the meaning of the term "FLIGHT LEVEL"?
A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa
A pressure level based on regional QNH
A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QFE
A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QNH
Except for take-off and landing the minimum safe height for IFR-flights is at least:
1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
500 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
1500 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
The IFR minimum on ATS routes is expressed in:
Altitude and/or flight level
Flight level only
Elevation
Height
Within how many miles radius around a specified navigational aid does the minimum sector altitude provide 1000 ft obstacle clearance?
25 NM
30 NM
20 NM
15 NM
Altitude information of route segments on German enroute charts indicate the …
Minimum IFR cruising altitude
Minimum safe height for IFR flights
Lower limit of the controlled airspace
Minimum reception altitude for radio navigational aids
What is the minimum vertical separation to other IFR flights above FL 290?
1000 ft up to FL 410 thereafter 2000 ft
2000 m
1000 ft
500 ft
What is the minimum vertical separation to other IFR flights below FL 410?
1000 ft
2000 ft
1000 m
500 ft
Prior to departure the pilot will be given enroute clearance including the departure route. The cruising altitude is normally not covered by the clearance. To which initial altitude has the pilot to climb after take-off?
To the initial altitude stated in the SID
Climb so, as to leave airspace E as soon as possible
The initial altitude is on pilot‘s discretion
To the minimum safe height for IFR flights
The transition level is determined on the basis of …
Transition altitude and QNH
Transition altitude and QFE
Transition height and QFE
Transition height and QNH
The vertical dimension of the transition layer must be at least:
1000 ft
1500 ft
2000 ft
500 ft
The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1005 hPa. What is the transition level?
FL 70
FL 50
FL 80
FL 60
The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1015 hPa. What is the transition level?
FL 60
FL 50
FL 70
FL 80
The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 977 hPa. What is the transition level?
FL 80
FL 50
FL 70
FL 60
An IFR flight at FL 100 approaches an aerodrome for landing. The QNH given is 1018 hPa, the transition altitude is 5000 ft. When shall the pilot change the altimeter setting to QNH? When ...
Passing FL 60
Leaving FL 100
Passing FL 70
Passing FL 50
The pilot of an arriving IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from 1013.2 hPa to QNH during the descent …
When passing the transition level
When passing the transition altitude
After having passed the transition layer
When commencing descent
The pilot of a departing IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from QNH to standard altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa when …
Passing transition altitude
Passing transition
Leaving the transition layer
Reaching transition level
Name the speed limitation applicable within airspace C for an IFR-flight:
No speed limitation
Maximum 250 kt IAS
Maximum 250 kt TAS
250 kt lAS below FL 100
Which are the lower and upper limits of the German UIR:
FL 245 - unlimited
FL 245 – FL 460
GND - unlimited
GND - FL 245
Flights within airspace E will be separated as follows:
IFR from IFR
IFR from VFR
All aircraft
VFR from IFR
Which kind of flights are not permitted within airspace G?
IFR outside of RMZ
Glider flights
Military exercise flights
VFR
Flights below FL 100 within airspace D and E are not permitted to exceed an indicated airspeed of ...
250 kt except aircraft, which have to be operated at a higher airspeed because of their specific performance characteristics
150 kt
300 kt
200 kt
A pilot intends to cancel his IFR flight at the minimum IFR cruising altitude in airspace E below FL 100, descend below controlled airspace and continue VFR. Which are the required weather minima?
Flight visibility at least 5 km, distance from cloud 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally
Flight visibility at least 3 km, distance from cloud 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally
Flight visibility at least 8 km, horizontal distance from clouds 1500 m
Flight visibility at least 8 km, clear of cloud
A pilot departing on a VFR flight (Z - flight plan) and intending to change flight rules to IFR at the minimum IFR cruising altitude in airspace E below FL 100, has to observe the following minimum values for flight visibility / distance from clouds:
5 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
3 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
1.5 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
1.5 km flight visibility, clear of cloud
A pilot on an IFR flight (Y - flight plan) intends to change flight rules to VFR at the minimum IFR cruising level. Until leaving the controlled airspace E below FL 100 he has to observe the following minimum values for flight visibility:
5 km
8 km
1.5 km
3 km
During a flight with an intended change of flight rules the VFR part of this flight shall generally be conducted in such a way, that ...
In airspace E the pilot, has a flight visibility of at least 5 km and the aircraft maintains a horizontal distance from clouds of at least 1500 m and a vertical distance of at least 1000 ft
In airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 8 km and the aircraft maintains a horizontal distance from clouds of at least 1500 m and a vertical distance of at least 1000 ft
In airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 8 km and the aircraft remains clear of cloud
In airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 5 km, the aircraft remains clear of cloud and visual contact to the ground is granted
The start-up clearance shall not be requested before it has been ascertained that the aircraft can start the engine after the clearance has been issued ...
Within 5 minutes
Within 10 minutes
Immediately
Within 20 minutes
For the regulation of taxiing aircraft under all-weather conditions, CAT II/III stop bars have been established ...
For the safety of traffic on taxiways and on runways
For the safety of traffic on the runways
To ensure a fluent traffic on the apron
For the safety of taxiing aircraft
A pilot taxiing on an aerodrome under all-weather operations CAT II/III is approaching a stop bar, represented by red lights at 3 m intervals across the taxiway. When the lights are switched on, taxiing across the stop bar …
Is not permitted
Is permitted only, when no aircraft is in sight
Is permitted as soon as a taxi instruction is received from the aircraft‘s owner
Is permitted only for IFR departures
When holding in front of a stop bar at a CAT II/III holding point during all-weather operations, a pilot receives a take-off clearance from TWR. The red lights of the stop bar remain switched on. The pilot must ...
Inform the TWR that the light signals are not switched off and hold position until the stop bar is switched off
Be very careful during line-up and take-off, however follow the TWR instruction without delay
Follow the TWR instruction without arguing, because instructions via radiotelephony overrule light signals
Disregard the TWR instruction, hold position and wait for weather improvement, because neither take-off nor landing is permitted, as long as the stop bar is switched on
The identification with SSR will be achieved by ...
Pressing the IDENT button
Transmitting for DF
Switching the transponder to STBY
Heading changes
The height identification with SSR will be achieved by ...
Squawking mode A/C or S
Squawking mode A/B
Squawking LOW-HIGH-LOW
Transmitting for DF
When switching the transponder to "STBY" …
The transponder is immediately available, if required
The selected code is transmitting altitude information only
The transponder is switched off completely
The sensibility of the receiver is reduced
If an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes after the estimated landing time and communication cannot be established with the aircraft, ATC will ...
Alert the search and rescue service
Transmit an emergency message
Transmit an emergency messagewait for 5 minutes before taking further action
Assume that the aircraft is diverting to the alternate aerodrome
If an aircraft fails to land within 30 minutes of the estimated time of landing last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units, whichever is later, and communication cannot be established with the aircraft, ATC will ...
Declare the uncertainty phase
Take no special action
Transmit an urgency message
Wait another 30 minutes before taking action
If an aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes after his ETA and ATC has no knowledge about its position, the following phase will be declared:
Uncertainty phase
Distress phase
Emergency phase
Alert phase
Which time will be issued by ATC, if an arriving aircraft on an IFR flight has to hold over the navigation aid serving as clearance limit, when holding of more than 20 minutes is expected? The …
Expected approach time (EAT)
Estimated time of arrival (ETA)
Estimated time enroute (ETE)
Estimated elapsed time (EET)
The terminology associated with the standard holding pattern is as follows:
Fix, abeam fix, outbound, holding side, inbound
Downwind, base leg, final
Inbound downwind, base outbound, long final
Hold downwind outbound, turn inbound holding fix
The outbound timing in a holding pattern shall begin ...
Over or abeam the fix, whichever is later
10 seconds before reaching the fix
At the convenience of the pilot
After having completed the turn over the fix
What is the prescribed maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft entering a holding pattern at FL 140 or below?
230 kt
240 kt
265 kt
220 kt
What is the prescribed maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft entering a holding pattern above FL 200?
265 kt
300 kt
230 kt
320 kt
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
1 minute
2 minutes
1 minute and 30 seconds
30 seconds
A standard holding pattern at FL 150 or above is to be flown outbound:
1 minute and 30 seconds
2 minutes
2 minutes and 30 seconds
1 minute
What is the advantage of a VORTAC, compared to a VOR, if the aircraft is equipped with respective receivers?
The airborne equipment indicates distance and direction in respect to the position of the VORTAC
The airborne equipment indicates direction and altitude/flight level
The airborne equipment indicates direction and IAS
The TO/FROM indication can be disregarded
The DME receiver provides the pilot with information on …
Distance
Azimuth
Weather
Height
What is the identification of the MM?
Dots and dashes
Dashes
Continuous wave
Dots
The passage of the middle marker is indicated to the pilot by …
An amber (yellow) light
A red light
A purple (blue) light
A white light
Which is the carrier frequency of the outer marker?
75 MHz
100 MHz
50 kHz
25 kHz
The passage of the outer marker is indicated to the pilot by ...
A purple (blue) light and an aural signal of 400 Hz
An amber (yellow) light
A 360°-needle-swing of the ADF indicator
A white light and an aural signal of 3000 Hz
The passage of a locator beacon (LO) is indicated to the pilot by ...
A 180°-needle-swing of the ADF indicator
The change of the TO/FROM indicator
The flashing of a red light and an aural signal
The flashing of a purple light
Name all parts of a standard instrument approach procedure:
Arrival route, initial approach, intermediate approach, final approach, missed approach
Initial approach and final approach
Final approach and missed approach
Intermediate approach, final approach and missed approach
What are the criteria for the different aircraft categories during an instrument approach?
Speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall-speed in the landing configuration at maximum certificated landing mass
Range of speeds for initial approach
Maximum speeds for missed approach
Range of final approach speeds
Which of the following approaches is a precision approach?
ILS approach
VOR approach
ILS back-beam approach
DME approach
Which of the following approaches include a vertical guidance?
ILS approach
NDB approach
VOR approach
LLZ approach
Which of the following statements is correct?
A precision approach has a vertical guidance
A precision approach has no vertical guidance
A LLZ approach has a vertical guidance
A VOR approach has a vertical guidance
Which component of the ILS provides the pilot with electronic course guidance?
Localizer
Marker beacon
Approach lighting system
Glide path
Which instrument approach procedure segment leads an aircraft to the extended final approach track?
The initial approach segment
The final approach segment
The intermediate approach segment
The STAR
Which information gets a pilot from an air traffic controller during a SRE approach?
Course corrections in regard to runway centre line, distance information and altitude information
Only headings and altitude information
Only altitudes and distance information
Radar vectors only
The OCA refers to:
MSL
Threshold
Field elevation
QFE
What is the Mode S Aircraft Identification?
Call sign according to field 7 of the flight plan
The registration number of the aircraft
The name of the aircraft operating agency
Flight number according to the airline time table
What is the transition to final approach?
An overlay to radar vector pattern procedure
A non-precision approach
Standard IFR-approach
A SRE approach
What is necessary for the execution for a transition to final approach?
Database
ILS
ADF
VOR/DME
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