UREs
Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
Computer Systems Programming
Cyber Systems Operations
Cyber Transport Systems
Cyber Surety
Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
Minimum rank of SSgt
6 months OJT for retrainees
Completion of AFSC specific requirements
Completion of AETC Supplemental training courses
Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
A. Communications Focal Point.
B. Unit Deployment Monitor.
C. Enterprise Service Desk.
D. Quality Assurance.
What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
A. TO 00-5-15.
B. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.
C. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
D. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.
Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized
A. At major command functional managers.
B. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
C. At the Air Force Personnel Center.
D. With career field managers.
Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
A. Program Element Code (PEC).
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
A. Program Element Code (PEC).
B. Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
C. Authorization Change Request (ACR).
D. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
A. Construct career paths.
B. Manage skill-level training requirements.
C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field.
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).
B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
C. Career Field Manager (CFM).
D. SAF/CIO A6.
Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?
A. Segment 1.
B. Segment 2.
C. Segment 3.
D. Segment 4.
Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
A. Draft and sign minutes.
B. Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).
C. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description.
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
B. AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer.
C. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
D. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).
B. Quality Training Package (QTP).
C. Subject Matter Experts (SME).
D. Job Quality Standards (JQS).
What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
A. Remedy.
B. Situational Report (SITREP).
C. Telephone Management System (TMS).
D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
A. Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.
B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
C. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).
D. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.
Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
A. Communications Focal Point.
B. Flight Commander/Chief.
C. Production Controller.
D. Commander.
Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?
A. Master Task List.
B. Job Qualification Standard.
C. Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
D. Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
A. 30.
B. 60.
C. 90.
D. 120.
Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
B. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
C. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
A. AF Form 55.
B. AF Form 971.
C. AF Form 623A.
D. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.
Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
A. Job Safety Training (JST).
B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).
C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA).
D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).
Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
B. Resources required to manage and use TOs.
C. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
D. Training to manage and use TOs.
Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on
A. AFTO Form 673.
B. AFTO Form 22.
C. AF Form 673.
D. AF Form 22.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
A. Library Custodian.
B. Flight commander/chief.
C. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
D. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?
A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
A. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).
B. Commander/director responsible for the guidance.
C. The authoring OPR's supervisor.
D. Publications Manager.
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
A. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
B. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
D. Military only.
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
A. 10.
B. 15.
C. 37.
D. 50.
Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title
A. 15.
B. 18.
C. 32.
D. 37.
Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
A. Wing Commander.
B. Numbered Air Force Commander.
C. Communications Squadron Commander.
D. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
A. Misuse of position.
B. A covered relationships.
C. non-public information.
D. Personal conflict of interest.
Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
A. Military Personnel (MILPERS).
B. Military Construction (MILCON).
C. Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
D. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
A. $100,000.
B. $250,000.
C. $750,000.
D. $1,000,000.
In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
A. 10-401.
B. 33-360.
C. 38-101.
D. 64-117.
At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
A. Approval Official (AO).
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
C. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).
D. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).
Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?
A. Making authorized transactions.
B. Reconciling transactions.
C. Logging transactions.
D. Funds accountability.
Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in
A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-201.
B. Joint Publication 1-02.
C. Joint Publication 1-03.
D. AFI 10-401.
Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
A. Air Force Chief of Staff.
B. Secretary of the Air Force.
C. Selected major command Command Chiefs.
D. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
A. Wing.
B. Group.
C. Squadron.
D. Major command.
Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction
A. 36-2604.
B. 36-2803.
C. 36-2805.
D. 36-2845.
What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?
A. 1 October - 30 September.
B. 1 January - 31 December.
C. 1 April - 31 March.
D. 1 July - 30 June.
What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
A. Monitor.
B. Scanner.
C. Keyboard.
D. Graphics card
A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
A. At least 5.
B. No more than 10.
C. No more than 20.
D. 20 or more.
Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
A. Norton Utilities.
B. Acrobat Reader.
C. Virus Scan.
D. WinZip.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
A. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
C. Distance Vector and Link State.
D. RS-232 and RS-530.
Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
A. Network.
B. Physical.
C. Data Link.
D. Transport.
Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
A. Network.
B. Physical.
C. Data Link.
D. Transport.
Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
A. Network.
B. Physical.
C. Data Link.
D. Transport.
What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?
A. Defense Intelligence Agency.
B. Defense Information Systems Agency.
C. Defense Information Systems Network.
D. Department of Defense Information Networks.
Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?
A. The customer.
B. Security Manager.
C. National Security Agency.
D. Communications Squadron.
What are the two classifications of transport protocols?
A. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.
B. Classful and Connectionless Oriented.
C. Connectionless Oriented and Classless.
D. Classful and Classless.
In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?
A. Authorization.
B. Connection establishment.
C. Establishment of a clear channel.
D. End-to-end connectivity between host applications.
What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?
A. Data receive message.
B. Sliding Window.
C. Buffer.
D. Socket.
Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?
A. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.
B. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data.
C. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data.
D. Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.
What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?
A. Class C.
B. Class D.
C. Class E.
D. Class F.
What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?
A. Class C.
B. Class D.
C. Class E.
D. Class F.
What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back?
A. 0.0.0.0.
B. 127.0.0.1.
C. 207.55.157.255.
D. 255.255.255.255.
Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A. Colon Hexadecimal Format.
B. Dotted Decimal Notation.
C. Hexadecimal.
D. Octal.
Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?
A. Port 80.
B. Port 110.
C. Port 443.
D. Port 8080.
The design of communications network is known as
A. An internet suite.
B. The physical layer.
C. Network architecture.
D. Network implementation.
What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?
A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
B. Virtual Private Network (VPN).
C. Local Area Network (LAN).
D. Wide Area Network (WAN).
What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?
A. Local Area Network (LAN).
B. Wide Area Network (WAN).
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN).
D. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A. 802.11a.
B. 802.11b.
C. 802.11g.
D. 802.11n.
Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?
A. 802.11a.
B. 802.11b.
C. 802.11g.
D. 802.11n.
What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
A. Physical.
B. Logical.
C. Hybrid.
D. Star.
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
A. Bus.
B. Star.
C. Ring.
D. Hybrid.
Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of
A. 256 Kbps.
B. 256 Mbps.
C. 144 Mbps.
D. 144 Kbps.
A modem is a device that
A. Transmits on every link attached to it.
B. Modulates and demodulates data signals.
C. Uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.
D. Operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
A. Hub.
B. Bridge.
C. Switch.
D. Router.
Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and
A. Modulation of datagrams through an internetwork.
B. Layer-1 error determination and correction through an internetwork .
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork .
D. Transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .
What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?
A. Line encryption.
B. Link encryption.
C. Device encryption.
D. End-to-end encryption.
Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?
A. Coaxial cable.
B. Fiber optic cable.
C. Shielded twisted-pair (STP).
D. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).
Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
A. Twisted pair cable.
B. Fiber optic cable.
C. Coaxial cable.
D. Twinax cable.
What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?
A. Policy, Security, Authority.
B. Authority, Security, Law.
C. Law, Authority, Policy.
D. Security, Policy, Law.
What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?
A. Title 10.
B. Title 30.
C. Title 50.
D. Title 52.
Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?
A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
B. Base Defense Operations Center.
C. 624th Operations Center.
D. Air Operations Center.
Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?
A. Information Management.
B. Network-centric warfare.
C. Information Superiority.
D. Information Operations.
What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?
A. Careful planning.
B. Reactive operations.
C. Immediate response.
D. Information Operations.
Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?
A. Electronic attack.
B. Electronic protection.
C. Network Exploitation.
D. Electronic warfare support.
Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?
A. EW concerns radiated energy.
B. CNO concerns radiated energy.
C. EW is only used for offensive purposes.
D. CNO is only used for defensive purposes.
Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?
A. Computer Forensics.
B. Incident Prevention.
C. Incident Detection.
D. Incident Response.
Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?
A. Defense-in-Depth.
B. Proactive Defense.
C. Situational Awareness.
D. Network Standardization
Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?
A. Supervisory System.
B. Remote Terminal Unit.
C. Human Machine Interface.
D. Programmable Logic Controller.
Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?
A. Supervisory System.
B. Remote Terminal Unit.
C. Human Machine Interface.
D. Programmable Logic Controller.
Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
A. Virus.
B. Spam.
C. Spyware.
D. Phishing.
Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
A. Patches.
B. Antivirus.
C. Software removal.
D. Vulnerability scanner.
Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
A. Token.
B. Biometrics.
C. Multifactor.
D. Knowledge-based.
Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?
A. Token.
B. Biometrics.
C. Multifactor.
D. Knowledge-based.
Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
A. Token.
B. Biometrics.
C. Multifactor.
D. Knowledge-based.
What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?
A. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems.
B. End-to-End Performance Monitoring.
C. Vulnerability scanners.
D. Capacity Planning.
Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?
A. Wing commander.
B. Authorizing Official (AO).
C. Wing information security office (WIAO).
D. Communications and information systems officer (CSO).
The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes
A. Only full costs.
B. Recommended course of action only.
C. Full cost and recommended course of action.
D. Full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements.
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
A. Deliberate planning.
B. Crisis action planning.
C. Mobilization planning.
D. Force rotational planning.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
A. Volume 1.
B. Volume 2.
C. Volume 3.
D. Volume 4.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
B. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
C. Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
D. Joint Staff.
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?
A. Standard unit type code (UTC).
B. Joint force/capability.
C. In-lieu-of (ILO).
D. Ad hoc.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
A. Training.
B. Personnel.
C. Facility condition.
D. Equipment condition.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
A. Training.
B. Personnel.
C. Home station mission.
D. Equipment condition.
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
A. 10-201.
B. 10-244.
C. 10-401.
D. 10-403.
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
A. AFI 10-201.
B. AFI 10-244.
C. AFI 10-401.
D. AFI 10-403.
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
A. Pilot Units.
B. Joint Planners.
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron.
D. Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
A. Force protection.
B. Airfield operations.
C. Force accountability.
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
A. Force protection and logistics.
B. Intelligence and force protection.
C. Secure communications and intelligence.
D. Secure communications and force accountability.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
A. Robust the airbase.
B. Operate the airbase.
C. Establish the airbase.
D. Generate the mission.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
A. 2 days, 7 days.
B. 2 days, 14 days.
C. 7 days, 14 days.
D. 14 days, 30 days.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
A. Generate the mission.
B. Establish the airbase.
C. Operate the airbase.
D. Robust the airbase.
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
A. Scott AFB, IL.
B. Travis AFB, CA.
C. Peterson AFB, CO.
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
A. O-4.
B. O-5.
C. O-6.
D. O-7.
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
A. Command and control.
B. Operate the airbase.
C. Robust the airbase.
D. Open the airbase.
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
A. 2 kilometers (km).
B. 4 km.
C. 8 km.
D. 16 km.
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
A. Strategy.
B. Combat plans.
C. Combat support.
D. Combat operations.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
A. MQ-9 Reaper.
B. RQ-11B Raven.
C. MQ-1B Predator.
D. RQ-4B Global Hawk.
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.
B. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
C. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
D. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
A. 38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
B. 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
C. 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
A. 1942.
B. 1954.
C. 1988.
D. 1998.
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
A. MPTO 00-33A-1001.
B. MPTO 00-33A-1002.
C. MPTO 00-33A-2001.
D. MPTO 00-33A-2002.
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
A. funding, execute, close, and control.
B. plan, execute, monitor, and control.
C. plan, execute, close, and control.
D. plan, control, close, and support.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
A. Funding.
B. Technical solution.
C. Requirements management plan.
D. Answers, guidance, and education.
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
A. Processes.
B. Priorities.
C. Requirements.
D. Technical solutions.
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
A. Cost management plan.
B. Allied support plan.
C. Technical plan.
D. Material plan.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
A. The status.
B. A milestone.
C. A deliverable.
D. The final result.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
A. Status request.
B. Defect repairs.
C. Preventive action.
D. Corrective action.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
A. AFTO Form 745.
B. AFTO Form 747.
C. AFTO Form 749.
D. AF Form 1747.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
A. major.
B. minor.
C. Major and minor.
D. Major and critical.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
A. Follow-up.
B. Controlling.
C. Organization.
D. Documenting.
Changes are requested during a project using an
A. AF Form 1146.
B. AF Form 1747.
C. AFTO Form 46.
D. AFTO Form 47.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
A. Project monitor.
B. Project manager.
C. Communication squadron.
D. Implementing organization.
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
A. Project monitor.
B. Project manager.
C. Program action officer.
D. Program action monitor.
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
A. Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
B. Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
D. Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
A. Service improvement.
B. Service transition.
C. Service strategy.
D. Service design.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
A. Service design.
B. Service strategy.
C. Service transition.
D. Service operation.
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
A. AFI 33-115.
B. AFI 33-150.
C. TO 00-33D-3001.
D. TO 00-33D-3004.
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
A. Work orders.
B. Trouble tickets.
C. Infrastructure requirements.
D. Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
A. Organic.
B. Contract.
C. Inorganic.
D. Self-Help.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
A. TO 00-33A-1001.
B. TO 00-33D-3003.
C. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
D. Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
A. Base Communications Systems Officer.
B. Affected Work Center.
C. Base Civil Engineer.
D. Project Managers.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
A. Requires services from outside agencies.
B. Mobility (deployment) equipment.
C. Requires additional manpower.
D. Requires additional funding.
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
A. Concept Plan.
B. Functional Plan.
C. Supporting Plan.
D. Operational Plan.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
A. Concept Plan.
B. Functional Plan.
C. Supporting Plan.
D. Operational Plan.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
A. Programming Plan (PPLAN).
B. Program Action Directive (PAD).
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
D. Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
A. Special Measures.
B. Administration.
C. Assumptions.
D. Logistics.
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?
A. Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum.
B. Facilities Utilization Board.
C. Mission Briefings.
D. Informal Meeting.
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for
A. Safety modifications.
B. T-1 temporary modifications.
C. T-2 temporary modifications.
D. All temporary and permanent modifications.
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?
A. Safety modifications.
B. T-1 temporary modification.
C. T-2 temporary modification.
D. All temporary and permanent modifications.
Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?
A. Request for action and organization validation.
B. Using command and lead command validation.
C. Work center manager certification and approval.
D. Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution.
Support agreements are documented on
A. AF Form 1067.
B. DD Form 1067.
C. AF Form 1144.
D. DD Form 1144.
As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?
A. 6 months.
B. 1 year.
C. 2 years.
D. 3 years.
Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?
A. Unusual or compelling urgency.
B. Unit commander's interest.
C. National security interests.
D. Sole Source.
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?
A. 10 calendar days.
B. 30 calendar days.
C. 35 calendar days.
D. 50 calendar days.
Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates?
A. Sole Source.
B. Firm Fixed Price.
C. Time and Material.
D. Performance Based.
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?
A. Sole Source.
B. Firm Fixed Price.
C. Time and Material.
D. Performance Based.
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?
A. Sole Source.
B. Firm Fixed Price.
C. Time and Material.
D. Performance Based.
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?
A. Sole Source.
B. Time and Material.
C. Indefinite Delivery.
D. Blanket Purchase Agreement.
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program?
A. Contracting Officer Representative.
B. Functional Director/Commander.
C. Quality Assurance Evaluator.
D. Contracting Office.
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?
A. Contracting Officer Representative.
B. Functional Director/Commander.
C. Quality Assurance Evaluator.
D. Contracting Office.
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?
A. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.
B. Contracting Officer Representative.
C. Quality Assurance Evaluator.
D. Unit Contract Monitor.
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?
A. Facility Manager.
B. Quality Assurance Evaluator.
C. Functional Director/Commander.
D. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.
What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?
A. AF Form 332.
B. AF Form 1146.
C. DD Form 1144.
D. DD Form 1391.
Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?
A. Major Construction.
B. Minor Construction.
C. All military construction.
D. None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation.
{"name":"UREs", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?, Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?, Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}