Metabolic kru dalis 1-64

Create an educational illustration showing DNA, RNA, and metabolic pathways with vibrant colors and clear labels that reflect the themes of nucleic acids and metabolism.

Metabolic Processes Quiz

Welcome to the Metabolic Processes Quiz! Test your knowledge on the intricate details of metabolic pathways, nucleic acids, and the various functions of RNA and DNA. This quiz is designed for students and enthusiasts alike, catering to different levels of understanding.

You'll encounter questions covering:

  • Hormonal transport mechanisms
  • DNA and RNA structure
  • Transcription and translation processes
  • Metabolism of purines and pyrimidines
65 Questions16 MinutesCreated by LearningTree97
55. What are the 2 type of hormone transport by its structure ?
A. All class of hormones (Water and lipid soluble ) bound to specific carrier proteins for transport
B. All class of hormones( water and lipid soluble) not require specific carrier proteins for transport
C. Based on structure , there are 2 types of hormone transport 1. Water soluble :are transported in plasma in solution 2.Lipids soluble hormones :circulate in the plasma bound to specific carrier proteins
1. The sugar in RNA is _______ ,the sugar in DNA is ______.
A. deoxyribose, ribose
B. ribose, deoxyribose
D. ribose, uracil
2. Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base:
A. Covalently bonded to a sugar
C. Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
D. None of the above
3. In gel electrophoresis, what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?
A. Large fragment
B. Small fragment
C. Large genome
4. The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA
A. Connect the sugar to the base
B. Can be hydrolyzed by OH ion
C. Stabilized by covalent bonds
5. A nucleotide consists of
A. A sugar, a base and a phosphate
B. A sugar and a phosphate
C. Paired bases
6. Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?
A. Uracil
Phosphate
D. Adenine
7. How many different codons are possible?
A. 3
B. 20
C. 64
8. 8. Codon that specify the amino acids often differs in the
A. First base
B. Second base
C. Third base
9. The sequence of one strand of DNA is 5’ ATTGCCA 3’, what is the sequence of the other strand?
A. 5’ TAACGGT 3’
C. 5' ATTGCCA 3’
D. 5’ UAAGCCU 3’
10. AUG codes for methionine act as a
A. Initiation code
B. Elongation code
D. Propagation code
11. Translation begins
A. At the replication fork
B. On the lagging strand
C. At the start codon
12. RNA polymerase in prokaryotes has a removable
D. Sigma subunit
B. Beta subunit
C. both (a) and (b)
13. What is a promoter?
A. A specific sequence of DNA to which a catabolic repressor binds
B. A specific sequence of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds
C. A specific DNA sequence to which a restriction endonuclease binds d. None of the above
14. The function of the sigma factor of RNA polymerase is to
A. Assure that transcription begins at the proper pont
B. Assure that transcription end at the proper point
C. Assure that translation begins at the proper point
15. In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, a promoter region that is rich in AT bases is called a. CATT
B. RNA primer
C. TATA box
D. Okazaki fragments
16. The major function of RNA polymerase's sigma factor is
A. Recognition of the translation stop sequence
B. Recognition of the transcriptional start sequence
C. Recognition of the transcriptional stop sequence
17. RNA is synthesized on a DNA template in a process called ________, which utilizes the enzyme ________.
A. translation, RNA polymerase
B. transcription, DNA polymerase
C. transcription, RNA polymerase
18. Transcription begins
A. At the start codon
C. Downstream from the start codon
D. None of these
19. Transcription results in
A. An amino acid chain
B. messenger RNA
C. complementary DNA
20. RNA polymerase holoenzyme initiates transcription which involves
A. Recognition of the -10 sequence and -35 sequence
B. Recognition of the -10 sequence only
C. Recognition of the -35 sequence only
21. In prokaryotes, transcription is
A. Terminated by the stop codon
C. Terminated by a poly sequence
B. Terminated by a protein called rho
22. In eukaryotes, there are three different RNA polymerases, The RNA polymerases responsible for transcription of MRNA is
A. RNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase II
C. RNA polymerase III
23. The regions of a gene located at -10 and -35, with respect to the start of transcription, are termed
A. Start codons
C. Okazaki fragments
D. promoters
24. Which pathway is correct for catabolism of purines to form uric acid?
A. Guanylate → Adenylate → Xanthine → hypoxanthine→uric acid
B. Guanylate → inosinate → Xanthine → hypoxanthine → uric acid
d. Adenylate → inosinate → hypoxanthine → uric acid
25. In humans, the principle catabolic product of pyrimidines is: a. Uric acid
B. Allantoin
Beta-Alanine
Hypoxanthine
26. In humans, the principle breakdown product of purines is:
A. Ammonia
D. Uric acid
C. Urea
27. The probable metabolic defect in gout is:
A. A defect in excretion of uric acid by kidney
B. An overproduction of pyrimidine
C. An overproduction of uric acid
28. The anticodon region is an important part of the structure of: a. r-RNA
B. m-RNA
C. Sn-RNA
D. t-RNA
29. If the percentage concentration of thymine in DNA is 40%, the concentration of cytosine will be:
A. 10%
C. 40%
D. 60%
30. If the cytosine content of double stranded DNA is 20% of the total bases, the adenine content will be:
A. 10%
B. 20%
30%
31. m-RNA is a complimentary copy of:
A. A single strand of DNA
B. Ribosomal DNA
C. Ribosomal RNA
32. All of the following statements characterize DNA replication except: a. Growth of the new DNA chains occurs in the 5' to 3' direction
D. DNA is synthesized in a 3' to 5' direction on one parental strand and in a 5' to 3' direction on the other
B. Growth of DNA chain is discontinuous
C. Overall growth of DNA chain is bidirectional
33. Which of the following statements about DNA polymerase I is correct:
A. Lt functions as a DNA repair enzyme, but is not involved in the DNA replication process
B. It requires a template and a primer to polymerise deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
C. Lt joins together Okazaki fragments to complete the lagging strand during DNA replication
34. Short chains of nucleic acid can be isolated from cells in which DNA is undergoing replication. These segments, known as Okazaki fragments, have which of the following properties:
A. They are double-stranded
B. They contain covalently linked RNA and DNA
D. They are removed by nucleaşe activity
35. The nitrogen atoms of urea produced in the urea cycle are derived from a. Nitrate
B. Ammonia and aspartic acid
C. Nitrite
D. ammonia
36. The products of urea cycle are
A. 1 molecule of urea, 1 molecule of ammonia, I molecule of ATP and I molecule of fumaric acid
B. 1 molecule of fumaric acid, I molecule of urea, 1 molecule of AMP, 2 molecules of ADP
C. 1 molecule of aspartic acid, I molecule of ammonia, I molecule of fumaric acid, 1 molecule of ATP
37. Quantitatively the most important enzyme involved on formation of NH, from amino acids in humans is
A. L-amino acid oxidase
B. Serine dehydratase
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
38. Which of the following is used as a carbon atom source while producing urea in the urea cycle?
A. Arginine
B. Aspartic acid
C. Carbon dioxide
39. Urea cycle converts
A. Ammonia into a less toxic form
B. Ketoacids into amino acids
C. Amino acids into ketoacids
40. The inputs to one cycle of the urea cycle are
A. 1 molecule of aspartic acid, 1 molecule of ammonia, I molecule of carbon dioxide, 3 molecules of ATP
B. 1 molecule of urea, I molecule of ammonia, 3 molecules of ATP and 1 molecule of fumaric acid
C. 1 molecule of fumaric acid, 1 molecule of urea, 3 molecules of AMP d. None of the above.
41. Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino
A. Group from an amino acid to a keto acid
B. Acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
C. Acid to a keto acid plus ammonia
42. An example of a transamination process is
B. aspartate + hexanoic acid = glutamate + oxaloacetate
C. aspartate + ∝-ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
D. Glutamate = ∝-ketoglutarate + NH3
43. Transamination is the process where
A. Carboxyl group is transferred from amino acid
B. a-amino group is removed from the amino acid
C. Polymerization of amino acid takes place
44. An example of the oxidative deamination is
A. Glutamate = hexanoic acid + NH3
B. aspartate + hexanoic acid = glutamate + oxaloacetate
D. Glutamate = a-ketoglutarate + NH3
45. Transamination is the transfer of amino acids
A. Acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
B. Group from an amino acid to keto acid
C. Acid to a keto acid plus ammonia
46. An organ which is extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity is
a. Liver
B. Brain
C. Kidney
47. Ammonia is transported from muscles to liver mainly in the form of
A. Free ammonia
B. Glutamate
D. alanine
48. The major síte of urea synthesis is
A. Brain
C. Liver
D. muscles
49. Carbonyl phosphate required for urea synthesis is formed in
A. Cytosol
B. Mitochondria
C. Both (A) and (B)
50. Cytosolic and mitochondrial carbonyl phosphate synthesis have the following similarity:
A. Both use ammonia as a substance
B. Both provide carbonyl phosphate for urea synthesis
C. Both require N-acetylglutamate as an activator
51. All the following statements about pepsin are correct except:
A. It is smaller than pepsinogen
B. It is formed by the action of HCL on its precursor
D. It hydrolyses the C-terminal and N-terminal peptide bonds of proteins
52. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of all of the following except
a. Trypsin
B. Chymotrypsin
D. Aminopeptidase
53. The only correct statement about chymotrypsin is
A. It is formed from trypsin
B. Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin into chymotrypsin
C. Its optimum pH is around 7
54. Pepsin acts on denatured proteins to produce
A. Proteoses and peptones
Peptides
D. Dipeptides
55. An expopeptidase is
B. Chymotrypsin
D. Elastase
A. Trypsin
56. Pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin by
B. Bile salts
a. HCL
C. Ca++
57. The optimal pH for the enzyme rennin is
A. 2.0
B. 4.0
C. 8.0
58. The optimal pH for the enzyme trypsin is
a. 1-2
B. 2-4
D. 8-9
59. The optimal pH for the enzyme chymotrypsin is
A. 2.0
B. 4.0
D. 8.0
60. Trypsinogen is converted to active trypsin by
A. Enterokinase
B. Bile salts
C. HCL
61. The end product of protein digestion in G.I.T.is
A. Dipeptide
B. Tripeptide
D. Amino acid
62. The main sites for oxidative deamination are
A. Liver and kidney
B. Skin and pancreas
C. Intestine and mammary gland
63. The enzymes of urea synthesis are found in
A. Mitochondria only
B. Cytosol only
C. Both mitochondria and cytosol
64. In urea synthesis, the amino acid functioning solely as an enzyme activator:
A. N-acetyl glutamate
B. Ornithine
C. Citrulline
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