Clinical pharmacy

The Hospital formulary consist of list of ………… in hospital? Choose one correct answer.
Instruments
Drugs
Staffs
Patients
Which of the following statement is the part of Hospital formulary? Choose one correct answer.
Information on hospital policies
Drug product list
Special Information
Answer a, b and c are correct
Ambulatory patients refer to, Choose one correct answer.
Patient require to admit in the ward
Patient require in emergency treatment
Patient required to go home after taking treatment in OPD
None of above the above answer
Over the Counter (OTC) medicine means: Choose one correct answer.
A. Medicine given under medical supervision
B. Medicine purchase without prescription
C. Medicine sold required by a medical prescription
D. None above answer
5. Below medicines, which medicine is OTC medicine. Choose two correct answers.
a. Pholcodine
B. Amoxicillin
C. Dextromethorphan
d. Ciprofloxacin
6. Rx medicine means: Choose two correct answers.
a. Medicine given under medical supervision
b. Medicine purchase without prescription
C. Medicine sold required by a medical prescription
None above answer
7. Below medicines, which medicine is Rx medicine. Choose two correct answers.
a. Pholcodine
B. Amoxicillin
B. Amoxicillin
B. Amoxicillin
8. Hospital Service Pharmacy deal with: Choose one correct answer.
A. Procurement of drug
B. Manufacturing of drug
B. Manufacturing of drug
D. The answer a, b and c are correct
9. Qualities required by the Pharmacist to ensure the correct and good of drug distribution are: Choose two correct answers.
A. Awareness of source of information of drug
B. Awareness of drug medication
C. Technology of computer skill
D. All of above
10. Abilities of Pharmacist required in Hospital Pharmacy are: Choose one correct answer.
A. Technical ability
B. Ability to control inventory
C. Ability to conduct and participate in research & teaching
D. The answer a, b and c are correct
11. The functions of Hospital Pharmacist are all below except one:
A. Manufacturing and dispensing drug
B. Proper storing of drug
C. Provide specification for the purchase of drugs, chemicals, biologicals …etc
D. Prescribe drug
12. The Objective of Hospital Pharmacy are all below except one:
A. Ensure availability of the right medication
B. Professionalize the function of pharmaceutical service in hospital
C. Co-ordinate and co-operate with other department in hospital
D. Diagnosing, assessing and planning for the treatment
13. Who have right to prescribe the medicine to the patients? Choose two correct answers
A. Doctor
B. Pharmacist
C. Dentist
D. Nurse
14. Prescription is a ……., choose one correct answer.
A. Diagnosis report to patient
B. Dietary information to patient
C. A written order from a medical doctor
D. Description of patient symptoms
15. The following part are the part of the prescription format, except one:
A. Head
B. Body
C. Closing
D. Cost drug
16. In the Heading format of prescription contain, Choose two correct answers
A. Patient Information
B. Diagnosis
C. Name and drug dose
D. Name and signature of doct
17. In the Body format of prescription contain, Choose two correct answers.
A. Patient Information
B. Diagnosis
C. Name and strength of drug
D. Direction of drug using for patient
18. In the Closing format of prescription contain, Choose two correct answers
A. Name and strength of drug
B. Name and signature of doctor
C. Date of prescribe and Return date
D. Direction of drug using for patient
19. One patient needs to use Paracetamol 0.5g three time per day for 5days. But in our Pharmacy stock, we have only Paracetamol 250mg. How many tablets of Paracetamol 250mg that we should give to this patient? Choose one correct answer
A. 25 tablets
B. 15 tablets
C. 30 tablets
D. 7.5 tablets
20. A hand writing prescription must be, Choose two correct answers.
A. Readable
B. In a short cut written
C. Understandable
D. All abbreviations must be used
21. Choose two correct statement about the role of the Health Care professional, the role of Medical doctor are:
A. Diagnosis & prescription
B. Dispensing medicine
C. Monitoring and medical care
d. Validate prescription & pharmaceutical care
22. Choose two correct statement about the role of the Health Care professional, the role of Pharmacist are:
A. Diagnosis & prescription
B. Dispensing medicine
C. Monitoring and medical care
D. Validate prescription & pharmaceutical care
23. Choose two correct statement about role of the Health Care professional, the role of Nurse are:
A. Diagnosis & prescription
B. Dispensing medicine
C. Monitoring and nursing care
D. Administering
24. Choose two correct statement about role of the Health Care professional, the role of Dentist are:
A. Dental care
B. Prescription
C. Dispensing medicine
D. Monitor stock medicine
25. The science and practice of rationale use of medications, where the pharmacists are more oriented towards the patient care rationalizing medication therapy promoting health, wellness of people is called, one correct answer:
A. Pharmacology
B. Pharmacokinetic
C. Clinical Pharmacy
D. Pharmacodynamic
26. ICU stand for, One correct answer:
A. Intensive Colony Units
B. International Care Units
C. Intensive Care Units
D. Intensive Color Units
27. When the bioavailability of the drug from different formulation is the same it is call as: One correct answer:
A. Bioassay
B. Bioequivalence
C. Bioavailability
D. Biopharmaceutics
28. OTC stands for ………….., One correct answer:
A. Over the Cost
b. Over the Control
C. Over the Counter
d. Out time Care
29. Increase glucose in blood is called, One correct answer:
A. Hyperkalamia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hypernatraemia
30. A condition affecting the bone structure cause by loss of bone density is, one answer:
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Arthritis
31. What is the number of pharmacists required in large hospitals that have 100 beds, departmentalization of pharmacy activities is required: Choose one correct answer.
A. 2 pharmacists
b. 3 pharmacists
C. 5 pharmacists
D. 7 pharmacists
32. What is the number of pharmacists required in large hospitals that have 200 beds, departmentalization of pharmacy activities is required: Choose one correct answer.
A. 2 pharmacists
B. 3 pharmacists
C. 5 pharmacists
D. 7 pharmacists
33. What is the number of pharmacists required in large hospitals that have 500 beds, departmentalization of pharmacy activities is required: Choose one correct answer.
A. 2 pharmacists
b. 3 pharmacists
C. 5 pharmacists
D. 7 pharmacists
34. The department headed hospital pharmacy must be: choose one answer that is not correct.
A. A legally qualified pharmacist
B. Supervises and ensure the correct dispending, compounding and distribution of medication to in and out patients
C. Must be in charge of the mistake happen in hospital pharmacy
D. Must be responsible on your own mistake only
35. Tab or Tabs is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer.
A. Table
b. Tablet
C. Tabulation
D. Tablespoons
36. Cap or Caps is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer.
A. Capacity
B. Caplet
C. Capsule
D. Capture
37. Sus or Susp is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer.
A. Suspension
B. Suspend
C. Susceptive
D. Suspicious
38. Inj. Is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer.
A. Injunction
B. Injection
C. Injustice
D. Injury
39. Amp is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer
A. Ampule
B. Ampicillin
c. Amplification
D. Amplitude
40. IV is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer.
A. Ivory
B. Ivy
C. Intravenous
d. Ivermectin
41. IM is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer.
A. International
b. Intramuscular
C. Immediately
d. Immunity
42. Bot is the abbreviation used in prescription for, Choose one correct answer.
A. Botanist
B. Bottoms
C. Bottlebrush
d. Bottle
43. B.D or b.d or bid, abbreviation doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer.
A. Once a day
B. Twice a day
C. Thrice a day
D. Four time a day
44. OD or o.d, abbreviation that doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer.
A. Once a day
B. Twice a day
C. Thrice a day
d. Four time a day
45. TID or t.i.d, abbreviation that doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer.
A. Once a day
b. Twice a day
C. Thrice a day
D. Four time a day
46. qid, abbreviation that doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer
A. Once a day
b. Twice a day
C. Thrice a day
D. Four time a day
47. QD or qd, abbreviation that doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer.
A. Every day
B. Every hour
C. Every morning
d. Every 6h
48. qh, abbreviation that doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer.
A. Every day
B. Every hour
C. Every morning
d. Every 6h
49. qam, abbreviation that doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer.
A. Every day
B. Every hour
C. Every morning
d. Every 6h
50. q6h, abbreviation that doctor write in prescription mean, Choose one correct answer.
A. Every day
B. Every hour
c. Every morning
D. Every 6h
1. Any response to a drug which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy of disease is, one answer:
A. Therapeutic affect
b. Efficacy dose
C. Toxicity dose
d. Adverse drug reaction
2. Adverse Drug Reaction is generally most common in all except one:
A. Women & elderly (>60 years olds)
B. Patient take one drug prescribed correctly by medical doctor
C. Patient taking more than one drug
D. Very young (1 year to 4 years)
3. A pharmacological dose unwanted unavoidable effects are called, One correct answer:
A. Side effect
B. Toxicity
C. Tolerability
D. Synergy
4. Select two drugs which are contraindicated in pregnancy is:
A. Ampicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Phenytoin
5. One drug that cause congenital malformation is:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Co-trimoxazol
C. Thalidomide
D. Terfenadine
6. Which of the two statements below are the teratogenic effect of the drug:
A. Tetracycline: Teeth abnormalities
B. Chloramphenicol: Blood Dyscrasias
C. Thalidomide: Limb defect
D. Co-trimoxazol: Serious allergic reaction
7. One drug use during (second half of pregnancy) may affect tooth (yellow-gray-brown discoloration) and bone development in the unborn baby:
A. Thalidomide
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
d. Co-trimoxazol
8. ADRs Traditional classification , they class by: one correct answer:
A. Type A , Type B , Type C & Type D
B. Type A , Type B , Type C
C. Type A & Type B
D. Type C & Type D
9. ADRs classification by Rawlin & Thompson , they class by: one correct answer:
A. Type A , Type B , Type C & Type D
B. Type A , Type B , Type C
C. Type A & Type B
D. Type C & Type D
10. Type A of ADRs is…………: one correct answer:
A. Predictable, acute, related to mechanism of action
B. Unpredictable, sub-acute, not related to known mechanism
C. Chronic effects
D. Delayed effects
11. Type B of ADRs is………….: one correct answer:
A. Predictable, acute, related to mechanism of action
B. Unpredictable, sub-acute, not related to known mechanism
C. Chronic effects
D. Delayed effects
12. Type C of ADRs is ………..: one correct answer:
A. Predictable, acute, related to mechanism of action
B. Unpredictable, sub-acute, not related to known mechanism
C. Chronic effects
D. Delayed effects
13. Type D of ADRs is ………..: one correct answer:
A. Predictable, acute, related to mechanism of action
B. Unpredictable, sub-acute, not related to known mechanism
C. Chronic effects
D. Delayed effects
14. What is Pharmacokinetics is …………. : one correct answer:
A. Study about what the body does to the drug
B. Study about what the drug does to the body
C. Study about the cost & efficacy enhance quality of life
D. Study of how people respond to drug based on their gene
15. What is Pharmacodynamics is …………..: one correct answer:
A. Study about what the body does to the drug
B. Study about what the drug does to the body
C. Study about the cost & efficacy enhance quality of life
D. Study of how people respond to drug based on their gene
16. What is Pharmacogenetic ………….. : one correct answer:
A. Study about what the body does to the drug
B. Study about what the drug does to the body
C. Study about the cost & efficacy enhance quality of life
D. Study of how people respond to drug based on their gene
17. What is Pharmacoeconomic is ……………: one correct answer:
A. Study about what the body does to the drug
B. Study about what the drug does to the body
C. Study about the cost & efficacy enhance quality of life
D. Study of how people respond to drug based on their gene
18. Drug-Drug Interactions give an effect Potentiation is ………..: one correct answer:
A. Drugs with similar actions cause an additive effect Study
B. Two drugs compete for protein binding sites
C. One drug accelerates or slows the metabolism or excretion of another drug
D. One drug decreases the effectiveness of another drug because of divergent actions
19. Drug-Drug Interactions give an effect Interferrence is …………: one correct answer:
A. Drugs with similar actions cause an additive effect Study
B. Two drugs compete for protein binding sites
C. One drug accelerates or slows the metabolism or excretion another drug
D. One drug decreases the effectiveness of another drug bc of divergent actions
20. Drug-Drug Interactions give an effect Displacement is ………: one correct answer:
A. Drugs with similar actions cause an additive effect Study
B. Two drugs compete for protein binding sites
C. One drug accelerates or slows the metabolism or excretion of another drug
D. One drug decreases the effectiveness of another drug because of divergent actions
21. Drug-Drug Interactions give an effect Antagonism is …………: one correct answer:
A. Drugs with similar actions cause an additive effect Study
B. Two drugs compete for protein binding sites
C. One drug accelerates or slows the metabolism or excretion of another drug
D. One drug decreases the effectiveness of another drug because of divergent actions
22. Which one of this is used to increase the serum level of Penicillin
A. Aspirin
B. Ranitidine
C. Aluminium Hydroxide gel
D. Probenecid
23. What effects occurs when NSAIDS take with Alcohol, one correct answer:
A. Allergic reaction
B. Increase effect of NSAIDS
C. Gastric bleeding
D. Electrolyte imbalance
24. Tetracycline should not be given with antacids because antacids …………. The absorption of tetracycline. One correct answer:
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. No change
D. None of these
25. An anormal response of the immune system to an antigen is called, One correct answer:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hyperpyrexia
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Hypertension
1. What is the normal percentage (%) of Neutrophils in White Blood Cell (WBC) count: Choose one correct answer:
A. 40 – 70
B. 20 – 45
C. 2 – 6
D. 0 – 1
2. What is the normal percentage (%) of Basophils in White Blood Cell (WBC) count: Choose one correct answer
A. 40 – 70
B. 20 – 45
C. 0 – 2
D. 0 – 6
3. What is the normal percentage (%) of Lymphocyte in White Blood Cell (WBC) count: Choose one correct answer:
A. 40 – 70
B. 22 – 44
C. 0 – 6
D. 0 – 4
4. What is the normal percentage (%) of Monocyte in White Blood Cell (WBC) count: Choose one correct answer:
A. 40 – 70
b. 22 – 44
C. 0 – 7
d. 0 – 4
5. What is the normal percentage (%) of Eosinophil in White Blood Cell (WBC) count: Choose one correct answer:
A. 40 – 70
b. 22 – 44
c. 0 – 6
D. 0 – 4
6. Which lipoprotein below is the good cholesterol: Choose one correct answer:
A. Total cholesterol
b. LDL cholesterol
C. HLD cholesterol
D. Triglyceride
7. Which lipoprotein below is the bad cholesterol: Choose one correct answer:
A. Total cholesterol
B. LDL cholesterol
C. HLD cholesterol
D. Triglyceride
8. What is the range normal (desirable range) of Triglyceride: Choose one correct answer:
A. <200mg/dL
B. <150mg/dL
C. <100mg/dL
D. >40mg/dL
9. What is the range normal (desirable range) of total cholesterol: Choose one correct answer:
A. <200mg/dL
B. <150mg/dL
C. <100mg/dL
D. >40mg/dL
10. What is the range normal (desirable range) of LDL cholesterol: Choose one correct answer:
A. <200mg/dL
B. <150mg/dL
C. <100mg/dL
D. >40mg/dL
11. What is the range normal (desirable range) of HDL cholesterol: Choose one correct answer:
A. <200mg/dL
B. <150mg/dL
C. <100mg/dL
D. >40mg/dL
12. Below is the cause of High Triglycerides, except one:
A. Obesity and overweight
B. Physical inactivity
C. Excess alcohol intake
D. Regular exercise
13. Below is the cause of High LDL cholesterol, except one:
A. High blood pressure
b. Low HDL cholesterol
C. Control carbohydrate intakes
D. Cigarette smoking
14. Below is the cause of Low HDL cholesterol, except one:
A. Exercise 30mn daily
B. Obesity and overweight
C. Physical inactivity
D. Very high carbohydrate intakes
15. Hepatitis B Surface Antigen Testing is written as …………. Abbreviation in medical analysis laboratory, choose one correct answer:
A. AgHBs
B. AbHBs
c. HbA1c
d. HCV
16. Hepatitis B surface antibody Testing is written as …………. Abbreviation in medical analysis laboratory, choose one correct answer:
A. AgHBs
B. AbHBs
C. HbA1c
D. HCV
17. What is the normal percentage (%) of Neutrophils in White Blood Cell (WBC) count: Choose one correct answer:
A. 40 – 70
B. 20 – 45
c. 2 – 6
D. 0 – 1
18. CBC & ABO blood group testing is classified in what division in medical analysis laboratory: Choose one correct answer:
A. Biochemistry
b. Hematology
C. Serology
d. Immunology
19. H.Pylori & ASLO testing is classified in what division in medical analysis laboratory: Choose one correct answer:
A. Biochemistry
B. Hematology
C. Serology
D. Immunology
20. HIV testing is classified in what division in medical analysis laboratory: Choose one correct answer:
A. Biochemistry
b. Hematology
c. Serology
d. Immunology
21. Glycemie, HbA1C, Uric acid testing is classified in what division in medical analysis laboratory: Choose one correct answer:
A. Biochemistry
b. Hematology
C. Serology
d. Immunology
22. Increase glucose in blood is called, One correct answer:
A. Hyperkalamia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hypernatraemia
23. An anormal response of the immune system to an antigen is called, One correct answer:
A. Hyperplasia
b. Hyperpyrexia
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Hypertensive
24. Below are not the cause of elevation of Neutrophilia, except one:
A. Acute and chronic bacterial infection
B. Increase triglyceride
C. Increase LDL
d. Decrease HLD
25. Below is the cause of elevation of Uric Acid, except one:
A. Drinking too much alcohol
B. Genetics
C. Allergic reaction
d. Purine-rich diet (eat lots of liver, meat)
1. What is the step involved in pre-clinical stage in clinical trial? Choose two correct answers.
A. Identify drug target
B. Safety study
C. Filing for an approval as an IND
D. Determine dose
2. Pre-clinical stage in clinical trial is doing ……………………? Choose two correct answers.
A. In Vitro (test tube or cell culture)
B. In Vivo (animal)
C. In Vivo (person)
D. In Vivo (animal & person)
3. The lead time of pre-clinical stage is generally, Choose two correct answer.
A. Range from 1-3 months
B. Range from 1-3 years
C. Average 18months
D. Average 2 years
4. Investigation new drug (IND) is developing in, Choose one correct answer:
A. Phase 3
b. Phase 2
C. Phase 1
D. Pre-Clinical phase
5. The lead time of Investigation new drug (IND) file in FDA generally is, Choose one correct answer:
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
6. The lead time of Clinical phase (phase I, II & III) is generally, Choose two correct answers:
A. Range 2 to 10 months
B. Average 5months
C. Range 2 to 10 years
D. Average 5years
7. NDA is filling into FDA for approval for by Innovator company in what phase, Choose one correct answer:
A. Phase III
B. After Phase III
C. Before Phase III
D. Phase IV
8. From submission until getting the approval from FDA, the lead time submission in FDA is generally takes, Choose two correct answers:
A. Range 2months to 7 years
B. Range 2 months to 7 months
C. Average 2 years
D. Average 5months
9. The optimum dose therapy is determined in which phase in Clinical Trials? Choose one correct answer:
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
10. What are the two important evaluations of therapeutic regimens done in Phase II, Choose two correct answers:
A. Efficacy in patient
B. Toxicity in patient
C. Safety in patient
D. Tolerability in patient
11. SAD in phase I of clinical trials mean, one correct answer:
A. Single Ascending Dose
B. Single Ascending Drug
C. Some Additional Dose
D. Some Additional Drug
12. MAD in phase I of clinical trials mean, one correct answer:
A. Multiple Ascending Dose
B. Multiple Ascending Drug
C. Main Additional Dose
D. Main Additional Drug
13. Post Marketing Surveillance (PMS) is studied in which phase of clinical trial, one correct answer:
A. Pre-clinical phase
B. Phase IV
C. Phase III
D. Phase II
14. Pharmacovigilance is studied in which phase of clinical trial, one correct answer:
A. Pre-clinical phase
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
15. Phase IIA is designed to assess dosing requirement mean to know, one correct answer:
A. How much drug should be given
B. How well the drug work at the prescribe dose
C. How Single Ascending Dose is
D. How Multiple Ascending Dose is
16. Phase IIB is designed to assess dosing requirement mean to know, one correct answer:
A. How much drug should be given
B. How well the drug work at the prescribe dose
C. How Single Ascending Dose is
D. How Multiple Ascending Dose is
17. Choose two correct answer that is significant to Phase IIA:
A. Early in phase
B. Late in phase
C. Single blind comparison with a standard drug
D. Double blind compared with a placebo or standard drug
18. Choose two correct answer that is significant to Phase IIB:
A. Early in phase
B. Late in phase
C. Single blind comparison with a standard drug
D. Double blind compared with a placebo or standard drug
19. The number of volunteers taken in clinical trial in phase I in general is, one correct answer:
A. About 30
B. 100 - 300
C. 300 - 3000
D. All above answer
20. The number of volunteers taken in clinical trial in phase II in general is, one correct answer:
A. 20 – 30
B. 100 – 300
C. 300 - 3000
D. All above answer
21. The number of volunteers taken in clinical trial in phase III in general is, one correct answer:
A. 20 – 30
B. 100 - 300
C. 300 – 3000
D. All above answer
22. The Safety and Pharmacokinetic studies are conducted which phase in clinical trial, choose one correct answer:
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
23. Which phase of the clinical trial is called as the final confirmation of therapeutic for a new drug, one correct answer:
A. Phase I
b. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
24. Conduct in Vitro & in Vivo (animal) is the Phase …... In clinical trial? One correct answer:
A. Phase 0
B. Phase I
c. Phase II
D. Phase III
25. Human Pharmacology phase is the Phase …... In clinical trial? One correct answer:
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
d. Phase IV
26. Therapeutic exploratory phase is the Phase …... In clinical trial? One correct answer:
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
27. Final therapeutic confirmation phase is the Phase …... In clinical trial? One correct answer:
A. Phase I
b. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
28. Post Marketing Surveillance phase is the Phase …... In clinical trial? One correct answer:
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
29. What is the life of a patented drug given to an innovator company to manufacture their medicine they create, One correct answer:
A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 20 years
D. 25 years
30. Which of the following is not the player in clinical trial, One correct answer:
A. Human subject volunteers
B. Physician Investigator & staffs
C. FDA (Food and Drug Authority or Administration)
D. MoC (Ministry of Commerce)
31. In which of the following phase of clinical trials healthy normal human volunteers participate, choose one correct answer:
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV
32. The aims of post marketing study is ………, One correct answer:
A. Efficacy of the drug
b. Dosage of the drug c. Pharmacokinetic
C. Pharmacokinetic
D. Safety and comparison with other medicine
33. Pharmacovigilance means, One correct answer:
A. Monitoring drug safety
B. Monitoring drug efficacy
c. Monitoring pharmacy student
D. Monitoring of unethical trade of the drug
34. Which of the following phase of the clinical trials is carried out after a new drug marked, choose one correct answer:
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
c. Phase III
D. Phase IV
1. Choose two correct statements about the role of the Health Care professional, the role of Medical doctor are:
A. Diagnosis & prescription
B. Dispensing medicine
C. Monitoring and medical care
D. Validate prescription & pharmaceutical care
2. Choose two correct statements about the role of the Health Care professional, the role of Pharmacist are:
A. Diagnosis & prescription
B. Dispensing medicine
C. Monitoring and medical care
D. Validate prescription & pharmaceutical care
3. Choose two correct statements about role of the Health Care professional, the role of Nurse are:
A. Diagnosis & prescription
B. Dispensing medicine
C. Monitoring and nursing care
D. Administering
4. Choose two correct statements about role of the Health Care professional, the role of Dentist are:
A. Dental care
B. Prescription
C. Dispensing medicine
D. Monitor stock medicine
5. The science and practice of rationale use of medications, where the pharmacists are more oriented towards the patient care rationalizing medication therapy promoting health, wellness of people is called, one correct answer:
A. Pharmacology
B. Pharmacokinetic
C. Clinical Pharmacy
D. Pharmacodynami
6. Two incidences start in 1960 made a concept for clinical pharmacology / pharmacy, what are the medicines that cause of the two incidences:
A. Thalidomide
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Phenytoin
7. Thalidomide was first market in which country, One correct answer:
A. Europe
B. Germany
C. Australia
D. USA
8. Thalidomide was first market as, two correct answer:
A. An OTC medicine
B. A Rx medicine
C. An anxiety, trouble sleeping, and morning sickness
D. Cancer and Leprosy treatment
9. When was the incidence of Phenytoin toxicity happen? One correct answer:
A. 1953
B. 1960
c. 1962
D. 1968
10. In which country the incidence of Phenytoin toxicity was first reported? One correct answer:
A. Europe
B. Germany
C. Australia
d. USA
11. ICU stand for, One correct answer:
A. Intensive Colony Units
B. International Care Units
C. Intensive Care Units
D. Intensive Color Units
12. When the bioavailability of the drug from different formulation is the same it is call as: One correct answer:
A. Bioassay
B. Bioequivalence
C. Bioavailability
D. Biopharmaceutics
13. OTC stands for ………….., One correct answer:
A. Over the Cost
B. Over the Control
C. Over the Counter
D. Out time Care
14. Increase glucose in blood is called, One correct answer:
A. Hyperkalamia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hypernatraemia
15. Clinical Pharmacy activities may influence the correct use of medicine at three different levels, one correct answer:
A. Before, during & after drug dispensing
B. Before, during & after drug manufacturing
C. Before, during & after drug using
D. Before, during & after drug prescription
16. Choose the correct two answers about the medication related problem:
A. Drug counselling
B. Untreated indication
C. Drug interaction
D. Drug information
17. Select two statements below that are the Clinical Pharmacist activities
A. Drug selection & drug information
B. Diagnosis
C. Medication review
D. Medical care
18. Select two statements below that are the Clinical Pharmacist function:
A. Medical history and Medical care
B. Safe drug use & Pharmacoeconomic
C. Diagnosis and order Lab test
D. Patient education & Patient counseling
19. Select two statements below that are the Clinical Pharmacist requirement:
A. Knowledge of drug therapy
B. Communication skills
C. Prescribe medicine
D. Diagnosis and order lab test
20. The responsible provision of drug therapy for the purpose of achieving definite therapeutic outcomes that improve patient quality of life is called, one correct answer:
A. Pharmacology
B. Clinical Pharmacy
C. Pharmaceutical Care
D. Pharmacoeconomic
21. Choose two statements that are the outcome of Pharmaceutical care:
A. Cure disease
B. Arrest or slowing disease process
C. Sub-therapeutic dosage
D. Medication without indication
22. The two essential components of Pharmaceutical Care are:
A. Pharmacist – Doctor relationship
B. Pharmacist team work with another department
C. Pharmacist-patient relationship
D. Pharmacist work up of drug therapy
23. Choose two statements that are the Clinical skill of Pharmacist role in Pharmaceutical care:
A. Drug treatment protocol
B. Drug cost
C. Dosage adjustment
D. Disease protocol treatment
24. Choose two statements that are the aims of Pharmaceutical care:
A. Effective, Safe and economic drug therapy
B. Improve quality of life
C. Medical record
D. Patient filling
25. All are the problem result it treatment failure except one:
A. Inappropriate selection medication
B. Inappropriate administration of drug therapy
C. Inappropriate monitor drug therapy
D. None of above
26. All are the patient assessment questions, except one:
A. Does the patient need this drug?
B. Does the patient need for how many days?
C. Is this drug the most effective and safe?
D. Are there any drug interactions
1. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual and potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage, it is called: one correct answer:
A. NSAIDS
B. Migraine
C. Pain
D. Depression
2. It is caused by an injury to the body. It warns of potential damage that requires action by the brain, and it can develop slowly or quickly. It can last for a few minutes to six months and goes away when the injury heals, it is called: one correct answer:
A. Acute Pain
B. Chronic Pain
C. Somatic Pain
D. Visceral Pain
3. It persists long after the trauma has healed (and in some cases, it occurs in the absence of any trauma). This pain does not warn the body to respond, and it usually lasts longer than six months, it is called: one correct answer:
A. Acute Pain
B. Chronic Pain
C. Somatic Pain
D. Visceral Pain
4. It originates in the skin, muscles, bones or connective tissue with sharp sensation of a paper cut or aching of sprained ankle, it is called: one correct answer:
A. Acute Pain
B. Chronic Pain
C. Somatic Pain
D. Visceral Pain
5. It poorly located and may have cramping, throbbing, pressing, or aching quality. It Often associate with feeling sick, it is called: one correct answer
A. Acute Pain
B. Chronic Pain
C. Somatic Pain
D. Visceral Pain
6. The pain that is experienced by people with damaged or malfunctioning nerves, it is called: one correct answer:
A. Neuropathic Pain
B. Chronic Pain
C. Somatic Pain
D. Visceral Pain
7. Two medications below (medicines) used for pain management for step 3:
A. Fentanyl
B. Ibuprofenb
C. Aspirin
D. Morphine
8. Two medications below (medicines) used for pain management for step 2:
A. Tramadol
B. Codeine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Aspirin
9. Two medications below (medicines) used for pain management for step 1:
A. Fentanyl
B. Ibuprofen
C. Paracetamol
D. Morphine
10. Intensity of Pain is classified rating from 1 to 10, Mild Pain is rating from, one correct answer:
A. Rating from 1 to 3
B. Rating from 4 to 6
C. Rating from 5 to 10
D. Rate from 7 to 10
11. Intensity of Pain is classified rating from 1 to 10, Moderate Pain is rating from, one correct answer:
A. Rating from 1 to 3
B. Rating from 4 to 6
C. Rating from 5 to 10
D. Rating from 7 to 10
12. Intensity of Pain is classified rating from 1 to 10, Severe Pain is rating from, one correct answer
A. Rating from 1 to 3
B. Rating from 4 to 6
C. Rating from 5 to 10
D. Rating from 7 to 10
13. Two statements below are the Key strategies of pain treatment, what are they
A. Acknowledge and accepting client’s pain
B. Reduce fear and misconceptions about pain
C. Knowledge about protocol of pain treatment
D. Knowledge about patient family
14. What are the medications (medicine) use it treatment mild pain, choose two that are correct:
A. Tramadol
B. Paracetamol
C. Ibuprofen
D. Codeine
15. What are the medications (medicine) use it treatment moderate pain, choose two that are correct:
A. Paracetamol + Tramadol
b. Paracetamol + Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Fentanyl
16. WHO classified 3 steps Analgesic Ladder, choose two drugs that is in step 1:
A. Tramadol
B. Codeine
C. Paracetamol
D. Ibuprofen
17. WHO classified 3 steps Analgesic Ladder, choose two drugs that is in step 2:
A. Tramadol
B. Codeine
C. Paracetamol
D. Ibuprofen
18. WHO classified 3 steps Analgesic Ladder, choose two drugs that is in step 3:
A. Tramadol
B. Morphine
C. Codeine
D. Fentanyl
19. Two below statements are the common adverse effects of opioids are, what are they:
A. Diarrhea
b. Nausea & vomiting
C. Constipation
D. Non-drowsy
20. Two below NSAIDS are in Propionic acid, what are they:
A. Meloxicam
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diclofenac
D. Naproxen
21. Two below NSAIDS are in Enolic acid, what are they:
A. Meloxicam
B. Ibuprofen
C. Piroxicam
D. Naproxen
22. Two below NSAIDS are in Acetic acid, what are they:
A. Meloxicam
B. Indomethacin
C. Diclofenac
D. Naproxen
23. Two below NSAIDS are in Salicylate, what are they:
A. Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid)
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Ketoprofen
d. Salsalate
24. Two below NSAIDS are the Selective COX-2 inhibitor, what are they:
A. Celecoxib
B. Meloxicam
C. Etoricoxib
d. Indomethacin
25. Below NSAIDS are in Fenamic acid, except two drugs:
A. Mefenamic acid
B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Meclofenamic acid
D. Indomethacin
26. Excessive use of paracetamol (acetaminophen) can cause: choose one correct answer:
A. Kidney failure
B. GI problem
C. Liver failure
D. None of above
27. Treatment non-pharmacologic for pain that is used Ice and/or heat therapy is called, choose one correct answer:
A. Thermal Therapy
B. TENS Therapy
C. Bed Rest Therapy
D. Distraction Therapy
28. Uses a battery-operated unit with electrodes applied to the skin to produce a tingling, vibrating, or buzzing sensation in the area of pain is called: choose one correct answer:
A. Thermal Therapy
B. TENS Therapy
C. Bed Rest Therapy
D. Distraction Therapy
29. It is an intense throbbing or pulsing headache, it's commonly in one area of the head but it could be in both. Sometimes it accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and extreme sensitivity to light and sound, It is called: choose one correct answer:
A. Headache
B. Migraine
C. Sinus headache
D. Cluster headache
30. One type of headache that the pain located behind the browbone and/or cheekbones, it is called, choose one correct answer:
A. Tension Headache
B. Migraine
C. Sinus headache
D. Cluster headache
31. One type of headache that the pain located in and around one eye, it is called, choose one correct answer:
A. Tension Headache
B. Migraine
C. Sinus headache
D. Cluster headache
32. One type of headache that the pain located like a band squeezing the head, it is called: choose one correct answer:
A. Tension Headache
B. Migraine
C. Sinus headache
D. Cluster headache
33. Below medication are used to treat for migraine, except one medicine:
A. Ergotamine
B. Zolmitriptan
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Propranolol
34. The 4 common potential migraine triggers are: one correct answer:
A. Diet, Alcohol, Chocolate and Cheese
B. Lifestyle, Food, Physical and Environment
C. Weather, Travel, Pollution and Bright light
D. Stress, Depression, Oversleep and Over Activities
35. It is a common mental disorder that presents with depressed mood, loss of interest or pleasure, feelings of guilt or low self-worth, disturbed sleep or appetite, low energy, and poor concentration, it is called: one correct answer:
A. Anxiety
B. Depression
C. Insomnia
D. Migraine
36. Anxiety is a response that prepares us either to Run Or Approach Danger by producing stress hormones, it is called: one correct answer:
A. Anxiety
B. Depression
c. Insomnia
D. Migraine
37. The 5 types of Anxiety are: one correct answer:
A. Social Phobia / Specific Phobias / Agoraphobia / ICD and GAD
B. Social Phobia / Specific Phobias / Agoraphobia / OCD and CAD
C. Non social Phobia / Non specific phobias / Agoraphobia / OCD and GAD
D. Social Phobia / Specific Phobias / Agoraphobia / OCD and GAD
38. People who are facing and scared of Public Interactions and group associations is called: Choose one correct answer:
A. Social Phobia
B. Specific Phobias
C. Agoraphobia
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
39. A ………… is an intense, persistent, irrational fear of a specific object, situation, or activity, or person. Usually, the fear is proportionally greater than the actual danger or threat, Choose one correct answer:
A. Social Phobia
B. Specific Phobias
C. Agoraphobia
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
40. …………. Is the fear of being in a particular place where there it is absolutely no possibility of escaping in case of an emergency. These situations can include open spaces, public transit, shopping centers, or simply being outside their home. Choose one correct answer:
A. Social Phobia
B. Specific Phobias
C. Agoraphobia
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
41. …………… is an anxiety disorder in which time people have recurring, unwanted thoughts, ideas or sensations (obsessions) that make them feel driven to do something repetitively (compulsions). Choose one correct answer:
A. Social Phobia
B. Agoraphobia
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
42. ………….. Is characterized by persistent and excessive worry about a number of different things. People may anticipate disaster and be overly concerned about money, health, family, work, or other issues. Choose one correct answer:
A. Social Phobia
B. Agoraphobia
C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
43. The cause of Social Phobia are: choose two correct answer:
A. Hereditary
b. Environment
C. Food
D. Medicine
44. Below are the Benzodiazepines medication for treatment for Anxiety, choose two medicines that are not Benzodiazepines:
A. Diazepam
B. Sertraline
C. Alprazolam
D. Citalopram
45. Below are the Anti-depressants medication for treatment for Anxiety, choose two medicines that are not Anti-depressants:
A. Diazepam
B. Sertraline
C. Alprazolam
D. Citalopram
46. Two treatments of Anxiety below are the self-treatment, what are they:
A. Cognitive therapy
B. Heathy friendship
C. Spirituality
D. Psychotherapy
47. Two treatments of Anxiety below are required support from medical doctor, what are they:
A. Cognitive therapy
B. Heathy friendship
C. Spirituality
D. Psychotherapy
48. Below statement are the way of prevention of Anxiety, which one is not matched:
A. Exercise regularly
B. Eating healthy food
C. Excessive thinking
D. Keeping a regular sleep pattern
49. The 5 causes of Anxiety disorders are: which one is the most correct answer:
A. Genetic, Gelogical, Developmental, Socio Economic, Oversleep
B. Genetic, Biological, Brain Developmental, Socio Economic, Overeating
C. Genetic, Biological, Developmental, Socio Economic, Good living environment
D. Genetic, Biological, Developmental, Socio Economic, Workplace Stress
50. The 5 ways of treatment for Anxiety disorders are: one correct answer:
A. Medication, Psychotherapy, Cognitive Therapy, Benzodiazepines, Diazepam
B. Medication, Psychotherapy, Self-Treatment, Antidepressant, Alprazolam
C. Medication, Psychotherapy, Cognitive Therapy, Behavioral Therapy, Self-Treatment
D. Medication, Behavioral Therapy, Self-Treatment, Benzodiazepine, Antidepressant
51. ……………… is a sleep disorder in which you have trouble falling and/or staying asleep, choose one correct answer:
A. Anxiety
b. Depression
C. Insomnia
D. Migraine
52. Acute Insomnia is considered when a patient suffers from insomnia for, one correct answer
A. 3 times a week for less than a month
B. 3 times a week for less than a week
C. 3 times a week for less than a year
D. 3 times a month for less than a month
53. Chronic Insomnia, when a patient suffers from symptoms for, one correct answer:
A. More than 3 times a week for a period longer than 3 weeks
B. More than 3 times a week for a period longer than a month
C. More than 3 times a week for a period longer than 3 months
D. More than 3 times a week for a period shorter than 3 months
54. When your sleep problems aren’t linked to any other health condition or problem, it is called: choose one correct answer:
A. Acute insomnia
b. Chronic insomnia
C. Primary Insomnia
D. Second Insomnia
55. When you have trouble sleeping because of a health condition (like asthma, depression, arthritis, or heartburn); pain; medication; or drink alcohol, it is called, one correct answer
A. Acute insomnia
B. Chronic insomnia
C. Primary Insomnia
D. Second Insomnia
56. The daily sleeping time of Teenager (14 Years to 17 Years) is, one correct answer:
A. 10h to 13h
B. 9h to 11h
C. 8h to 10h
D. 7h to 9h
57. The daily sleeping time of Younger Adult - Adult is, one correct answer:
A. 9h to 11h
B. 8h to 10h
C. 7h to 9h
D. 7h to 8h
58. The daily sleeping time of older Adult (65 years +) is, one correct answer:
A. 9h to 11h
B. 8h to 10h
C. 7h to 9h
D. 7h to 8h
59. The different 5 methods used for treatment non pharmacological of insomnia are: choose one correct answer:
A. Sleep hygiene education, Stimulus control therapy, Sleep restriction therapy, Cognitive therapy, Relaxation training
B. Avoid sleep day time, Sleep on time needed, Keep bedroom dark, Take out clock from bed room, Keep regular time to sleep and time to wake
C. Medication, Psychotherapy, Cognitive Therapy, Benzodiazepines, Diazepam
D. Medication, Psychotherapy, Self-Treatment, Antidepressant , Aprazolam
60. Keep bedroom dark and quiet for sleep, avoid naps, no alcohol at least 4 hours before sleep, no caffeine afternoon and light snack before bedtime is one of the 5 methods used for non-pharmacological treatment of insomnia, which is the correction one:
A. Sleep hygiene education
b. Stimulus control therapy
C. Sleep restriction therapy
D. Cognitive therapy
E. Relaxation training
61. Use bedroom for sleep, go to bed only when tired and sleepy, Remove clock from the bedroom, Regular sleep / Regular wake time, No bright lights when you wake up at night is one of the 5 methods used for non-pharmacological treatment of insomnia, which is the correction one:
A. Sleep hygiene education
b. Stimulus control therapy
C. Sleep restriction therapy
d. Cognitive therapy
E. Relaxation training
62. Which benzodiazepines below have long action (elimination half-life)? One correct answer
A. Diazepam
b. Alprazolam
C. Oxazepam
D. Midazolam
63. Which benzodiazepines below have intermediate action (elimination half-life)? One answer:
A. Diazepam
B. Flurazepam
C. Alprazolam
D. Triazolam
64. Which benzodiazepines below have short action (, elimination half-life)? One answer:
A. Diazepam
b. Flurazepam
C. Alprazolam
D. Triazolam
65. Upper Urinary Tract Infections is : One answer:
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Cystitis
C. Prostatitis
D. Urethritis
66. Lower Urinary Tract Infections are: One answer:
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Interstitial pyelonephritis
c. Renal abscess
D. Cystitis, Prostatitis, Urethritis
67. Pyelonephritis is the inflammation pathology due to the infection at: One answer:
A. Kidney
b. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
68. Cystitis is the inflammation pathology due to the infection at: One answer:
A. Kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
69. Urethritis is the inflammation pathology due to the infection at: One answer:
A. Kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
70. Women tend to have urinary tract infections more often than men because: One answer:
A. Women’s urethra is weaker than men’s urethra
B. Women’s urethra is stronger than men’s urethra
C. Women’s urethra is shorter than men’s urethra
D. Women’s urethra is longer than men’s urethra
71. Choose one bacteria that mainly (most common) caused by colonic for UTI: One answer:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
72. Upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) is most common acute illness evaluated as the: Choose one correct answer:
A. In Patient Disease (IPD)
B. Out Patient Disease (OPD)
C. Medical emergency
D. Need hospitalization
73. The common illness represent for Upper Respiratory Tract Infection are (URTI): One answer
A. Rhinitis, Rhino-sinusitis, Naso-pharyngitis, Pharyngitis, Laryngitis
B. Otitis, Headache, Migraine, Meningitis, Fever
C. Bronchitis, Bronchiolitis, Pnemonia
D. Headache, toothache, Sinusitis
74. The common illness represent for Lower Respiratory Tract Infection are (LRTI): One answer
A. Rhinitis, Sinusitis, Laryngitis
B. Otitis, Meningitis, Bronchitis
C. Bronchitis, Bronchiolitis, Pnemonia
D. Headache, toothache, Sinusitis
75. Rhinitis is the inflammation of the: One answer:
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Nares and Paranasal sinuses
C. Nares, Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
D. Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
76. Rhino-sinusitis is the inflammation of the: One answer:
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Nares and Paranasal sinuses
C. Nares, Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
D. Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
77. Naso-pharyngitis the inflammation of the: One answer:
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Nares and Paranasal sinuses
C. Nares, Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
D. Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
78. Pharyngitis is the inflammation of the: One correct answer:
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Nares and Paranasal sinuses
C. Nares, Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
d. Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
79. Laryngitis is the inflammation of the: One correct answer:
A. Nares and Paranasal sinuses
B. Nares, Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
C. Pharynx, Hypopharynx, Uvula, and Tonsils
D. Larynx
80. Some of the home remedies for upper respiratory infection (for common cold) for non- pharmacological treatment are: One correct answer:
A. Steam, drinking warm beverages, drinking Honey, Using a vaporizer
B. Medication for anti-histamine
C. Paracetamol + anti-histamine
D. Paracetamol + NSAIDs
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