CCNA Questions 101-200 Random
102. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
ipv6 local
ipv6 host
ipv6 unicast-routing
ipv6 neighbor
103. Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
: :1
::
2000::/3
0::/10
104. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)
fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
105. Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
107. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
108. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface.
The interface is error-disabled.
The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.
An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.
109. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity
the interface is error-diabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses
it has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses
the security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
110. Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.)
The security violation counter dose not increment
The port LED turns off
The interface is error-disabled
A syslog message is generated
The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address
111. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)
there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined
Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP
The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170
112. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true?
Five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface.
A syslog message is generated when a violation occurs.
One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface.
One secure MAC address is dynamically configured on the interface.
113. Refer to the exhibit. When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2,the packet has. Which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2
source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1
source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
114. Refer to the exhibit Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the severs at a remote site. When troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the severs from router R2. What is the most likely reason that the other users are experiencing connection failure?
interface ports are shut down on the remote servers
The DHCP address pool has been exhausted
The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch
VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
115. After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two)
deploy load balancers
configure additional vlans
configure multiple VRRP groups
deploy POE switches
configure additional security policies
116. Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Add the default-information originate command on R2.
Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1.
Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.
Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2.
117. Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
{“key”:”value”}
[“key”,”value”]
{“key”,”value”}
(“key”:”value”)
118. Which option best describes an API?
A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.
an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications
a stateless client-server model
request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data
119. Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
show ipv6 interface
show access-list
show ipv6 access-list
show ipv6 route
120. Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?
transport input telnet ssh
transport input telnet
no transport input telnet
privilege level 15
122. What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router?
It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server.
It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server.
It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server
It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server.
123. Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP?
show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp
show interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
show ip interface dhcp
show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief
124. Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true?
applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses
applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses
applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses
can be configured only on Gigabit interface
125. Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?
ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5
ipv6 route default interface next-hop
ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
126. Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true?
Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
127. What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command?
displaying OSPF-related interface information
displaying general information about OSPF routing processes
displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis
displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis
128. How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports
to determine the hardware platform of the device
to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices
all of the above
129. How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
TTL
MAC address forwarding
Collision avoidance
Port blocking
130. Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.)
EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel.
STP does not block EtherChannel links.
You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports.
EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel.
EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.
131. Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address.
The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address.
The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges.
A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware.
An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90.
A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.
132. Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.)
Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network.
Scalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network.
The logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems.
Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required.
Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.
133. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
Defines the network functions that occur at each layer
Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
Changes in one layer do not impact other layer
Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
134. You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network – one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?
Change the maximum paths to 2
Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance
Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2
Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address
135. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?
IS-IS
EIGRP
OSPF
BGP
RIP
136. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
192.168.14.4
192.168.12.2
192.168.13.3
192.168.15.5
138. Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three)
192.168.2.0
10.4.3.0
10.0.0.0
172.16.0.0
172.16.4.0
192.168.0.0
139. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)
to enable intra-enterprise communication
to implement NAT
to connect applications
to conserve global address space
to manage routing overhead
140. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
NAT
6to4 tunneling
L2TPv3
dual-stack
141. Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three)
to speed up convergence
to reduce routing overhead
to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches.
to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth.
to confine network instability to single areas of the network.
to reduce the complexity of router configuration.
142. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
It supports VLSM.
It is used to route between autonomous systems.
It confines network instability to one area of the network.
It increases routing overhead on the network.
It allows extensive control of routing updates.
It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
143. Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
show ipv6 eigrp topology
show ipv6 eigrp traffic
show ipv6 eigrp events
144. Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
start of frame delimiter
Type field
preamble
Data field
145. Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
standby 10 preempt
standby 10 version 1
standby 10 priority 150
standby 10 version 2
146. Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
no additional config is required
standby 1 track ethernet
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 priority 250
147. You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
ip default-gateway
ip route
ip default-network
ip address dhcp
ip address dynamic
148. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
The designated port
The backup port
The alternate port
The root port
149. Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1, channel-group 10 mode on
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1, channel-group 10 mode active
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1, channel-group 10 mode auto
interface port-channel 10, switchport, switchport mode trunk
interface port-channel 10, no switchport, ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0
150. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
151. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to arouter, the DHCP clients behind the device connot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients
Activate the dhcp pool
Correct the subnet mask
configure the default gateway
152. Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
The router will return the packet to its source.
The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
The router will drop the packet.
153. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
sniffer
mesh
flexconnect
local
155. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
157. Which effete does the aaa new-model configuration command have?
It enables AAA services on the device
It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
It associates a RADIUS server to an group.
It configures a local user on the device.
158. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
It sends the traffic to VLAN 10.
It sends the traffic to VLAN 100.
It drops the traffic.
It sends the traffic to VLAN 1.
159. Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two)
channel-group 10 mode on
channel-group 10 mode auto
channel-group 10 mode passive
channel-group 10 mode desirable
hannel-group 10 mode active
160. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
00000000
11111100
11111111
11111101
161. Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
They determine the optimal within an autonomous system.
They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems.
BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol.
Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing.
Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing.
162. What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
00:00:0c:07:ac:01
ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
43:2e:08:00:00:0c
00:00:0c:43:2e:08
00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
163. You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
Reload the OSPF process.
Specify a loopback address
Reboot the router.
Save the router configuration
164. Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)
All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name
All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.
All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name
The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain
All switches must use the same VTP version.
165. Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.)
the native VLAN
the trunking protocol
the VTP domain
the spanning-tree priority
the spanning tree protocol
166. Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
RIP
OSPF
IGRP
EIGRP
167. Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?
VLAN 1
VLAN 5
VLAN 10
VLAN 20
168. Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
mismatched autonomous system numbers
an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10
mismatched process IDs
mismatched hello timers and dead timers
use of the same router ID on both devices
169. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two) haha 69 again
The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems
Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device
They can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured.
The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system
The two devices must have matching timer settings
170. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two)
whether the NTP peer is statically configured
the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
the configured NTP servers
whether the clock is synchronized
the NTP version number of the peer
171. Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?
source
static
pool
overload
172. Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)
whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface
the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system
whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
Which neighbor adjacencies are established
the length of time that a route has been known
173. Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?
NAT pool
dynamic NAT
static NAT
one-way NAT
174. Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?
lldp run
lldp enable
lldp transmit
cdp run
cdp enable
175. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true ?
The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched
The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched
176. Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
ntp server
ntp peer
ntp authenticate
ntp master
177. Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
LLDP
CDP
IP SLA
EEM
178. Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration?
static NAT translation
a DHCP pool
a dynamic NAT address pool
PAT
179. In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor
CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor
CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor
CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor
180. Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two.)
NTP uses UDP over IP.
Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients.
Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers.
Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients.
NTP uses TCP over IP.
181. Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
lldp timer 5000
lldp holdtime 5
lldp reinit 5000
lldp reinit 5
182. Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
Router loopback address
Router IP address
Router priority
Router tracking number
183. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.
It runs on the network layer.
It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches.
It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.
184. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
The interface number
The port priority
The VLAN priority
The hello time
185. When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?
Passive
Desirable
On
Auto
Active
186. Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
show hsrp
show sessions
show interfaces
show standby
187. Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?
Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31
188. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
to allow communication with devices on a different network
to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
to allow communication between different devices on the same network
to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
189. Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
show ip ospf link-state
show ip ospf lsa database
show ip ospf neighbors
show ip ospf database
190. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123, C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1, C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255
These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip, C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
No further routing configuration is required.
191. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
port-to-multipoint
broadcast
point-to-point
non-broadcast
192. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240
192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252
192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252
193. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0. After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
FastEthernet0/0
FastEthernet0/1
Serial0/0
Serial0/1.102
Serial0/1.103
Serial0/1.104
194. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
The OSPF area is not configured properly.
The cost on R1 should be set higher.
The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
195. Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
196. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
10.1.1.2
10.154.154.1
172.16.5.1
192.168.5.3
197. Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network
198. Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
199. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
This design will function as intended.
Spanning-tree will need to be used.
The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
The connection between switches should be a trunk.
The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
200. What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy
provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks
allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point
combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency
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