Biology final
Biology Final Quiz
Test your knowledge and understanding of biological concepts with our comprehensive quiz!
This quiz includes 37 questions covering various topics such as genetics, DNA replication, and cellular processes. Challenge yourself and see how well you understand the intricate details of biology.
- In-depth questions
- Coverage of multiple biology topics
- Perfect for students and science enthusiasts
1.Eukaryotic chromatin is composed of which of the following macromolecules
A. DNA and RNA
B. DNA and proteins
C. DNA only
D. DNA and phospholipids
2. After DNA replication, each duplicated chromosome consists of two of which of the following structures?
A. Daughter chromosomes
B. Daughter nucleosomes
C. Sister chromatins
D. Sister chromatids
3. What is the name of the region on duplicated chromosomes where the sister chromatids are most closely attached to each other?
A. The chromatin
B. The centromere
C. The cohesin
D. The centrosome
4. Which of the following cellular events occur in G1 phase of the cell division cycle?
A. Dna replication
B. Normal growth and cell function
C. The begining of mitosis
D. Break down of the nuclear membrane
5. Which of the following events occur during interphase of the cell cycle?
A. Condensation of the chromosomes
B. Replication of the dna
C. Spindle formation
D. Separtation of the spindle poles
6.Which of the following statements best describes homologus chromosomes?
A.They were inherited from the same parent
B.They carry the same alleles
C.The carry information for the same tratis
D. They align on the metaphase plate in meiosis 2
7.Which of the following statements about the human x chromosome is correct
A. It is present in every gametic cell of males and females
B. It is the smaller than other chromosomes
B. It carries genes that influence and individuals biological sex
C. It is referred to as an autosome
8. Which of the following events happens at the conclusion of meiosis 1?
A. Homologenous chromosomes of a pair are separeted from each other
B. The chromosome number per cell remains the same
C. Sister chromatids are separted
D. Four d. Daughter cells are formed
9. Albinism is a recessive trait where an indivdual does not produce the pigment melanin. A man and woman who both produce melanin have one child out of three who has albinism. What are the genotypes of the man and woman?
A. One parent must be homozygous for the recessive allele, the other one can be homozygous dominant, homozygounous recessive, or heterozygous
B. One parent must be heterozygous, the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive or heterozygous
C. Both parents must be heterozygous
D. One parent must be homozygouss dominant, the other parent must be heterozygous
11. What catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between a DNA strand and a new nucleotide being added during DNA replication.
A. primase
B. DNA polymerase
C. ATP
D. Helicase
14. Which of the following best describes the redundancy in the genetic code?
A. A single codon can specify the addition of more than one amino acid
B. The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms.
C. Substitution of the first nucleotide in the codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid
D. More than one codon can specify fthe addition of the same amino acid
15. Which of the following statements is the most current description of a gene
A. Unit of heredity yhat causes formation of phenotype characteristics
B.A DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein
C.A dna sequence that is expressed to form a functional RNA, and protein product
D. A rna fragment that consists of sequence of nucleotides 5 cap and poly a tail
17. Within a double stranded DNA – molecule, ifadenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine what consequence in the structure of the DNA
A. It allows variable width of the double helix
B. It permits complementary base pairing
C. It determines the tertiary structure of a dna molecule
d. It determines the type of protein produced
Within a double stranded dna molecule, ifadenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine what consequence in the strtucture of the DNA
It allows variable width of the double helix
It permits complementary base pairing
It determines the tertiary structure of a DNA molecule
It determines the type of protein produced
What catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between a DNA strand a new nucleotide being added during DNA replication?
Primase
Dna polymerase
Atp
Helicase
A particular triplet of bases in the templated strand of DNA is 5'-AGT3'. What would be the corresponding codon for the mRNA that is transcribed?
5'-UCA-3'
3'-ACU-5'
5'-AGT-3'
3'-UCA-5'
Which of the following processes occurs as part of transcription?
DNA is replicated
RNA is synthesized
Proteins are synthesized
Mra attaches to ribosomes
Which of the following statements best describes the significance of TATA box interpromoters of eukaryotes?
It sets the reading frame of the mRNA during translation
It is a recognition site fir the binding of a specific transcription factor
It sets the recognition site for ribosomal binding during translation
It is the recognition site for the ribosomal binding during transcription
Translation termination occurs when a ribosome interacts with which of the following structures?
At the end of the mRNA molecule
A stop codon
The 5' cap
The poly-a-tail
Which of the following statements describes the effect of nonsense mutation on a gene?
A. It chagnes only one amino acid in the encoded protein
B. It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein
C. It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA
D. It alters the reading frame of the mRNA
The most commonly occuring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. What is the result of this type of mutation?
A. A base- pair substitution
B. A frameshift mutation
C. A polypeptide missing an amino acid
D. A polypeptide missing its n-terminus
27. Which of the following describes the most likely effects that a single base substitution in the middle of gene’s sequence will have on the protein the gene encodes?
A. A single amino acid would change because pairing of mRNA and tRNA in the ribosomes would change
B. The protei would be shorter because the correct tRNA would not be able to interact with the ribosome
C. All amino acids following the subsitution would be affectted because thereading frame would be altered.
D. There would be no change because the genetic code is ambigous.
28.which of the following mutation would be moast likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?
A. A deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of agene
B. A single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron
C. A single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence
D. A single nucleotide insertion fownream of, and close to the of the coding sequence
29. Which of the following characteristics of Taq polymerase make it useful in the PCR process?
A. It is heat stable and can withstand heating step of PCR
B. It is isolated from bacteria so there is a large supply
C. It binds more readilt than other polymares to the primers
D. It has regions that are complementery to primers
30. Which of the following processes can deoxyribonucleotides be used?
A) To separate different sized DNA fragments
B) To produce cDNA from mRNA
C) To sequence a DNA fragment
D) To visualize DNA expression
31.Which of the following correctly list the processes in order for one cycle of polymerase chain reaction(PCR)?
A) denature DNA, add fresh enzyme, anneal primers, add dNTPs, extend primers
B) anneal primers, denature DNA, extend primers
C)extend primers, anneal primers, denature DNA
D)denature DNA, anneal primers, extend primers
32.Which of the following tools of DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
A) electrophoresis – separation of DNA fragments
B) DNA ligase – cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
C) DNA polymerase – polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
D) reverse transcriptase – production of cDNA from mRNA
?33. A 44 year old individual is a homozygeous carrier of N991D germline mutation in BRCA2 gene. Which sentence is true?
a) the mutation can be found in DNA isolated from skin cells taken from his child
B) the mutation can be found in DNA isolated from white blood cells taken from his child
C) the mutation can be found in DNA isolated from saliva taken from his child
D) all above are correct
34. What are the advantages of NGS?
A) hight throughput sequencing
B) fast and easy
C) direct results (without electrophoresis)
D) DNA modifications
35. Which of the following tumors are beneign?
A) stomach cabcer B cells lymphoma(?)
B) melanoma, meningoma
C) soft tissue ...., skin cancer
D) none of the above answers is correct
36. You found a mutation. It is present in DNA isolated from cancer cells. It is also present in DNA isolated from saliva. Based upon the facts you may say:
A) It is a somatic mutation
B) It is a polymorphism
C) Risk of inheritance is 25%
D) Carrier of this mutation inherited the mutation from the parent
37. Deletion of 2 bp in exon 2 of this gene predisposed to colorectal cancer, which gene is mutated?
A) C-myc
B) K-ras
C) MLH1
D)VHL
38. Select the correct answer, what is translocation?
A) a portion of chromosome is duplicated
B) a portion of a chromosome has broken off and formed a circle or ring
C) a portion of chromosome is transferred to another
D) is numerical abnormality
39. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disorder, select the correct answers
A) can be identifies Taq man analysis
B) is present only in men
C)is present only in women
D) 47XX +13
40. Metacentric chromosome is characterized by
A) the same length of arms
B) p arm is longer than q arm
C) q arm is longer than p arm
D) is not present in human cells
41) Which of the following statements are true about eukaryotes?
A) they are cells with a nucleus
B) they can form multicellular organisms
C) endoplasmic reticulum is present in eukaruotes
D) all above are trye
42. Insertion or deletion can cause in protein:
A) a frame shift if five nucleotides are deleted
B) in frame if six nucleotides are deleted
C) in frame if three nucleotides are inserted
D) all above
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